Proof that β-function ∈ C^∞












0














I need to find correct proof that β-function is smooth on its domain.



Is there some feature of such functions, I guess that we need to prove the continuity of all n-derivatives, or their partial derivatives, but how it will be eventually I hadn't got yet. I will very glad your help.










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  • You need to write in latex, click on edit in the other post to see how. That the $beta$ function is $k$-times differentiable in each of its variable is not hard. To see it is analytic you can expand $t^{x-1}$ as a series in powers of $x+c$.
    – reuns
    Nov 29 at 6:58












  • Which function do you mean: Dirichlet's $beta$ or Euler's $B$?
    – gammatester
    Nov 29 at 8:22










  • Euler's Β function
    – user2952487
    Nov 29 at 11:39
















0














I need to find correct proof that β-function is smooth on its domain.



Is there some feature of such functions, I guess that we need to prove the continuity of all n-derivatives, or their partial derivatives, but how it will be eventually I hadn't got yet. I will very glad your help.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • You need to write in latex, click on edit in the other post to see how. That the $beta$ function is $k$-times differentiable in each of its variable is not hard. To see it is analytic you can expand $t^{x-1}$ as a series in powers of $x+c$.
    – reuns
    Nov 29 at 6:58












  • Which function do you mean: Dirichlet's $beta$ or Euler's $B$?
    – gammatester
    Nov 29 at 8:22










  • Euler's Β function
    – user2952487
    Nov 29 at 11:39














0












0








0







I need to find correct proof that β-function is smooth on its domain.



Is there some feature of such functions, I guess that we need to prove the continuity of all n-derivatives, or their partial derivatives, but how it will be eventually I hadn't got yet. I will very glad your help.










share|cite|improve this question















I need to find correct proof that β-function is smooth on its domain.



Is there some feature of such functions, I guess that we need to prove the continuity of all n-derivatives, or their partial derivatives, but how it will be eventually I hadn't got yet. I will very glad your help.







calculus integration special-functions smooth-functions






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edited Nov 29 at 6:56

























asked Nov 29 at 6:19









user2952487

224




224












  • You need to write in latex, click on edit in the other post to see how. That the $beta$ function is $k$-times differentiable in each of its variable is not hard. To see it is analytic you can expand $t^{x-1}$ as a series in powers of $x+c$.
    – reuns
    Nov 29 at 6:58












  • Which function do you mean: Dirichlet's $beta$ or Euler's $B$?
    – gammatester
    Nov 29 at 8:22










  • Euler's Β function
    – user2952487
    Nov 29 at 11:39


















  • You need to write in latex, click on edit in the other post to see how. That the $beta$ function is $k$-times differentiable in each of its variable is not hard. To see it is analytic you can expand $t^{x-1}$ as a series in powers of $x+c$.
    – reuns
    Nov 29 at 6:58












  • Which function do you mean: Dirichlet's $beta$ or Euler's $B$?
    – gammatester
    Nov 29 at 8:22










  • Euler's Β function
    – user2952487
    Nov 29 at 11:39
















You need to write in latex, click on edit in the other post to see how. That the $beta$ function is $k$-times differentiable in each of its variable is not hard. To see it is analytic you can expand $t^{x-1}$ as a series in powers of $x+c$.
– reuns
Nov 29 at 6:58






You need to write in latex, click on edit in the other post to see how. That the $beta$ function is $k$-times differentiable in each of its variable is not hard. To see it is analytic you can expand $t^{x-1}$ as a series in powers of $x+c$.
– reuns
Nov 29 at 6:58














Which function do you mean: Dirichlet's $beta$ or Euler's $B$?
– gammatester
Nov 29 at 8:22




Which function do you mean: Dirichlet's $beta$ or Euler's $B$?
– gammatester
Nov 29 at 8:22












Euler's Β function
– user2952487
Nov 29 at 11:39




Euler's Β function
– user2952487
Nov 29 at 11:39










1 Answer
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You have more than enough to differentiate through the integral sign (the Leibniz rule.) For example, thinking of $x,y>0,$ we have



$$frac{d}{dx}int_0^1t^{x-1}(1-t)^{y-1},dt = int_0^1(ln t)t^{x-1}(1-t)^{y-1},dt.$$



You can keep going, piling up factors like $(ln t)^m ln (1-t)^n$ in the integral. None of these factors will destroy integrability.






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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
    1






    active

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    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    1














    You have more than enough to differentiate through the integral sign (the Leibniz rule.) For example, thinking of $x,y>0,$ we have



    $$frac{d}{dx}int_0^1t^{x-1}(1-t)^{y-1},dt = int_0^1(ln t)t^{x-1}(1-t)^{y-1},dt.$$



    You can keep going, piling up factors like $(ln t)^m ln (1-t)^n$ in the integral. None of these factors will destroy integrability.






    share|cite|improve this answer


























      1














      You have more than enough to differentiate through the integral sign (the Leibniz rule.) For example, thinking of $x,y>0,$ we have



      $$frac{d}{dx}int_0^1t^{x-1}(1-t)^{y-1},dt = int_0^1(ln t)t^{x-1}(1-t)^{y-1},dt.$$



      You can keep going, piling up factors like $(ln t)^m ln (1-t)^n$ in the integral. None of these factors will destroy integrability.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        1












        1








        1






        You have more than enough to differentiate through the integral sign (the Leibniz rule.) For example, thinking of $x,y>0,$ we have



        $$frac{d}{dx}int_0^1t^{x-1}(1-t)^{y-1},dt = int_0^1(ln t)t^{x-1}(1-t)^{y-1},dt.$$



        You can keep going, piling up factors like $(ln t)^m ln (1-t)^n$ in the integral. None of these factors will destroy integrability.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        You have more than enough to differentiate through the integral sign (the Leibniz rule.) For example, thinking of $x,y>0,$ we have



        $$frac{d}{dx}int_0^1t^{x-1}(1-t)^{y-1},dt = int_0^1(ln t)t^{x-1}(1-t)^{y-1},dt.$$



        You can keep going, piling up factors like $(ln t)^m ln (1-t)^n$ in the integral. None of these factors will destroy integrability.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 29 at 18:02









        zhw.

        71.5k43075




        71.5k43075






























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