Prove that the eigenvalues of a real symmetric matrix are real.











up vote
8
down vote

favorite
4












I am having a difficult time with the following question. Any help will be much appreciated.




Let $A$ be an $n×n$ real matrix such that $A^T = A$. We call such matrices “symmetric.” Prove that the eigenvalues of a real symmetric matrix are real (i.e. if $lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $A$, show that $lambda = overline{lambda}$ )











share|cite|improve this question
























  • A real $ntimes n$ matrix only can have real eigenvalues (every complex zero of the characteristic is no eigenvalue of the real matrix)
    – Dominic Michaelis
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:12






  • 1




    @Susan : see Dominic's answer. You will need to use the "complex inner product" $langle mathbf{x}, mathbf{y} rangle = sum_{i=1}^n {bar x_i}y_i$. Also see Lepidopterist's answer, where $C^*$ is the conjugate transpose of $C$, $C^* = {bar {C^T}}$.
    – Stefan Smith
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:13












  • @DominicMichaelis : do you really mean that (a real square matrix can have only real eigenvalues)? I'm afraid you might confuse Susan. What about $[0, 1;-1, 0]$ with eigenvalues $pm i$? (Sorry, I don't remember the $LaTeX$ for writing a matrix
    – Stefan Smith
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:45










  • @StefanSmith if you consider it as a real matrix, it doesn't have any eigenvalues.
    – Dominic Michaelis
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:49










  • Going Dominic's way or Lepidopterist's way, you will easily see that the (a priori complex) eigenvalues must be real. Note that the exact same proofs show that the eigenvalues of a hermitian $A^*=A$ matrix are real in the general complex case.
    – Julien
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:59

















up vote
8
down vote

favorite
4












I am having a difficult time with the following question. Any help will be much appreciated.




Let $A$ be an $n×n$ real matrix such that $A^T = A$. We call such matrices “symmetric.” Prove that the eigenvalues of a real symmetric matrix are real (i.e. if $lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $A$, show that $lambda = overline{lambda}$ )











share|cite|improve this question
























  • A real $ntimes n$ matrix only can have real eigenvalues (every complex zero of the characteristic is no eigenvalue of the real matrix)
    – Dominic Michaelis
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:12






  • 1




    @Susan : see Dominic's answer. You will need to use the "complex inner product" $langle mathbf{x}, mathbf{y} rangle = sum_{i=1}^n {bar x_i}y_i$. Also see Lepidopterist's answer, where $C^*$ is the conjugate transpose of $C$, $C^* = {bar {C^T}}$.
    – Stefan Smith
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:13












  • @DominicMichaelis : do you really mean that (a real square matrix can have only real eigenvalues)? I'm afraid you might confuse Susan. What about $[0, 1;-1, 0]$ with eigenvalues $pm i$? (Sorry, I don't remember the $LaTeX$ for writing a matrix
    – Stefan Smith
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:45










  • @StefanSmith if you consider it as a real matrix, it doesn't have any eigenvalues.
    – Dominic Michaelis
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:49










  • Going Dominic's way or Lepidopterist's way, you will easily see that the (a priori complex) eigenvalues must be real. Note that the exact same proofs show that the eigenvalues of a hermitian $A^*=A$ matrix are real in the general complex case.
    – Julien
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:59















up vote
8
down vote

favorite
4









up vote
8
down vote

favorite
4






4





I am having a difficult time with the following question. Any help will be much appreciated.




Let $A$ be an $n×n$ real matrix such that $A^T = A$. We call such matrices “symmetric.” Prove that the eigenvalues of a real symmetric matrix are real (i.e. if $lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $A$, show that $lambda = overline{lambda}$ )











share|cite|improve this question















I am having a difficult time with the following question. Any help will be much appreciated.




Let $A$ be an $n×n$ real matrix such that $A^T = A$. We call such matrices “symmetric.” Prove that the eigenvalues of a real symmetric matrix are real (i.e. if $lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $A$, show that $lambda = overline{lambda}$ )








linear-algebra matrices eigenvalues-eigenvectors inner-product-space






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Oct 10 '16 at 6:14









Irregular User

2,86251743




2,86251743










asked Apr 7 '13 at 18:58









Susan

3671311




3671311












  • A real $ntimes n$ matrix only can have real eigenvalues (every complex zero of the characteristic is no eigenvalue of the real matrix)
    – Dominic Michaelis
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:12






  • 1




    @Susan : see Dominic's answer. You will need to use the "complex inner product" $langle mathbf{x}, mathbf{y} rangle = sum_{i=1}^n {bar x_i}y_i$. Also see Lepidopterist's answer, where $C^*$ is the conjugate transpose of $C$, $C^* = {bar {C^T}}$.
    – Stefan Smith
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:13












  • @DominicMichaelis : do you really mean that (a real square matrix can have only real eigenvalues)? I'm afraid you might confuse Susan. What about $[0, 1;-1, 0]$ with eigenvalues $pm i$? (Sorry, I don't remember the $LaTeX$ for writing a matrix
    – Stefan Smith
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:45










  • @StefanSmith if you consider it as a real matrix, it doesn't have any eigenvalues.
    – Dominic Michaelis
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:49










  • Going Dominic's way or Lepidopterist's way, you will easily see that the (a priori complex) eigenvalues must be real. Note that the exact same proofs show that the eigenvalues of a hermitian $A^*=A$ matrix are real in the general complex case.
    – Julien
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:59




















  • A real $ntimes n$ matrix only can have real eigenvalues (every complex zero of the characteristic is no eigenvalue of the real matrix)
    – Dominic Michaelis
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:12






  • 1




    @Susan : see Dominic's answer. You will need to use the "complex inner product" $langle mathbf{x}, mathbf{y} rangle = sum_{i=1}^n {bar x_i}y_i$. Also see Lepidopterist's answer, where $C^*$ is the conjugate transpose of $C$, $C^* = {bar {C^T}}$.
    – Stefan Smith
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:13












  • @DominicMichaelis : do you really mean that (a real square matrix can have only real eigenvalues)? I'm afraid you might confuse Susan. What about $[0, 1;-1, 0]$ with eigenvalues $pm i$? (Sorry, I don't remember the $LaTeX$ for writing a matrix
    – Stefan Smith
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:45










  • @StefanSmith if you consider it as a real matrix, it doesn't have any eigenvalues.
    – Dominic Michaelis
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:49










  • Going Dominic's way or Lepidopterist's way, you will easily see that the (a priori complex) eigenvalues must be real. Note that the exact same proofs show that the eigenvalues of a hermitian $A^*=A$ matrix are real in the general complex case.
    – Julien
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:59


















A real $ntimes n$ matrix only can have real eigenvalues (every complex zero of the characteristic is no eigenvalue of the real matrix)
– Dominic Michaelis
Apr 7 '13 at 19:12




A real $ntimes n$ matrix only can have real eigenvalues (every complex zero of the characteristic is no eigenvalue of the real matrix)
– Dominic Michaelis
Apr 7 '13 at 19:12




1




1




@Susan : see Dominic's answer. You will need to use the "complex inner product" $langle mathbf{x}, mathbf{y} rangle = sum_{i=1}^n {bar x_i}y_i$. Also see Lepidopterist's answer, where $C^*$ is the conjugate transpose of $C$, $C^* = {bar {C^T}}$.
– Stefan Smith
Apr 7 '13 at 19:13






@Susan : see Dominic's answer. You will need to use the "complex inner product" $langle mathbf{x}, mathbf{y} rangle = sum_{i=1}^n {bar x_i}y_i$. Also see Lepidopterist's answer, where $C^*$ is the conjugate transpose of $C$, $C^* = {bar {C^T}}$.
– Stefan Smith
Apr 7 '13 at 19:13














@DominicMichaelis : do you really mean that (a real square matrix can have only real eigenvalues)? I'm afraid you might confuse Susan. What about $[0, 1;-1, 0]$ with eigenvalues $pm i$? (Sorry, I don't remember the $LaTeX$ for writing a matrix
– Stefan Smith
Apr 7 '13 at 19:45




@DominicMichaelis : do you really mean that (a real square matrix can have only real eigenvalues)? I'm afraid you might confuse Susan. What about $[0, 1;-1, 0]$ with eigenvalues $pm i$? (Sorry, I don't remember the $LaTeX$ for writing a matrix
– Stefan Smith
Apr 7 '13 at 19:45












@StefanSmith if you consider it as a real matrix, it doesn't have any eigenvalues.
– Dominic Michaelis
Apr 7 '13 at 19:49




@StefanSmith if you consider it as a real matrix, it doesn't have any eigenvalues.
– Dominic Michaelis
Apr 7 '13 at 19:49












Going Dominic's way or Lepidopterist's way, you will easily see that the (a priori complex) eigenvalues must be real. Note that the exact same proofs show that the eigenvalues of a hermitian $A^*=A$ matrix are real in the general complex case.
– Julien
Apr 7 '13 at 19:59






Going Dominic's way or Lepidopterist's way, you will easily see that the (a priori complex) eigenvalues must be real. Note that the exact same proofs show that the eigenvalues of a hermitian $A^*=A$ matrix are real in the general complex case.
– Julien
Apr 7 '13 at 19:59












5 Answers
5






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
11
down vote













$Av=lambda v$ combined with $A=A^T$ gives $$langle Av,Avrangle=v^*A^*Av=v^*A^TAv=v^*A^2v=lambda^2||v||^2.$$



Now $lambda^2=frac{langle Av,Avrangle}{||v||^2}geq 0,$ as the quotient of a nonnegative real number by a positive one. So $lambda$ must be real.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • A quotient of non-negative real numbers? But the argument is very neat.
    – Chris Godsil
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:08










  • only because of $lambda^2$ is real $lambda$ is not real in general. and still you need non negative, because $Av=0$ will surely not be positive. and your equation is confusing
    – Dominic Michaelis
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:19








  • 1




    If $lambda^2$ is positive and real, then $lambda$ is real. What is confusing? And ok, we can assume $lambda$ is not zero! Zero is real obviously.
    – Lepidopterist
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:23






  • 1




    You don't need to bother about $lambda =0$. All you need is $|v|>0$, which is given as you take a (nonzero) eigenvector. So you do find $lambda^2geq 0$. Which is equivalent to $lambda $ being real.
    – Julien
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:44








  • 2




    I decided to edit your answer directly to avoid long chat discussions. I hope you don't mind. Just roll back to your version if you disagree and I will leave it alone.
    – Julien
    Apr 7 '13 at 19:51


















up vote
4
down vote













Let $Ax=lambda x$ with $xne 0$, with $lambdainmathbb{R}$, then
begin{align}
lambda bar x^T x &= bar x^T(lambda x)\
&=bar x^T A x \
&=(A^T bar{x})^T x \
&=(A bar x)^T x \
&=(bar A bar x)^T x \
&=(barlambdabar x)^T x\
&=bar lambda bar x^T x.\
end{align}

Because $xne 0$, then $bar{x}^T xne 0$ and $lambda=bar lambda$.






share|cite|improve this answer






























    up vote
    3
    down vote













    Hint:
    Prove that $$x^ast A x=langle x , A xrangle = langle Ax, xrangle = x^ast A^ast x $$
    Where $A^ast=overline{A}^T$






    share|cite|improve this answer

















    • 1




      As $A^*=A$, you even get $x^*A^*x=x^*Ax$ directly without any intermediate step. ANd that's all you need for nonzero eigenvalues to be real. I have just seen you hint, by the way, +1.
      – Julien
      Apr 7 '13 at 19:56










    • It's homework so I thought i only give a hint. yeah the equation is pretty obvious but it's worth mentioning in homework i guess
      – Dominic Michaelis
      Apr 7 '13 at 19:59






    • 1




      I'm afraid you misunderstood my comment. It is great that you only gave a hint. I was just saying that the first two equalities are not necessary. But sure, it does not hurt either to include them.
      – Julien
      Apr 7 '13 at 20:01




















    up vote
    1
    down vote













    If $lambda$ is any eigenvalue of a Hermitian (in particular real symmetric) matrix $A$, then for some non-zero vector $x$,
    $$Ax = lambda x implies x^*Ax = lambda x^*x implies lambda = dfrac{x^*Ax}{x^*x}.$$



    Now $$lambda^* = dfrac{x^* A^* x}{x^*x} = dfrac{x^*Ax}{x^*x} = lambda.$$
    Therefore, $lambda$ is real.



    Note: $(AB)^* = B^*A^*$.






    share|cite|improve this answer




























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      Hint: for every $ntimes n$ matrix $M$
      $$
      langle Mv , wrangle
      ~=~
      langle v , M^H wrangle
      $$
      where $M^H$ is the conjugate transpose of $M$ and $langle,cdot,,,cdot,rangle$ is the complex inner product (i.e. $langle v,wrangle=v^Hw$).




      1. Think about how the eigenvalues of $M^H$ and those of $M$ are related

      2. Let $v$ be a $lambda$-eigenvector of $M$ and try what happens choosing $v=w$ in the above equation

      3. Now, if $A$ is real valued and symmetric then $A^H=A$; try again the second point with $M=A$...






      share|cite|improve this answer





















        Your Answer





        StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
        return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
        StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
        StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
        });
        });
        }, "mathjax-editing");

        StackExchange.ready(function() {
        var channelOptions = {
        tags: "".split(" "),
        id: "69"
        };
        initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

        StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
        // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
        if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
        StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
        createEditor();
        });
        }
        else {
        createEditor();
        }
        });

        function createEditor() {
        StackExchange.prepareEditor({
        heartbeatType: 'answer',
        convertImagesToLinks: true,
        noModals: true,
        showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
        reputationToPostImages: 10,
        bindNavPrevention: true,
        postfix: "",
        imageUploader: {
        brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
        contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
        allowUrls: true
        },
        noCode: true, onDemand: true,
        discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
        ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
        });


        }
        });














         

        draft saved


        draft discarded


















        StackExchange.ready(
        function () {
        StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f354115%2fprove-that-the-eigenvalues-of-a-real-symmetric-matrix-are-real%23new-answer', 'question_page');
        }
        );

        Post as a guest















        Required, but never shown

























        5 Answers
        5






        active

        oldest

        votes








        5 Answers
        5






        active

        oldest

        votes









        active

        oldest

        votes






        active

        oldest

        votes








        up vote
        11
        down vote













        $Av=lambda v$ combined with $A=A^T$ gives $$langle Av,Avrangle=v^*A^*Av=v^*A^TAv=v^*A^2v=lambda^2||v||^2.$$



        Now $lambda^2=frac{langle Av,Avrangle}{||v||^2}geq 0,$ as the quotient of a nonnegative real number by a positive one. So $lambda$ must be real.






        share|cite|improve this answer























        • A quotient of non-negative real numbers? But the argument is very neat.
          – Chris Godsil
          Apr 7 '13 at 19:08










        • only because of $lambda^2$ is real $lambda$ is not real in general. and still you need non negative, because $Av=0$ will surely not be positive. and your equation is confusing
          – Dominic Michaelis
          Apr 7 '13 at 19:19








        • 1




          If $lambda^2$ is positive and real, then $lambda$ is real. What is confusing? And ok, we can assume $lambda$ is not zero! Zero is real obviously.
          – Lepidopterist
          Apr 7 '13 at 19:23






        • 1




          You don't need to bother about $lambda =0$. All you need is $|v|>0$, which is given as you take a (nonzero) eigenvector. So you do find $lambda^2geq 0$. Which is equivalent to $lambda $ being real.
          – Julien
          Apr 7 '13 at 19:44








        • 2




          I decided to edit your answer directly to avoid long chat discussions. I hope you don't mind. Just roll back to your version if you disagree and I will leave it alone.
          – Julien
          Apr 7 '13 at 19:51















        up vote
        11
        down vote













        $Av=lambda v$ combined with $A=A^T$ gives $$langle Av,Avrangle=v^*A^*Av=v^*A^TAv=v^*A^2v=lambda^2||v||^2.$$



        Now $lambda^2=frac{langle Av,Avrangle}{||v||^2}geq 0,$ as the quotient of a nonnegative real number by a positive one. So $lambda$ must be real.






        share|cite|improve this answer























        • A quotient of non-negative real numbers? But the argument is very neat.
          – Chris Godsil
          Apr 7 '13 at 19:08










        • only because of $lambda^2$ is real $lambda$ is not real in general. and still you need non negative, because $Av=0$ will surely not be positive. and your equation is confusing
          – Dominic Michaelis
          Apr 7 '13 at 19:19








        • 1




          If $lambda^2$ is positive and real, then $lambda$ is real. What is confusing? And ok, we can assume $lambda$ is not zero! Zero is real obviously.
          – Lepidopterist
          Apr 7 '13 at 19:23






        • 1




          You don't need to bother about $lambda =0$. All you need is $|v|>0$, which is given as you take a (nonzero) eigenvector. So you do find $lambda^2geq 0$. Which is equivalent to $lambda $ being real.
          – Julien
          Apr 7 '13 at 19:44








        • 2




          I decided to edit your answer directly to avoid long chat discussions. I hope you don't mind. Just roll back to your version if you disagree and I will leave it alone.
          – Julien
          Apr 7 '13 at 19:51













        up vote
        11
        down vote










        up vote
        11
        down vote









        $Av=lambda v$ combined with $A=A^T$ gives $$langle Av,Avrangle=v^*A^*Av=v^*A^TAv=v^*A^2v=lambda^2||v||^2.$$



        Now $lambda^2=frac{langle Av,Avrangle}{||v||^2}geq 0,$ as the quotient of a nonnegative real number by a positive one. So $lambda$ must be real.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        $Av=lambda v$ combined with $A=A^T$ gives $$langle Av,Avrangle=v^*A^*Av=v^*A^TAv=v^*A^2v=lambda^2||v||^2.$$



        Now $lambda^2=frac{langle Av,Avrangle}{||v||^2}geq 0,$ as the quotient of a nonnegative real number by a positive one. So $lambda$ must be real.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Apr 7 '13 at 19:51









        Julien

        38.2k355124




        38.2k355124










        answered Apr 7 '13 at 19:06









        Lepidopterist

        9771026




        9771026












        • A quotient of non-negative real numbers? But the argument is very neat.
          – Chris Godsil
          Apr 7 '13 at 19:08










        • only because of $lambda^2$ is real $lambda$ is not real in general. and still you need non negative, because $Av=0$ will surely not be positive. and your equation is confusing
          – Dominic Michaelis
          Apr 7 '13 at 19:19








        • 1




          If $lambda^2$ is positive and real, then $lambda$ is real. What is confusing? And ok, we can assume $lambda$ is not zero! Zero is real obviously.
          – Lepidopterist
          Apr 7 '13 at 19:23






        • 1




          You don't need to bother about $lambda =0$. All you need is $|v|>0$, which is given as you take a (nonzero) eigenvector. So you do find $lambda^2geq 0$. Which is equivalent to $lambda $ being real.
          – Julien
          Apr 7 '13 at 19:44








        • 2




          I decided to edit your answer directly to avoid long chat discussions. I hope you don't mind. Just roll back to your version if you disagree and I will leave it alone.
          – Julien
          Apr 7 '13 at 19:51


















        • A quotient of non-negative real numbers? But the argument is very neat.
          – Chris Godsil
          Apr 7 '13 at 19:08










        • only because of $lambda^2$ is real $lambda$ is not real in general. and still you need non negative, because $Av=0$ will surely not be positive. and your equation is confusing
          – Dominic Michaelis
          Apr 7 '13 at 19:19








        • 1




          If $lambda^2$ is positive and real, then $lambda$ is real. What is confusing? And ok, we can assume $lambda$ is not zero! Zero is real obviously.
          – Lepidopterist
          Apr 7 '13 at 19:23






        • 1




          You don't need to bother about $lambda =0$. All you need is $|v|>0$, which is given as you take a (nonzero) eigenvector. So you do find $lambda^2geq 0$. Which is equivalent to $lambda $ being real.
          – Julien
          Apr 7 '13 at 19:44








        • 2




          I decided to edit your answer directly to avoid long chat discussions. I hope you don't mind. Just roll back to your version if you disagree and I will leave it alone.
          – Julien
          Apr 7 '13 at 19:51
















        A quotient of non-negative real numbers? But the argument is very neat.
        – Chris Godsil
        Apr 7 '13 at 19:08




        A quotient of non-negative real numbers? But the argument is very neat.
        – Chris Godsil
        Apr 7 '13 at 19:08












        only because of $lambda^2$ is real $lambda$ is not real in general. and still you need non negative, because $Av=0$ will surely not be positive. and your equation is confusing
        – Dominic Michaelis
        Apr 7 '13 at 19:19






        only because of $lambda^2$ is real $lambda$ is not real in general. and still you need non negative, because $Av=0$ will surely not be positive. and your equation is confusing
        – Dominic Michaelis
        Apr 7 '13 at 19:19






        1




        1




        If $lambda^2$ is positive and real, then $lambda$ is real. What is confusing? And ok, we can assume $lambda$ is not zero! Zero is real obviously.
        – Lepidopterist
        Apr 7 '13 at 19:23




        If $lambda^2$ is positive and real, then $lambda$ is real. What is confusing? And ok, we can assume $lambda$ is not zero! Zero is real obviously.
        – Lepidopterist
        Apr 7 '13 at 19:23




        1




        1




        You don't need to bother about $lambda =0$. All you need is $|v|>0$, which is given as you take a (nonzero) eigenvector. So you do find $lambda^2geq 0$. Which is equivalent to $lambda $ being real.
        – Julien
        Apr 7 '13 at 19:44






        You don't need to bother about $lambda =0$. All you need is $|v|>0$, which is given as you take a (nonzero) eigenvector. So you do find $lambda^2geq 0$. Which is equivalent to $lambda $ being real.
        – Julien
        Apr 7 '13 at 19:44






        2




        2




        I decided to edit your answer directly to avoid long chat discussions. I hope you don't mind. Just roll back to your version if you disagree and I will leave it alone.
        – Julien
        Apr 7 '13 at 19:51




        I decided to edit your answer directly to avoid long chat discussions. I hope you don't mind. Just roll back to your version if you disagree and I will leave it alone.
        – Julien
        Apr 7 '13 at 19:51










        up vote
        4
        down vote













        Let $Ax=lambda x$ with $xne 0$, with $lambdainmathbb{R}$, then
        begin{align}
        lambda bar x^T x &= bar x^T(lambda x)\
        &=bar x^T A x \
        &=(A^T bar{x})^T x \
        &=(A bar x)^T x \
        &=(bar A bar x)^T x \
        &=(barlambdabar x)^T x\
        &=bar lambda bar x^T x.\
        end{align}

        Because $xne 0$, then $bar{x}^T xne 0$ and $lambda=bar lambda$.






        share|cite|improve this answer



























          up vote
          4
          down vote













          Let $Ax=lambda x$ with $xne 0$, with $lambdainmathbb{R}$, then
          begin{align}
          lambda bar x^T x &= bar x^T(lambda x)\
          &=bar x^T A x \
          &=(A^T bar{x})^T x \
          &=(A bar x)^T x \
          &=(bar A bar x)^T x \
          &=(barlambdabar x)^T x\
          &=bar lambda bar x^T x.\
          end{align}

          Because $xne 0$, then $bar{x}^T xne 0$ and $lambda=bar lambda$.






          share|cite|improve this answer

























            up vote
            4
            down vote










            up vote
            4
            down vote









            Let $Ax=lambda x$ with $xne 0$, with $lambdainmathbb{R}$, then
            begin{align}
            lambda bar x^T x &= bar x^T(lambda x)\
            &=bar x^T A x \
            &=(A^T bar{x})^T x \
            &=(A bar x)^T x \
            &=(bar A bar x)^T x \
            &=(barlambdabar x)^T x\
            &=bar lambda bar x^T x.\
            end{align}

            Because $xne 0$, then $bar{x}^T xne 0$ and $lambda=bar lambda$.






            share|cite|improve this answer














            Let $Ax=lambda x$ with $xne 0$, with $lambdainmathbb{R}$, then
            begin{align}
            lambda bar x^T x &= bar x^T(lambda x)\
            &=bar x^T A x \
            &=(A^T bar{x})^T x \
            &=(A bar x)^T x \
            &=(bar A bar x)^T x \
            &=(barlambdabar x)^T x\
            &=bar lambda bar x^T x.\
            end{align}

            Because $xne 0$, then $bar{x}^T xne 0$ and $lambda=bar lambda$.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Oct 24 at 13:14









            amWhy

            191k27223437




            191k27223437










            answered Oct 10 '16 at 7:27









            naturer

            491




            491






















                up vote
                3
                down vote













                Hint:
                Prove that $$x^ast A x=langle x , A xrangle = langle Ax, xrangle = x^ast A^ast x $$
                Where $A^ast=overline{A}^T$






                share|cite|improve this answer

















                • 1




                  As $A^*=A$, you even get $x^*A^*x=x^*Ax$ directly without any intermediate step. ANd that's all you need for nonzero eigenvalues to be real. I have just seen you hint, by the way, +1.
                  – Julien
                  Apr 7 '13 at 19:56










                • It's homework so I thought i only give a hint. yeah the equation is pretty obvious but it's worth mentioning in homework i guess
                  – Dominic Michaelis
                  Apr 7 '13 at 19:59






                • 1




                  I'm afraid you misunderstood my comment. It is great that you only gave a hint. I was just saying that the first two equalities are not necessary. But sure, it does not hurt either to include them.
                  – Julien
                  Apr 7 '13 at 20:01

















                up vote
                3
                down vote













                Hint:
                Prove that $$x^ast A x=langle x , A xrangle = langle Ax, xrangle = x^ast A^ast x $$
                Where $A^ast=overline{A}^T$






                share|cite|improve this answer

















                • 1




                  As $A^*=A$, you even get $x^*A^*x=x^*Ax$ directly without any intermediate step. ANd that's all you need for nonzero eigenvalues to be real. I have just seen you hint, by the way, +1.
                  – Julien
                  Apr 7 '13 at 19:56










                • It's homework so I thought i only give a hint. yeah the equation is pretty obvious but it's worth mentioning in homework i guess
                  – Dominic Michaelis
                  Apr 7 '13 at 19:59






                • 1




                  I'm afraid you misunderstood my comment. It is great that you only gave a hint. I was just saying that the first two equalities are not necessary. But sure, it does not hurt either to include them.
                  – Julien
                  Apr 7 '13 at 20:01















                up vote
                3
                down vote










                up vote
                3
                down vote









                Hint:
                Prove that $$x^ast A x=langle x , A xrangle = langle Ax, xrangle = x^ast A^ast x $$
                Where $A^ast=overline{A}^T$






                share|cite|improve this answer












                Hint:
                Prove that $$x^ast A x=langle x , A xrangle = langle Ax, xrangle = x^ast A^ast x $$
                Where $A^ast=overline{A}^T$







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Apr 7 '13 at 19:06









                Dominic Michaelis

                17.6k43570




                17.6k43570








                • 1




                  As $A^*=A$, you even get $x^*A^*x=x^*Ax$ directly without any intermediate step. ANd that's all you need for nonzero eigenvalues to be real. I have just seen you hint, by the way, +1.
                  – Julien
                  Apr 7 '13 at 19:56










                • It's homework so I thought i only give a hint. yeah the equation is pretty obvious but it's worth mentioning in homework i guess
                  – Dominic Michaelis
                  Apr 7 '13 at 19:59






                • 1




                  I'm afraid you misunderstood my comment. It is great that you only gave a hint. I was just saying that the first two equalities are not necessary. But sure, it does not hurt either to include them.
                  – Julien
                  Apr 7 '13 at 20:01
















                • 1




                  As $A^*=A$, you even get $x^*A^*x=x^*Ax$ directly without any intermediate step. ANd that's all you need for nonzero eigenvalues to be real. I have just seen you hint, by the way, +1.
                  – Julien
                  Apr 7 '13 at 19:56










                • It's homework so I thought i only give a hint. yeah the equation is pretty obvious but it's worth mentioning in homework i guess
                  – Dominic Michaelis
                  Apr 7 '13 at 19:59






                • 1




                  I'm afraid you misunderstood my comment. It is great that you only gave a hint. I was just saying that the first two equalities are not necessary. But sure, it does not hurt either to include them.
                  – Julien
                  Apr 7 '13 at 20:01










                1




                1




                As $A^*=A$, you even get $x^*A^*x=x^*Ax$ directly without any intermediate step. ANd that's all you need for nonzero eigenvalues to be real. I have just seen you hint, by the way, +1.
                – Julien
                Apr 7 '13 at 19:56




                As $A^*=A$, you even get $x^*A^*x=x^*Ax$ directly without any intermediate step. ANd that's all you need for nonzero eigenvalues to be real. I have just seen you hint, by the way, +1.
                – Julien
                Apr 7 '13 at 19:56












                It's homework so I thought i only give a hint. yeah the equation is pretty obvious but it's worth mentioning in homework i guess
                – Dominic Michaelis
                Apr 7 '13 at 19:59




                It's homework so I thought i only give a hint. yeah the equation is pretty obvious but it's worth mentioning in homework i guess
                – Dominic Michaelis
                Apr 7 '13 at 19:59




                1




                1




                I'm afraid you misunderstood my comment. It is great that you only gave a hint. I was just saying that the first two equalities are not necessary. But sure, it does not hurt either to include them.
                – Julien
                Apr 7 '13 at 20:01






                I'm afraid you misunderstood my comment. It is great that you only gave a hint. I was just saying that the first two equalities are not necessary. But sure, it does not hurt either to include them.
                – Julien
                Apr 7 '13 at 20:01












                up vote
                1
                down vote













                If $lambda$ is any eigenvalue of a Hermitian (in particular real symmetric) matrix $A$, then for some non-zero vector $x$,
                $$Ax = lambda x implies x^*Ax = lambda x^*x implies lambda = dfrac{x^*Ax}{x^*x}.$$



                Now $$lambda^* = dfrac{x^* A^* x}{x^*x} = dfrac{x^*Ax}{x^*x} = lambda.$$
                Therefore, $lambda$ is real.



                Note: $(AB)^* = B^*A^*$.






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote













                  If $lambda$ is any eigenvalue of a Hermitian (in particular real symmetric) matrix $A$, then for some non-zero vector $x$,
                  $$Ax = lambda x implies x^*Ax = lambda x^*x implies lambda = dfrac{x^*Ax}{x^*x}.$$



                  Now $$lambda^* = dfrac{x^* A^* x}{x^*x} = dfrac{x^*Ax}{x^*x} = lambda.$$
                  Therefore, $lambda$ is real.



                  Note: $(AB)^* = B^*A^*$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer























                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote










                    up vote
                    1
                    down vote









                    If $lambda$ is any eigenvalue of a Hermitian (in particular real symmetric) matrix $A$, then for some non-zero vector $x$,
                    $$Ax = lambda x implies x^*Ax = lambda x^*x implies lambda = dfrac{x^*Ax}{x^*x}.$$



                    Now $$lambda^* = dfrac{x^* A^* x}{x^*x} = dfrac{x^*Ax}{x^*x} = lambda.$$
                    Therefore, $lambda$ is real.



                    Note: $(AB)^* = B^*A^*$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    If $lambda$ is any eigenvalue of a Hermitian (in particular real symmetric) matrix $A$, then for some non-zero vector $x$,
                    $$Ax = lambda x implies x^*Ax = lambda x^*x implies lambda = dfrac{x^*Ax}{x^*x}.$$



                    Now $$lambda^* = dfrac{x^* A^* x}{x^*x} = dfrac{x^*Ax}{x^*x} = lambda.$$
                    Therefore, $lambda$ is real.



                    Note: $(AB)^* = B^*A^*$.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered 2 days ago









                    M. Vinay

                    6,75822035




                    6,75822035






















                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        Hint: for every $ntimes n$ matrix $M$
                        $$
                        langle Mv , wrangle
                        ~=~
                        langle v , M^H wrangle
                        $$
                        where $M^H$ is the conjugate transpose of $M$ and $langle,cdot,,,cdot,rangle$ is the complex inner product (i.e. $langle v,wrangle=v^Hw$).




                        1. Think about how the eigenvalues of $M^H$ and those of $M$ are related

                        2. Let $v$ be a $lambda$-eigenvector of $M$ and try what happens choosing $v=w$ in the above equation

                        3. Now, if $A$ is real valued and symmetric then $A^H=A$; try again the second point with $M=A$...






                        share|cite|improve this answer

























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote













                          Hint: for every $ntimes n$ matrix $M$
                          $$
                          langle Mv , wrangle
                          ~=~
                          langle v , M^H wrangle
                          $$
                          where $M^H$ is the conjugate transpose of $M$ and $langle,cdot,,,cdot,rangle$ is the complex inner product (i.e. $langle v,wrangle=v^Hw$).




                          1. Think about how the eigenvalues of $M^H$ and those of $M$ are related

                          2. Let $v$ be a $lambda$-eigenvector of $M$ and try what happens choosing $v=w$ in the above equation

                          3. Now, if $A$ is real valued and symmetric then $A^H=A$; try again the second point with $M=A$...






                          share|cite|improve this answer























                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            0
                            down vote









                            Hint: for every $ntimes n$ matrix $M$
                            $$
                            langle Mv , wrangle
                            ~=~
                            langle v , M^H wrangle
                            $$
                            where $M^H$ is the conjugate transpose of $M$ and $langle,cdot,,,cdot,rangle$ is the complex inner product (i.e. $langle v,wrangle=v^Hw$).




                            1. Think about how the eigenvalues of $M^H$ and those of $M$ are related

                            2. Let $v$ be a $lambda$-eigenvector of $M$ and try what happens choosing $v=w$ in the above equation

                            3. Now, if $A$ is real valued and symmetric then $A^H=A$; try again the second point with $M=A$...






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            Hint: for every $ntimes n$ matrix $M$
                            $$
                            langle Mv , wrangle
                            ~=~
                            langle v , M^H wrangle
                            $$
                            where $M^H$ is the conjugate transpose of $M$ and $langle,cdot,,,cdot,rangle$ is the complex inner product (i.e. $langle v,wrangle=v^Hw$).




                            1. Think about how the eigenvalues of $M^H$ and those of $M$ are related

                            2. Let $v$ be a $lambda$-eigenvector of $M$ and try what happens choosing $v=w$ in the above equation

                            3. Now, if $A$ is real valued and symmetric then $A^H=A$; try again the second point with $M=A$...







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Apr 7 '13 at 19:13









                            AndreasT

                            3,2811224




                            3,2811224






























                                 

                                draft saved


                                draft discarded



















































                                 


                                draft saved


                                draft discarded














                                StackExchange.ready(
                                function () {
                                StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f354115%2fprove-that-the-eigenvalues-of-a-real-symmetric-matrix-are-real%23new-answer', 'question_page');
                                }
                                );

                                Post as a guest















                                Required, but never shown





















































                                Required, but never shown














                                Required, but never shown












                                Required, but never shown







                                Required, but never shown

































                                Required, but never shown














                                Required, but never shown












                                Required, but never shown







                                Required, but never shown







                                Popular posts from this blog

                                To store a contact into the json file from server.js file using a class in NodeJS

                                Marschland

                                Wiesbaden