We know an example iff any exist
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Consider a statement of this form:
We don't know whether or not there exist any [X] with property [Y], but we do know that [some concrete instance/example of an X] has property [Y] iff any [X] has property [Y].
Is there a name for this sort of statement? When is it possible to (truthfully) make such a statement? Where have such statements appeared in math?
(The one statement I've heard that inspired this question is that we have a (completely impractical) algorithm that will solve any problem in NP, and we know that it will run in polynomial time iff P=NP.)
logic examples-counterexamples predicate-logic quantifiers
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|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Consider a statement of this form:
We don't know whether or not there exist any [X] with property [Y], but we do know that [some concrete instance/example of an X] has property [Y] iff any [X] has property [Y].
Is there a name for this sort of statement? When is it possible to (truthfully) make such a statement? Where have such statements appeared in math?
(The one statement I've heard that inspired this question is that we have a (completely impractical) algorithm that will solve any problem in NP, and we know that it will run in polynomial time iff P=NP.)
logic examples-counterexamples predicate-logic quantifiers
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$begingroup$
Something like this might be called a "universal object" for property $Y$ in category theory. I don't believe the statement that inspired your question: can you give a reference for it, please.
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– Rob Arthan
Dec 21 '18 at 23:26
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@RobArthan I don't remember where I saw it in the first place, but here it is on Wikipedia.
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– Joseph Sible
Dec 22 '18 at 2:53
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Thanks for the link. You haven't stated it quite right: those algorithms solve particular NP-complete problems in a certain sense (and so they can be used to solve any other given NP-complete problem in that sense when composed with an appropriate reduction). Sorry if I sound a bit pedantic - I was just interested in the actual statement.
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– Rob Arthan
Dec 22 '18 at 18:23
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I'm a bit confused. Can you formally express the above statement using the language of predicate logic, e.g $exists x: Y(x)$, etc.
$endgroup$
– Dan Christensen
Dec 23 '18 at 15:50
$begingroup$
@DanChristensen I think $(exists x : Y(x)) implies Y(a)$ (where $a$ is some constant) is how I'd express that like that.
$endgroup$
– Joseph Sible
Dec 25 '18 at 0:55
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Consider a statement of this form:
We don't know whether or not there exist any [X] with property [Y], but we do know that [some concrete instance/example of an X] has property [Y] iff any [X] has property [Y].
Is there a name for this sort of statement? When is it possible to (truthfully) make such a statement? Where have such statements appeared in math?
(The one statement I've heard that inspired this question is that we have a (completely impractical) algorithm that will solve any problem in NP, and we know that it will run in polynomial time iff P=NP.)
logic examples-counterexamples predicate-logic quantifiers
$endgroup$
Consider a statement of this form:
We don't know whether or not there exist any [X] with property [Y], but we do know that [some concrete instance/example of an X] has property [Y] iff any [X] has property [Y].
Is there a name for this sort of statement? When is it possible to (truthfully) make such a statement? Where have such statements appeared in math?
(The one statement I've heard that inspired this question is that we have a (completely impractical) algorithm that will solve any problem in NP, and we know that it will run in polynomial time iff P=NP.)
logic examples-counterexamples predicate-logic quantifiers
logic examples-counterexamples predicate-logic quantifiers
asked Dec 20 '18 at 17:20
Joseph SibleJoseph Sible
1495
1495
$begingroup$
Something like this might be called a "universal object" for property $Y$ in category theory. I don't believe the statement that inspired your question: can you give a reference for it, please.
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 21 '18 at 23:26
$begingroup$
@RobArthan I don't remember where I saw it in the first place, but here it is on Wikipedia.
$endgroup$
– Joseph Sible
Dec 22 '18 at 2:53
$begingroup$
Thanks for the link. You haven't stated it quite right: those algorithms solve particular NP-complete problems in a certain sense (and so they can be used to solve any other given NP-complete problem in that sense when composed with an appropriate reduction). Sorry if I sound a bit pedantic - I was just interested in the actual statement.
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 22 '18 at 18:23
$begingroup$
I'm a bit confused. Can you formally express the above statement using the language of predicate logic, e.g $exists x: Y(x)$, etc.
$endgroup$
– Dan Christensen
Dec 23 '18 at 15:50
$begingroup$
@DanChristensen I think $(exists x : Y(x)) implies Y(a)$ (where $a$ is some constant) is how I'd express that like that.
$endgroup$
– Joseph Sible
Dec 25 '18 at 0:55
|
show 1 more comment
$begingroup$
Something like this might be called a "universal object" for property $Y$ in category theory. I don't believe the statement that inspired your question: can you give a reference for it, please.
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 21 '18 at 23:26
$begingroup$
@RobArthan I don't remember where I saw it in the first place, but here it is on Wikipedia.
$endgroup$
– Joseph Sible
Dec 22 '18 at 2:53
$begingroup$
Thanks for the link. You haven't stated it quite right: those algorithms solve particular NP-complete problems in a certain sense (and so they can be used to solve any other given NP-complete problem in that sense when composed with an appropriate reduction). Sorry if I sound a bit pedantic - I was just interested in the actual statement.
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 22 '18 at 18:23
$begingroup$
I'm a bit confused. Can you formally express the above statement using the language of predicate logic, e.g $exists x: Y(x)$, etc.
$endgroup$
– Dan Christensen
Dec 23 '18 at 15:50
$begingroup$
@DanChristensen I think $(exists x : Y(x)) implies Y(a)$ (where $a$ is some constant) is how I'd express that like that.
$endgroup$
– Joseph Sible
Dec 25 '18 at 0:55
$begingroup$
Something like this might be called a "universal object" for property $Y$ in category theory. I don't believe the statement that inspired your question: can you give a reference for it, please.
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 21 '18 at 23:26
$begingroup$
Something like this might be called a "universal object" for property $Y$ in category theory. I don't believe the statement that inspired your question: can you give a reference for it, please.
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 21 '18 at 23:26
$begingroup$
@RobArthan I don't remember where I saw it in the first place, but here it is on Wikipedia.
$endgroup$
– Joseph Sible
Dec 22 '18 at 2:53
$begingroup$
@RobArthan I don't remember where I saw it in the first place, but here it is on Wikipedia.
$endgroup$
– Joseph Sible
Dec 22 '18 at 2:53
$begingroup$
Thanks for the link. You haven't stated it quite right: those algorithms solve particular NP-complete problems in a certain sense (and so they can be used to solve any other given NP-complete problem in that sense when composed with an appropriate reduction). Sorry if I sound a bit pedantic - I was just interested in the actual statement.
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 22 '18 at 18:23
$begingroup$
Thanks for the link. You haven't stated it quite right: those algorithms solve particular NP-complete problems in a certain sense (and so they can be used to solve any other given NP-complete problem in that sense when composed with an appropriate reduction). Sorry if I sound a bit pedantic - I was just interested in the actual statement.
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 22 '18 at 18:23
$begingroup$
I'm a bit confused. Can you formally express the above statement using the language of predicate logic, e.g $exists x: Y(x)$, etc.
$endgroup$
– Dan Christensen
Dec 23 '18 at 15:50
$begingroup$
I'm a bit confused. Can you formally express the above statement using the language of predicate logic, e.g $exists x: Y(x)$, etc.
$endgroup$
– Dan Christensen
Dec 23 '18 at 15:50
$begingroup$
@DanChristensen I think $(exists x : Y(x)) implies Y(a)$ (where $a$ is some constant) is how I'd express that like that.
$endgroup$
– Joseph Sible
Dec 25 '18 at 0:55
$begingroup$
@DanChristensen I think $(exists x : Y(x)) implies Y(a)$ (where $a$ is some constant) is how I'd express that like that.
$endgroup$
– Joseph Sible
Dec 25 '18 at 0:55
|
show 1 more comment
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$begingroup$
Something like this might be called a "universal object" for property $Y$ in category theory. I don't believe the statement that inspired your question: can you give a reference for it, please.
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 21 '18 at 23:26
$begingroup$
@RobArthan I don't remember where I saw it in the first place, but here it is on Wikipedia.
$endgroup$
– Joseph Sible
Dec 22 '18 at 2:53
$begingroup$
Thanks for the link. You haven't stated it quite right: those algorithms solve particular NP-complete problems in a certain sense (and so they can be used to solve any other given NP-complete problem in that sense when composed with an appropriate reduction). Sorry if I sound a bit pedantic - I was just interested in the actual statement.
$endgroup$
– Rob Arthan
Dec 22 '18 at 18:23
$begingroup$
I'm a bit confused. Can you formally express the above statement using the language of predicate logic, e.g $exists x: Y(x)$, etc.
$endgroup$
– Dan Christensen
Dec 23 '18 at 15:50
$begingroup$
@DanChristensen I think $(exists x : Y(x)) implies Y(a)$ (where $a$ is some constant) is how I'd express that like that.
$endgroup$
– Joseph Sible
Dec 25 '18 at 0:55