A better proof for $det(P) = pm1$ if $P$ is an orthogonal matrix
$begingroup$
Looking for elementary proof for $rm~det(textbf{P})$ = $pm 1$ if $P$ is an orthogonal matrix. I prefer a proof without using determinant of transpose matrix.
My First Proof, with $det(textbf{P}^{t}) = det(textbf{P})$
If $P$ is orthogonal matrix, $textbf{P}^{t}=textbf{P}^{-1}$. So,
$$det(textbf{P}^{t}textbf{P})=det(textbf{I}) implies det(textbf{P}^{t}textbf{P}) = 1 implies det(textbf{P}^{t}) det(textbf{P}) = 1$$
because $ det(textbf{P}^{t}) = det(textbf{P})$.
Therefore, $det(textbf{P}^{t})=det(textbf{P}) = pm 1$.
My Second Proof, without $det(textbf{P}^{t}) = det(textbf{P})$
Let $lambda$ be an eigenvalue for orthogonal matrix $textbf{P}$.
$$textbf{P}vec{v}=lambdavec{v},quadvec{v} neq vec{0}$$
$$implies rVert textbf{P}vec{v}lVert = lVert lambdavec{v} lVert implies rVert textbf{P}vec{v} lVert = rvert lambda lvert lVert vec{v} rVert = 1$$
because $lVert vec{v} rVert = 1$
Therefore $lvert lambda rvert = 1$
because $textbf{P}$ is orthonormal matrix.
$$textbf{P} = textbf{P}^{t}$$
Therefore $textbf{P} = textbf{U}^{t}Lambdatextbf{U} $
$$det(textbf{U}^{t}Lambdatextbf{U}) = det(textbf{U}^{t})det(Lambda)det(textbf{U})$$
$$det(textbf{U}^{t}Lambdatextbf{U}) = det(textbf{U}^{t})det(textbf{U})det(Lambda)$$
$$det(textbf{U}^{t})det(textbf{U}) = 1 $$
(because $textbf{U}$ is orthogonal matrix})
$$det(textbf{P}) = det(textbf{U}^{t}Lambdatextbf{U}) = det(Lambda) = prod_{i=1}^{n}lambda_i = pm 1 $$
$$implies det(textbf{P}) = pm 1$$
linear-algebra matrices determinant
$endgroup$
|
show 8 more comments
$begingroup$
Looking for elementary proof for $rm~det(textbf{P})$ = $pm 1$ if $P$ is an orthogonal matrix. I prefer a proof without using determinant of transpose matrix.
My First Proof, with $det(textbf{P}^{t}) = det(textbf{P})$
If $P$ is orthogonal matrix, $textbf{P}^{t}=textbf{P}^{-1}$. So,
$$det(textbf{P}^{t}textbf{P})=det(textbf{I}) implies det(textbf{P}^{t}textbf{P}) = 1 implies det(textbf{P}^{t}) det(textbf{P}) = 1$$
because $ det(textbf{P}^{t}) = det(textbf{P})$.
Therefore, $det(textbf{P}^{t})=det(textbf{P}) = pm 1$.
My Second Proof, without $det(textbf{P}^{t}) = det(textbf{P})$
Let $lambda$ be an eigenvalue for orthogonal matrix $textbf{P}$.
$$textbf{P}vec{v}=lambdavec{v},quadvec{v} neq vec{0}$$
$$implies rVert textbf{P}vec{v}lVert = lVert lambdavec{v} lVert implies rVert textbf{P}vec{v} lVert = rvert lambda lvert lVert vec{v} rVert = 1$$
because $lVert vec{v} rVert = 1$
Therefore $lvert lambda rvert = 1$
because $textbf{P}$ is orthonormal matrix.
$$textbf{P} = textbf{P}^{t}$$
Therefore $textbf{P} = textbf{U}^{t}Lambdatextbf{U} $
$$det(textbf{U}^{t}Lambdatextbf{U}) = det(textbf{U}^{t})det(Lambda)det(textbf{U})$$
$$det(textbf{U}^{t}Lambdatextbf{U}) = det(textbf{U}^{t})det(textbf{U})det(Lambda)$$
$$det(textbf{U}^{t})det(textbf{U}) = 1 $$
(because $textbf{U}$ is orthogonal matrix})
$$det(textbf{P}) = det(textbf{U}^{t}Lambdatextbf{U}) = det(Lambda) = prod_{i=1}^{n}lambda_i = pm 1 $$
$$implies det(textbf{P}) = pm 1$$
linear-algebra matrices determinant
$endgroup$
3
$begingroup$
The claim isn't true; unitary matrices have $|det{P}| = 1$.
$endgroup$
– user61527
Oct 11 '13 at 3:18
2
$begingroup$
What you are getting is $(det P)^2=1$, but no more than that.
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– Pedro Tamaroff♦
Oct 11 '13 at 3:20
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thx to point it out
$endgroup$
– bsdshell
Oct 11 '13 at 3:21
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Shouldn't it be $P^t P = I$ instead of "$implies P^t = P$" at the top?
$endgroup$
– Pratyush Sarkar
Oct 11 '13 at 3:25
$begingroup$
And the proof is $det(P^tP) = det(I) implies det(P)^2 = 1$ which is what you already have. It is as elementary as it can get.
$endgroup$
– Pratyush Sarkar
Oct 11 '13 at 3:30
|
show 8 more comments
$begingroup$
Looking for elementary proof for $rm~det(textbf{P})$ = $pm 1$ if $P$ is an orthogonal matrix. I prefer a proof without using determinant of transpose matrix.
My First Proof, with $det(textbf{P}^{t}) = det(textbf{P})$
If $P$ is orthogonal matrix, $textbf{P}^{t}=textbf{P}^{-1}$. So,
$$det(textbf{P}^{t}textbf{P})=det(textbf{I}) implies det(textbf{P}^{t}textbf{P}) = 1 implies det(textbf{P}^{t}) det(textbf{P}) = 1$$
because $ det(textbf{P}^{t}) = det(textbf{P})$.
Therefore, $det(textbf{P}^{t})=det(textbf{P}) = pm 1$.
My Second Proof, without $det(textbf{P}^{t}) = det(textbf{P})$
Let $lambda$ be an eigenvalue for orthogonal matrix $textbf{P}$.
$$textbf{P}vec{v}=lambdavec{v},quadvec{v} neq vec{0}$$
$$implies rVert textbf{P}vec{v}lVert = lVert lambdavec{v} lVert implies rVert textbf{P}vec{v} lVert = rvert lambda lvert lVert vec{v} rVert = 1$$
because $lVert vec{v} rVert = 1$
Therefore $lvert lambda rvert = 1$
because $textbf{P}$ is orthonormal matrix.
$$textbf{P} = textbf{P}^{t}$$
Therefore $textbf{P} = textbf{U}^{t}Lambdatextbf{U} $
$$det(textbf{U}^{t}Lambdatextbf{U}) = det(textbf{U}^{t})det(Lambda)det(textbf{U})$$
$$det(textbf{U}^{t}Lambdatextbf{U}) = det(textbf{U}^{t})det(textbf{U})det(Lambda)$$
$$det(textbf{U}^{t})det(textbf{U}) = 1 $$
(because $textbf{U}$ is orthogonal matrix})
$$det(textbf{P}) = det(textbf{U}^{t}Lambdatextbf{U}) = det(Lambda) = prod_{i=1}^{n}lambda_i = pm 1 $$
$$implies det(textbf{P}) = pm 1$$
linear-algebra matrices determinant
$endgroup$
Looking for elementary proof for $rm~det(textbf{P})$ = $pm 1$ if $P$ is an orthogonal matrix. I prefer a proof without using determinant of transpose matrix.
My First Proof, with $det(textbf{P}^{t}) = det(textbf{P})$
If $P$ is orthogonal matrix, $textbf{P}^{t}=textbf{P}^{-1}$. So,
$$det(textbf{P}^{t}textbf{P})=det(textbf{I}) implies det(textbf{P}^{t}textbf{P}) = 1 implies det(textbf{P}^{t}) det(textbf{P}) = 1$$
because $ det(textbf{P}^{t}) = det(textbf{P})$.
Therefore, $det(textbf{P}^{t})=det(textbf{P}) = pm 1$.
My Second Proof, without $det(textbf{P}^{t}) = det(textbf{P})$
Let $lambda$ be an eigenvalue for orthogonal matrix $textbf{P}$.
$$textbf{P}vec{v}=lambdavec{v},quadvec{v} neq vec{0}$$
$$implies rVert textbf{P}vec{v}lVert = lVert lambdavec{v} lVert implies rVert textbf{P}vec{v} lVert = rvert lambda lvert lVert vec{v} rVert = 1$$
because $lVert vec{v} rVert = 1$
Therefore $lvert lambda rvert = 1$
because $textbf{P}$ is orthonormal matrix.
$$textbf{P} = textbf{P}^{t}$$
Therefore $textbf{P} = textbf{U}^{t}Lambdatextbf{U} $
$$det(textbf{U}^{t}Lambdatextbf{U}) = det(textbf{U}^{t})det(Lambda)det(textbf{U})$$
$$det(textbf{U}^{t}Lambdatextbf{U}) = det(textbf{U}^{t})det(textbf{U})det(Lambda)$$
$$det(textbf{U}^{t})det(textbf{U}) = 1 $$
(because $textbf{U}$ is orthogonal matrix})
$$det(textbf{P}) = det(textbf{U}^{t}Lambdatextbf{U}) = det(Lambda) = prod_{i=1}^{n}lambda_i = pm 1 $$
$$implies det(textbf{P}) = pm 1$$
linear-algebra matrices determinant
linear-algebra matrices determinant
edited Mar 3 '15 at 2:16
user147263
asked Oct 11 '13 at 3:15
bsdshellbsdshell
6492719
6492719
3
$begingroup$
The claim isn't true; unitary matrices have $|det{P}| = 1$.
$endgroup$
– user61527
Oct 11 '13 at 3:18
2
$begingroup$
What you are getting is $(det P)^2=1$, but no more than that.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff♦
Oct 11 '13 at 3:20
$begingroup$
thx to point it out
$endgroup$
– bsdshell
Oct 11 '13 at 3:21
$begingroup$
Shouldn't it be $P^t P = I$ instead of "$implies P^t = P$" at the top?
$endgroup$
– Pratyush Sarkar
Oct 11 '13 at 3:25
$begingroup$
And the proof is $det(P^tP) = det(I) implies det(P)^2 = 1$ which is what you already have. It is as elementary as it can get.
$endgroup$
– Pratyush Sarkar
Oct 11 '13 at 3:30
|
show 8 more comments
3
$begingroup$
The claim isn't true; unitary matrices have $|det{P}| = 1$.
$endgroup$
– user61527
Oct 11 '13 at 3:18
2
$begingroup$
What you are getting is $(det P)^2=1$, but no more than that.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff♦
Oct 11 '13 at 3:20
$begingroup$
thx to point it out
$endgroup$
– bsdshell
Oct 11 '13 at 3:21
$begingroup$
Shouldn't it be $P^t P = I$ instead of "$implies P^t = P$" at the top?
$endgroup$
– Pratyush Sarkar
Oct 11 '13 at 3:25
$begingroup$
And the proof is $det(P^tP) = det(I) implies det(P)^2 = 1$ which is what you already have. It is as elementary as it can get.
$endgroup$
– Pratyush Sarkar
Oct 11 '13 at 3:30
3
3
$begingroup$
The claim isn't true; unitary matrices have $|det{P}| = 1$.
$endgroup$
– user61527
Oct 11 '13 at 3:18
$begingroup$
The claim isn't true; unitary matrices have $|det{P}| = 1$.
$endgroup$
– user61527
Oct 11 '13 at 3:18
2
2
$begingroup$
What you are getting is $(det P)^2=1$, but no more than that.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff♦
Oct 11 '13 at 3:20
$begingroup$
What you are getting is $(det P)^2=1$, but no more than that.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff♦
Oct 11 '13 at 3:20
$begingroup$
thx to point it out
$endgroup$
– bsdshell
Oct 11 '13 at 3:21
$begingroup$
thx to point it out
$endgroup$
– bsdshell
Oct 11 '13 at 3:21
$begingroup$
Shouldn't it be $P^t P = I$ instead of "$implies P^t = P$" at the top?
$endgroup$
– Pratyush Sarkar
Oct 11 '13 at 3:25
$begingroup$
Shouldn't it be $P^t P = I$ instead of "$implies P^t = P$" at the top?
$endgroup$
– Pratyush Sarkar
Oct 11 '13 at 3:25
$begingroup$
And the proof is $det(P^tP) = det(I) implies det(P)^2 = 1$ which is what you already have. It is as elementary as it can get.
$endgroup$
– Pratyush Sarkar
Oct 11 '13 at 3:30
$begingroup$
And the proof is $det(P^tP) = det(I) implies det(P)^2 = 1$ which is what you already have. It is as elementary as it can get.
$endgroup$
– Pratyush Sarkar
Oct 11 '13 at 3:30
|
show 8 more comments
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Here is a geometric argument that can be used for real orthogonal matrices: If $T: Vto V$ is an arbitrary linear transformation of a finite dimensional euclidean vector space $V$ then the volumes of arbitrary measurable sets $Asubset V$, in particular of balls or cubes, are multiplied by $bigl|det(T)bigr|$. That is to say, one has
$${rm vol}bigl(T(A)bigr)=bigl|det(T)bigr| {rm vol}(A) .$$
Now an orthogonal transformation $T$ transforms the unit ball $B:=bigl{xin{mathbb R}^nbigm| |x|leq1bigr}$ onto itself, and ${rm vol}(B)>0$. It follows that $|det(T)bigr|=1$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks for the insight from Christian Blatter, can you explain more about what is "reasonable set A"?
$endgroup$
– bsdshell
Oct 11 '13 at 22:07
$begingroup$
@bsdshell : By reasonable we imply those sets for which the notion of volume is defined, which means those functions for which the indicator function can be integrated (using the Lebesgue integral to be as general as possible).
$endgroup$
– Patrick Da Silva
Oct 13 '13 at 16:49
$begingroup$
Is this a generalization to the higher dimensions of the idea that orthogonal transformations only reflects or rotates in 2D euclidean space, and that is why the volume is invariant under the transformation?
$endgroup$
– Aditya
Jul 23 '18 at 11:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The absolute value of the determinant of a real, square matrix is the volume of the parallelepiped whose sides are the columns of the matrix. For an orthogonal matrix, the columns are pairwise orthogonal unit vectors, so this parallelepiped is a cube with side length 1. So the volume is 1, and therefore the determinant is $pm1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $|det(Q)|>1$, then for any positive integer $n$, $|det(Q^n)|=|det(Q)|^n$ will blow up. Since for any positive integer $n$, $Q^n$ is also an orthogonal matrix, whose determinant will not blow up due to the geometric meaning of determinant, we know that $|det(Q^n)|$ will not blow up and $|det(Q)|=1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Here is a geometric argument that can be used for real orthogonal matrices: If $T: Vto V$ is an arbitrary linear transformation of a finite dimensional euclidean vector space $V$ then the volumes of arbitrary measurable sets $Asubset V$, in particular of balls or cubes, are multiplied by $bigl|det(T)bigr|$. That is to say, one has
$${rm vol}bigl(T(A)bigr)=bigl|det(T)bigr| {rm vol}(A) .$$
Now an orthogonal transformation $T$ transforms the unit ball $B:=bigl{xin{mathbb R}^nbigm| |x|leq1bigr}$ onto itself, and ${rm vol}(B)>0$. It follows that $|det(T)bigr|=1$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks for the insight from Christian Blatter, can you explain more about what is "reasonable set A"?
$endgroup$
– bsdshell
Oct 11 '13 at 22:07
$begingroup$
@bsdshell : By reasonable we imply those sets for which the notion of volume is defined, which means those functions for which the indicator function can be integrated (using the Lebesgue integral to be as general as possible).
$endgroup$
– Patrick Da Silva
Oct 13 '13 at 16:49
$begingroup$
Is this a generalization to the higher dimensions of the idea that orthogonal transformations only reflects or rotates in 2D euclidean space, and that is why the volume is invariant under the transformation?
$endgroup$
– Aditya
Jul 23 '18 at 11:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here is a geometric argument that can be used for real orthogonal matrices: If $T: Vto V$ is an arbitrary linear transformation of a finite dimensional euclidean vector space $V$ then the volumes of arbitrary measurable sets $Asubset V$, in particular of balls or cubes, are multiplied by $bigl|det(T)bigr|$. That is to say, one has
$${rm vol}bigl(T(A)bigr)=bigl|det(T)bigr| {rm vol}(A) .$$
Now an orthogonal transformation $T$ transforms the unit ball $B:=bigl{xin{mathbb R}^nbigm| |x|leq1bigr}$ onto itself, and ${rm vol}(B)>0$. It follows that $|det(T)bigr|=1$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks for the insight from Christian Blatter, can you explain more about what is "reasonable set A"?
$endgroup$
– bsdshell
Oct 11 '13 at 22:07
$begingroup$
@bsdshell : By reasonable we imply those sets for which the notion of volume is defined, which means those functions for which the indicator function can be integrated (using the Lebesgue integral to be as general as possible).
$endgroup$
– Patrick Da Silva
Oct 13 '13 at 16:49
$begingroup$
Is this a generalization to the higher dimensions of the idea that orthogonal transformations only reflects or rotates in 2D euclidean space, and that is why the volume is invariant under the transformation?
$endgroup$
– Aditya
Jul 23 '18 at 11:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here is a geometric argument that can be used for real orthogonal matrices: If $T: Vto V$ is an arbitrary linear transformation of a finite dimensional euclidean vector space $V$ then the volumes of arbitrary measurable sets $Asubset V$, in particular of balls or cubes, are multiplied by $bigl|det(T)bigr|$. That is to say, one has
$${rm vol}bigl(T(A)bigr)=bigl|det(T)bigr| {rm vol}(A) .$$
Now an orthogonal transformation $T$ transforms the unit ball $B:=bigl{xin{mathbb R}^nbigm| |x|leq1bigr}$ onto itself, and ${rm vol}(B)>0$. It follows that $|det(T)bigr|=1$.
$endgroup$
Here is a geometric argument that can be used for real orthogonal matrices: If $T: Vto V$ is an arbitrary linear transformation of a finite dimensional euclidean vector space $V$ then the volumes of arbitrary measurable sets $Asubset V$, in particular of balls or cubes, are multiplied by $bigl|det(T)bigr|$. That is to say, one has
$${rm vol}bigl(T(A)bigr)=bigl|det(T)bigr| {rm vol}(A) .$$
Now an orthogonal transformation $T$ transforms the unit ball $B:=bigl{xin{mathbb R}^nbigm| |x|leq1bigr}$ onto itself, and ${rm vol}(B)>0$. It follows that $|det(T)bigr|=1$.
edited Oct 12 '13 at 8:07
answered Oct 11 '13 at 18:43
Christian BlatterChristian Blatter
175k8115327
175k8115327
$begingroup$
Thanks for the insight from Christian Blatter, can you explain more about what is "reasonable set A"?
$endgroup$
– bsdshell
Oct 11 '13 at 22:07
$begingroup$
@bsdshell : By reasonable we imply those sets for which the notion of volume is defined, which means those functions for which the indicator function can be integrated (using the Lebesgue integral to be as general as possible).
$endgroup$
– Patrick Da Silva
Oct 13 '13 at 16:49
$begingroup$
Is this a generalization to the higher dimensions of the idea that orthogonal transformations only reflects or rotates in 2D euclidean space, and that is why the volume is invariant under the transformation?
$endgroup$
– Aditya
Jul 23 '18 at 11:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thanks for the insight from Christian Blatter, can you explain more about what is "reasonable set A"?
$endgroup$
– bsdshell
Oct 11 '13 at 22:07
$begingroup$
@bsdshell : By reasonable we imply those sets for which the notion of volume is defined, which means those functions for which the indicator function can be integrated (using the Lebesgue integral to be as general as possible).
$endgroup$
– Patrick Da Silva
Oct 13 '13 at 16:49
$begingroup$
Is this a generalization to the higher dimensions of the idea that orthogonal transformations only reflects or rotates in 2D euclidean space, and that is why the volume is invariant under the transformation?
$endgroup$
– Aditya
Jul 23 '18 at 11:31
$begingroup$
Thanks for the insight from Christian Blatter, can you explain more about what is "reasonable set A"?
$endgroup$
– bsdshell
Oct 11 '13 at 22:07
$begingroup$
Thanks for the insight from Christian Blatter, can you explain more about what is "reasonable set A"?
$endgroup$
– bsdshell
Oct 11 '13 at 22:07
$begingroup$
@bsdshell : By reasonable we imply those sets for which the notion of volume is defined, which means those functions for which the indicator function can be integrated (using the Lebesgue integral to be as general as possible).
$endgroup$
– Patrick Da Silva
Oct 13 '13 at 16:49
$begingroup$
@bsdshell : By reasonable we imply those sets for which the notion of volume is defined, which means those functions for which the indicator function can be integrated (using the Lebesgue integral to be as general as possible).
$endgroup$
– Patrick Da Silva
Oct 13 '13 at 16:49
$begingroup$
Is this a generalization to the higher dimensions of the idea that orthogonal transformations only reflects or rotates in 2D euclidean space, and that is why the volume is invariant under the transformation?
$endgroup$
– Aditya
Jul 23 '18 at 11:31
$begingroup$
Is this a generalization to the higher dimensions of the idea that orthogonal transformations only reflects or rotates in 2D euclidean space, and that is why the volume is invariant under the transformation?
$endgroup$
– Aditya
Jul 23 '18 at 11:31
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The absolute value of the determinant of a real, square matrix is the volume of the parallelepiped whose sides are the columns of the matrix. For an orthogonal matrix, the columns are pairwise orthogonal unit vectors, so this parallelepiped is a cube with side length 1. So the volume is 1, and therefore the determinant is $pm1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The absolute value of the determinant of a real, square matrix is the volume of the parallelepiped whose sides are the columns of the matrix. For an orthogonal matrix, the columns are pairwise orthogonal unit vectors, so this parallelepiped is a cube with side length 1. So the volume is 1, and therefore the determinant is $pm1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The absolute value of the determinant of a real, square matrix is the volume of the parallelepiped whose sides are the columns of the matrix. For an orthogonal matrix, the columns are pairwise orthogonal unit vectors, so this parallelepiped is a cube with side length 1. So the volume is 1, and therefore the determinant is $pm1$.
$endgroup$
The absolute value of the determinant of a real, square matrix is the volume of the parallelepiped whose sides are the columns of the matrix. For an orthogonal matrix, the columns are pairwise orthogonal unit vectors, so this parallelepiped is a cube with side length 1. So the volume is 1, and therefore the determinant is $pm1$.
answered Oct 11 '13 at 18:44
Andreas BlassAndreas Blass
50.2k452109
50.2k452109
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $|det(Q)|>1$, then for any positive integer $n$, $|det(Q^n)|=|det(Q)|^n$ will blow up. Since for any positive integer $n$, $Q^n$ is also an orthogonal matrix, whose determinant will not blow up due to the geometric meaning of determinant, we know that $|det(Q^n)|$ will not blow up and $|det(Q)|=1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $|det(Q)|>1$, then for any positive integer $n$, $|det(Q^n)|=|det(Q)|^n$ will blow up. Since for any positive integer $n$, $Q^n$ is also an orthogonal matrix, whose determinant will not blow up due to the geometric meaning of determinant, we know that $|det(Q^n)|$ will not blow up and $|det(Q)|=1$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $|det(Q)|>1$, then for any positive integer $n$, $|det(Q^n)|=|det(Q)|^n$ will blow up. Since for any positive integer $n$, $Q^n$ is also an orthogonal matrix, whose determinant will not blow up due to the geometric meaning of determinant, we know that $|det(Q^n)|$ will not blow up and $|det(Q)|=1$.
$endgroup$
If $|det(Q)|>1$, then for any positive integer $n$, $|det(Q^n)|=|det(Q)|^n$ will blow up. Since for any positive integer $n$, $Q^n$ is also an orthogonal matrix, whose determinant will not blow up due to the geometric meaning of determinant, we know that $|det(Q^n)|$ will not blow up and $|det(Q)|=1$.
edited Dec 27 '18 at 0:32
user376343
3,9584829
3,9584829
answered Dec 27 '18 at 0:21
Kangquan LiKangquan Li
1
1
add a comment |
add a comment |
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3
$begingroup$
The claim isn't true; unitary matrices have $|det{P}| = 1$.
$endgroup$
– user61527
Oct 11 '13 at 3:18
2
$begingroup$
What you are getting is $(det P)^2=1$, but no more than that.
$endgroup$
– Pedro Tamaroff♦
Oct 11 '13 at 3:20
$begingroup$
thx to point it out
$endgroup$
– bsdshell
Oct 11 '13 at 3:21
$begingroup$
Shouldn't it be $P^t P = I$ instead of "$implies P^t = P$" at the top?
$endgroup$
– Pratyush Sarkar
Oct 11 '13 at 3:25
$begingroup$
And the proof is $det(P^tP) = det(I) implies det(P)^2 = 1$ which is what you already have. It is as elementary as it can get.
$endgroup$
– Pratyush Sarkar
Oct 11 '13 at 3:30