Prove that $Rsubseteq Xtimes X$ is an equivalence relation and construct its equivalence class












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Prove that relation $Rsubseteq Xtimes X$, where $X= mathbb{R}timesmathbb{R}$, is an equivalence relation and construct its equivalence class. $R$ is defined as:
$$langle x_1, y_1rangle R langle x_2, y_2rangle Longleftrightarrow x_1^2+y_1^2 = x_2^2+y_2^2$$



The way I did prove that it is an equivalence relation was based on equality relationship between two or more quantities. To make it easier to read, we can also substitute $a = x_1^2+y_1^2$, $b = x_2^2+y_2^2$, $c = x_3^2+y_3^2$, at least I think we can.



The first property is reflexivity:
$langle x_1, y_1rangle R langle x_1, y_1rangle Longleftrightarrow x_1^2+y_1^2 = x_1^2+y_1^2$, which is always true, as $a=a$.



Then we check for symmetry:
$langle x_1, y_1rangle R langle x_2, y_2rangle Longrightarrow langle x_2, y_2rangle R langle x_1, y_1rangle$, so if $x_1^2+y_1^2 = x_2^2+y_2^2$, then $x_2^2+y_2^2 = x_1^2+y_1^2$. Using the substitution we can say that $(a=b) Rightarrow (b=a)$, which is also true.



The last one is transitivity:
$langle x_1, y_1rangle R langle x_2, y_2rangle wedge langle x_2, y_2rangle R langle x_3, y_3rangle Longrightarrow langle x_1, y_1rangle R langle x_3, y_3rangle$, which means $x_1^2+y_1^2 = x_2^2+y_2^2 wedge x_2^2+y_2^2 = x_3^2+y_3^2 Longrightarrow x_1^2+y_1^2 = x_3^2+y_3^2$, using substitutions it is $(a=b wedge b=c) Longrightarrow (a=c)$.



Up to this moment I think that my line of thinking is quite correct, but I am not sure whether that proof is good enough and it is what I would like to know.



When it comes to equivalence class of $R$, I would say that the relation tells us about points on the common circle, but I have to write it up with the definition, which is:




Equivalence class of element $ain A$ in regard to equivalence
relation $Rsubseteq Atimes A$ is a set $[a]_R = {bin A: |: a R b}$.




Sadly I can not get it completely, but I thought about
$$[langle a,b rangle]_R = {langle a, brangle in mathbb{R} times mathbb{R}:|: a^2+b^2=x^2+y^2}$$
I would like you to tell me whether my proof (also usage of substitutions) and construction of equivalence class is right, also how could I get grasp of it, as lectures I attend are not good enough.










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  • $begingroup$
    You first part(the relation part) looks good, the second part it should be $[langle a,b rangle]_R = {langle x, yrangle in mathbb{R} times mathbb{R}:|: a^2+b^2=x^2+y^2}$: this is the set of all elements of $Atimes A$ that are in relation with $langle a,brangle$(here $A$ is indeed $Bbb Rtimes Bbb R$)
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Dec 16 '18 at 21:14


















1












$begingroup$


Prove that relation $Rsubseteq Xtimes X$, where $X= mathbb{R}timesmathbb{R}$, is an equivalence relation and construct its equivalence class. $R$ is defined as:
$$langle x_1, y_1rangle R langle x_2, y_2rangle Longleftrightarrow x_1^2+y_1^2 = x_2^2+y_2^2$$



The way I did prove that it is an equivalence relation was based on equality relationship between two or more quantities. To make it easier to read, we can also substitute $a = x_1^2+y_1^2$, $b = x_2^2+y_2^2$, $c = x_3^2+y_3^2$, at least I think we can.



The first property is reflexivity:
$langle x_1, y_1rangle R langle x_1, y_1rangle Longleftrightarrow x_1^2+y_1^2 = x_1^2+y_1^2$, which is always true, as $a=a$.



Then we check for symmetry:
$langle x_1, y_1rangle R langle x_2, y_2rangle Longrightarrow langle x_2, y_2rangle R langle x_1, y_1rangle$, so if $x_1^2+y_1^2 = x_2^2+y_2^2$, then $x_2^2+y_2^2 = x_1^2+y_1^2$. Using the substitution we can say that $(a=b) Rightarrow (b=a)$, which is also true.



The last one is transitivity:
$langle x_1, y_1rangle R langle x_2, y_2rangle wedge langle x_2, y_2rangle R langle x_3, y_3rangle Longrightarrow langle x_1, y_1rangle R langle x_3, y_3rangle$, which means $x_1^2+y_1^2 = x_2^2+y_2^2 wedge x_2^2+y_2^2 = x_3^2+y_3^2 Longrightarrow x_1^2+y_1^2 = x_3^2+y_3^2$, using substitutions it is $(a=b wedge b=c) Longrightarrow (a=c)$.



Up to this moment I think that my line of thinking is quite correct, but I am not sure whether that proof is good enough and it is what I would like to know.



When it comes to equivalence class of $R$, I would say that the relation tells us about points on the common circle, but I have to write it up with the definition, which is:




Equivalence class of element $ain A$ in regard to equivalence
relation $Rsubseteq Atimes A$ is a set $[a]_R = {bin A: |: a R b}$.




Sadly I can not get it completely, but I thought about
$$[langle a,b rangle]_R = {langle a, brangle in mathbb{R} times mathbb{R}:|: a^2+b^2=x^2+y^2}$$
I would like you to tell me whether my proof (also usage of substitutions) and construction of equivalence class is right, also how could I get grasp of it, as lectures I attend are not good enough.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You first part(the relation part) looks good, the second part it should be $[langle a,b rangle]_R = {langle x, yrangle in mathbb{R} times mathbb{R}:|: a^2+b^2=x^2+y^2}$: this is the set of all elements of $Atimes A$ that are in relation with $langle a,brangle$(here $A$ is indeed $Bbb Rtimes Bbb R$)
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Dec 16 '18 at 21:14
















1












1








1





$begingroup$


Prove that relation $Rsubseteq Xtimes X$, where $X= mathbb{R}timesmathbb{R}$, is an equivalence relation and construct its equivalence class. $R$ is defined as:
$$langle x_1, y_1rangle R langle x_2, y_2rangle Longleftrightarrow x_1^2+y_1^2 = x_2^2+y_2^2$$



The way I did prove that it is an equivalence relation was based on equality relationship between two or more quantities. To make it easier to read, we can also substitute $a = x_1^2+y_1^2$, $b = x_2^2+y_2^2$, $c = x_3^2+y_3^2$, at least I think we can.



The first property is reflexivity:
$langle x_1, y_1rangle R langle x_1, y_1rangle Longleftrightarrow x_1^2+y_1^2 = x_1^2+y_1^2$, which is always true, as $a=a$.



Then we check for symmetry:
$langle x_1, y_1rangle R langle x_2, y_2rangle Longrightarrow langle x_2, y_2rangle R langle x_1, y_1rangle$, so if $x_1^2+y_1^2 = x_2^2+y_2^2$, then $x_2^2+y_2^2 = x_1^2+y_1^2$. Using the substitution we can say that $(a=b) Rightarrow (b=a)$, which is also true.



The last one is transitivity:
$langle x_1, y_1rangle R langle x_2, y_2rangle wedge langle x_2, y_2rangle R langle x_3, y_3rangle Longrightarrow langle x_1, y_1rangle R langle x_3, y_3rangle$, which means $x_1^2+y_1^2 = x_2^2+y_2^2 wedge x_2^2+y_2^2 = x_3^2+y_3^2 Longrightarrow x_1^2+y_1^2 = x_3^2+y_3^2$, using substitutions it is $(a=b wedge b=c) Longrightarrow (a=c)$.



Up to this moment I think that my line of thinking is quite correct, but I am not sure whether that proof is good enough and it is what I would like to know.



When it comes to equivalence class of $R$, I would say that the relation tells us about points on the common circle, but I have to write it up with the definition, which is:




Equivalence class of element $ain A$ in regard to equivalence
relation $Rsubseteq Atimes A$ is a set $[a]_R = {bin A: |: a R b}$.




Sadly I can not get it completely, but I thought about
$$[langle a,b rangle]_R = {langle a, brangle in mathbb{R} times mathbb{R}:|: a^2+b^2=x^2+y^2}$$
I would like you to tell me whether my proof (also usage of substitutions) and construction of equivalence class is right, also how could I get grasp of it, as lectures I attend are not good enough.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Prove that relation $Rsubseteq Xtimes X$, where $X= mathbb{R}timesmathbb{R}$, is an equivalence relation and construct its equivalence class. $R$ is defined as:
$$langle x_1, y_1rangle R langle x_2, y_2rangle Longleftrightarrow x_1^2+y_1^2 = x_2^2+y_2^2$$



The way I did prove that it is an equivalence relation was based on equality relationship between two or more quantities. To make it easier to read, we can also substitute $a = x_1^2+y_1^2$, $b = x_2^2+y_2^2$, $c = x_3^2+y_3^2$, at least I think we can.



The first property is reflexivity:
$langle x_1, y_1rangle R langle x_1, y_1rangle Longleftrightarrow x_1^2+y_1^2 = x_1^2+y_1^2$, which is always true, as $a=a$.



Then we check for symmetry:
$langle x_1, y_1rangle R langle x_2, y_2rangle Longrightarrow langle x_2, y_2rangle R langle x_1, y_1rangle$, so if $x_1^2+y_1^2 = x_2^2+y_2^2$, then $x_2^2+y_2^2 = x_1^2+y_1^2$. Using the substitution we can say that $(a=b) Rightarrow (b=a)$, which is also true.



The last one is transitivity:
$langle x_1, y_1rangle R langle x_2, y_2rangle wedge langle x_2, y_2rangle R langle x_3, y_3rangle Longrightarrow langle x_1, y_1rangle R langle x_3, y_3rangle$, which means $x_1^2+y_1^2 = x_2^2+y_2^2 wedge x_2^2+y_2^2 = x_3^2+y_3^2 Longrightarrow x_1^2+y_1^2 = x_3^2+y_3^2$, using substitutions it is $(a=b wedge b=c) Longrightarrow (a=c)$.



Up to this moment I think that my line of thinking is quite correct, but I am not sure whether that proof is good enough and it is what I would like to know.



When it comes to equivalence class of $R$, I would say that the relation tells us about points on the common circle, but I have to write it up with the definition, which is:




Equivalence class of element $ain A$ in regard to equivalence
relation $Rsubseteq Atimes A$ is a set $[a]_R = {bin A: |: a R b}$.




Sadly I can not get it completely, but I thought about
$$[langle a,b rangle]_R = {langle a, brangle in mathbb{R} times mathbb{R}:|: a^2+b^2=x^2+y^2}$$
I would like you to tell me whether my proof (also usage of substitutions) and construction of equivalence class is right, also how could I get grasp of it, as lectures I attend are not good enough.







relations equivalence-relations






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asked Dec 16 '18 at 21:08









whiskeyowhiskeyo

1388




1388












  • $begingroup$
    You first part(the relation part) looks good, the second part it should be $[langle a,b rangle]_R = {langle x, yrangle in mathbb{R} times mathbb{R}:|: a^2+b^2=x^2+y^2}$: this is the set of all elements of $Atimes A$ that are in relation with $langle a,brangle$(here $A$ is indeed $Bbb Rtimes Bbb R$)
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Dec 16 '18 at 21:14




















  • $begingroup$
    You first part(the relation part) looks good, the second part it should be $[langle a,b rangle]_R = {langle x, yrangle in mathbb{R} times mathbb{R}:|: a^2+b^2=x^2+y^2}$: this is the set of all elements of $Atimes A$ that are in relation with $langle a,brangle$(here $A$ is indeed $Bbb Rtimes Bbb R$)
    $endgroup$
    – Holo
    Dec 16 '18 at 21:14


















$begingroup$
You first part(the relation part) looks good, the second part it should be $[langle a,b rangle]_R = {langle x, yrangle in mathbb{R} times mathbb{R}:|: a^2+b^2=x^2+y^2}$: this is the set of all elements of $Atimes A$ that are in relation with $langle a,brangle$(here $A$ is indeed $Bbb Rtimes Bbb R$)
$endgroup$
– Holo
Dec 16 '18 at 21:14






$begingroup$
You first part(the relation part) looks good, the second part it should be $[langle a,b rangle]_R = {langle x, yrangle in mathbb{R} times mathbb{R}:|: a^2+b^2=x^2+y^2}$: this is the set of all elements of $Atimes A$ that are in relation with $langle a,brangle$(here $A$ is indeed $Bbb Rtimes Bbb R$)
$endgroup$
– Holo
Dec 16 '18 at 21:14












2 Answers
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$begingroup$

I like your proof, but I'd write the equivalence classes as follows:



$$
[(a,b)]_R={(x,y)in mathbb{R}^2|a^2+b^2=x^2+y^2}
$$



which translates to: "The equivalence class of $(a,b)$ is the set of all points $(x,y)$ having the same distance from 0 as $(a,b)$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    Your idea is quite good and can be better formalized.



    Consider a set $X$ and a map $fcolon Xto Z$, $Z$ any set. Then you can define a relation $sim_f$ on $X$ by decreeing that
    $$
    xsim_f yquadtext{if and only if}quad f(x)=f(y)
    $$

    Then $sim_f$ is clearly an equivalence relation: the proof is easily based on the properties of equality, which is essentially what you did just with more complicated symbols.



    For $ain X$, its equivalence class is $[a]_{sim_f}={xin X:f(x)=f(a)}$.



    In your case, $X=mathbb{R}timesmathbb{R}$, $Z=mathbb{R}$ and $f(x,y)=x^2+y^2$ (square of the distance of $(x,y)$ from the origin).



    Thus the equivalence class of $(a,b)in X$ is the set of all points in $X=mathbb{R}timesmathbb{R}$ that share the same distance from the origin as $(a,b)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      2 Answers
      2






      active

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      2 Answers
      2






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      $begingroup$

      I like your proof, but I'd write the equivalence classes as follows:



      $$
      [(a,b)]_R={(x,y)in mathbb{R}^2|a^2+b^2=x^2+y^2}
      $$



      which translates to: "The equivalence class of $(a,b)$ is the set of all points $(x,y)$ having the same distance from 0 as $(a,b)$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        1












        $begingroup$

        I like your proof, but I'd write the equivalence classes as follows:



        $$
        [(a,b)]_R={(x,y)in mathbb{R}^2|a^2+b^2=x^2+y^2}
        $$



        which translates to: "The equivalence class of $(a,b)$ is the set of all points $(x,y)$ having the same distance from 0 as $(a,b)$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          I like your proof, but I'd write the equivalence classes as follows:



          $$
          [(a,b)]_R={(x,y)in mathbb{R}^2|a^2+b^2=x^2+y^2}
          $$



          which translates to: "The equivalence class of $(a,b)$ is the set of all points $(x,y)$ having the same distance from 0 as $(a,b)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          I like your proof, but I'd write the equivalence classes as follows:



          $$
          [(a,b)]_R={(x,y)in mathbb{R}^2|a^2+b^2=x^2+y^2}
          $$



          which translates to: "The equivalence class of $(a,b)$ is the set of all points $(x,y)$ having the same distance from 0 as $(a,b)$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 16 '18 at 21:14









          MatthiasMatthias

          2287




          2287























              1












              $begingroup$

              Your idea is quite good and can be better formalized.



              Consider a set $X$ and a map $fcolon Xto Z$, $Z$ any set. Then you can define a relation $sim_f$ on $X$ by decreeing that
              $$
              xsim_f yquadtext{if and only if}quad f(x)=f(y)
              $$

              Then $sim_f$ is clearly an equivalence relation: the proof is easily based on the properties of equality, which is essentially what you did just with more complicated symbols.



              For $ain X$, its equivalence class is $[a]_{sim_f}={xin X:f(x)=f(a)}$.



              In your case, $X=mathbb{R}timesmathbb{R}$, $Z=mathbb{R}$ and $f(x,y)=x^2+y^2$ (square of the distance of $(x,y)$ from the origin).



              Thus the equivalence class of $(a,b)in X$ is the set of all points in $X=mathbb{R}timesmathbb{R}$ that share the same distance from the origin as $(a,b)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                1












                $begingroup$

                Your idea is quite good and can be better formalized.



                Consider a set $X$ and a map $fcolon Xto Z$, $Z$ any set. Then you can define a relation $sim_f$ on $X$ by decreeing that
                $$
                xsim_f yquadtext{if and only if}quad f(x)=f(y)
                $$

                Then $sim_f$ is clearly an equivalence relation: the proof is easily based on the properties of equality, which is essentially what you did just with more complicated symbols.



                For $ain X$, its equivalence class is $[a]_{sim_f}={xin X:f(x)=f(a)}$.



                In your case, $X=mathbb{R}timesmathbb{R}$, $Z=mathbb{R}$ and $f(x,y)=x^2+y^2$ (square of the distance of $(x,y)$ from the origin).



                Thus the equivalence class of $(a,b)in X$ is the set of all points in $X=mathbb{R}timesmathbb{R}$ that share the same distance from the origin as $(a,b)$.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  Your idea is quite good and can be better formalized.



                  Consider a set $X$ and a map $fcolon Xto Z$, $Z$ any set. Then you can define a relation $sim_f$ on $X$ by decreeing that
                  $$
                  xsim_f yquadtext{if and only if}quad f(x)=f(y)
                  $$

                  Then $sim_f$ is clearly an equivalence relation: the proof is easily based on the properties of equality, which is essentially what you did just with more complicated symbols.



                  For $ain X$, its equivalence class is $[a]_{sim_f}={xin X:f(x)=f(a)}$.



                  In your case, $X=mathbb{R}timesmathbb{R}$, $Z=mathbb{R}$ and $f(x,y)=x^2+y^2$ (square of the distance of $(x,y)$ from the origin).



                  Thus the equivalence class of $(a,b)in X$ is the set of all points in $X=mathbb{R}timesmathbb{R}$ that share the same distance from the origin as $(a,b)$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Your idea is quite good and can be better formalized.



                  Consider a set $X$ and a map $fcolon Xto Z$, $Z$ any set. Then you can define a relation $sim_f$ on $X$ by decreeing that
                  $$
                  xsim_f yquadtext{if and only if}quad f(x)=f(y)
                  $$

                  Then $sim_f$ is clearly an equivalence relation: the proof is easily based on the properties of equality, which is essentially what you did just with more complicated symbols.



                  For $ain X$, its equivalence class is $[a]_{sim_f}={xin X:f(x)=f(a)}$.



                  In your case, $X=mathbb{R}timesmathbb{R}$, $Z=mathbb{R}$ and $f(x,y)=x^2+y^2$ (square of the distance of $(x,y)$ from the origin).



                  Thus the equivalence class of $(a,b)in X$ is the set of all points in $X=mathbb{R}timesmathbb{R}$ that share the same distance from the origin as $(a,b)$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 16 '18 at 23:19









                  egregegreg

                  182k1485204




                  182k1485204






























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