Find $ E(X mid X^2 + Y^2) $ for $X,Y$ independent standard normal [closed]












0














Let $X,Y$ independent random variables with $ X,Ysim mathcal{N}(0,1) $.



I want to find: $$ E(X mid X^2 + Y^2) $$



How can it be found? I would appreciate any tips or hints.










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closed as off-topic by Saad, Leucippus, Cesareo, John B, choco_addicted Dec 3 '18 at 11:53


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Saad, Leucippus, Cesareo, John B, choco_addicted

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.









  • 1




    Wouldn't that be $0$ by symmetry? Since $mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2] = mathbb{E}[(-X)mid (-X)^2+Y^2]=-mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2]$ (the first equality as $X$ and $-X$ have same distribution, and are both independent of $Y$)
    – Clement C.
    Dec 3 '18 at 0:24






  • 1




    My hint would be to think in terms of symmetry. $X^2+Y^2$ tells you the distance from the origin, which doesn't tell you anything about which side of $X=0$ it is on.
    – spaceisdarkgreen
    Dec 3 '18 at 0:25
















0














Let $X,Y$ independent random variables with $ X,Ysim mathcal{N}(0,1) $.



I want to find: $$ E(X mid X^2 + Y^2) $$



How can it be found? I would appreciate any tips or hints.










share|cite|improve this question













closed as off-topic by Saad, Leucippus, Cesareo, John B, choco_addicted Dec 3 '18 at 11:53


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Saad, Leucippus, Cesareo, John B, choco_addicted

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.









  • 1




    Wouldn't that be $0$ by symmetry? Since $mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2] = mathbb{E}[(-X)mid (-X)^2+Y^2]=-mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2]$ (the first equality as $X$ and $-X$ have same distribution, and are both independent of $Y$)
    – Clement C.
    Dec 3 '18 at 0:24






  • 1




    My hint would be to think in terms of symmetry. $X^2+Y^2$ tells you the distance from the origin, which doesn't tell you anything about which side of $X=0$ it is on.
    – spaceisdarkgreen
    Dec 3 '18 at 0:25














0












0








0


1





Let $X,Y$ independent random variables with $ X,Ysim mathcal{N}(0,1) $.



I want to find: $$ E(X mid X^2 + Y^2) $$



How can it be found? I would appreciate any tips or hints.










share|cite|improve this question













Let $X,Y$ independent random variables with $ X,Ysim mathcal{N}(0,1) $.



I want to find: $$ E(X mid X^2 + Y^2) $$



How can it be found? I would appreciate any tips or hints.







probability normal-distribution expected-value






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asked Dec 3 '18 at 0:14









Wywana

535




535




closed as off-topic by Saad, Leucippus, Cesareo, John B, choco_addicted Dec 3 '18 at 11:53


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Saad, Leucippus, Cesareo, John B, choco_addicted

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




closed as off-topic by Saad, Leucippus, Cesareo, John B, choco_addicted Dec 3 '18 at 11:53


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – Saad, Leucippus, Cesareo, John B, choco_addicted

If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 1




    Wouldn't that be $0$ by symmetry? Since $mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2] = mathbb{E}[(-X)mid (-X)^2+Y^2]=-mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2]$ (the first equality as $X$ and $-X$ have same distribution, and are both independent of $Y$)
    – Clement C.
    Dec 3 '18 at 0:24






  • 1




    My hint would be to think in terms of symmetry. $X^2+Y^2$ tells you the distance from the origin, which doesn't tell you anything about which side of $X=0$ it is on.
    – spaceisdarkgreen
    Dec 3 '18 at 0:25














  • 1




    Wouldn't that be $0$ by symmetry? Since $mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2] = mathbb{E}[(-X)mid (-X)^2+Y^2]=-mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2]$ (the first equality as $X$ and $-X$ have same distribution, and are both independent of $Y$)
    – Clement C.
    Dec 3 '18 at 0:24






  • 1




    My hint would be to think in terms of symmetry. $X^2+Y^2$ tells you the distance from the origin, which doesn't tell you anything about which side of $X=0$ it is on.
    – spaceisdarkgreen
    Dec 3 '18 at 0:25








1




1




Wouldn't that be $0$ by symmetry? Since $mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2] = mathbb{E}[(-X)mid (-X)^2+Y^2]=-mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2]$ (the first equality as $X$ and $-X$ have same distribution, and are both independent of $Y$)
– Clement C.
Dec 3 '18 at 0:24




Wouldn't that be $0$ by symmetry? Since $mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2] = mathbb{E}[(-X)mid (-X)^2+Y^2]=-mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2]$ (the first equality as $X$ and $-X$ have same distribution, and are both independent of $Y$)
– Clement C.
Dec 3 '18 at 0:24




1




1




My hint would be to think in terms of symmetry. $X^2+Y^2$ tells you the distance from the origin, which doesn't tell you anything about which side of $X=0$ it is on.
– spaceisdarkgreen
Dec 3 '18 at 0:25




My hint would be to think in terms of symmetry. $X^2+Y^2$ tells you the distance from the origin, which doesn't tell you anything about which side of $X=0$ it is on.
– spaceisdarkgreen
Dec 3 '18 at 0:25










2 Answers
2






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4














By symmetry, you'll have
$$
mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2] = 0,.$$

This is because $mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2] = mathbb{E}[(-X)mid (-X)^2+Y^2]=-mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2]$ (the first equality as $X$ and $-X$ have same distribution, and are both independent of $Y$; the second is linearity).






share|cite|improve this answer





























    1














    The answer is $0$. To show this what you have to show is $int_{{X^{2}+Y^{2} leq t}}XdP =0$ for all $t in mathbb R$. But this is immediate from the fact that $(X,Y)$ has same distribution as $(-X,-Y)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer




























      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      4














      By symmetry, you'll have
      $$
      mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2] = 0,.$$

      This is because $mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2] = mathbb{E}[(-X)mid (-X)^2+Y^2]=-mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2]$ (the first equality as $X$ and $-X$ have same distribution, and are both independent of $Y$; the second is linearity).






      share|cite|improve this answer


























        4














        By symmetry, you'll have
        $$
        mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2] = 0,.$$

        This is because $mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2] = mathbb{E}[(-X)mid (-X)^2+Y^2]=-mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2]$ (the first equality as $X$ and $-X$ have same distribution, and are both independent of $Y$; the second is linearity).






        share|cite|improve this answer
























          4












          4








          4






          By symmetry, you'll have
          $$
          mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2] = 0,.$$

          This is because $mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2] = mathbb{E}[(-X)mid (-X)^2+Y^2]=-mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2]$ (the first equality as $X$ and $-X$ have same distribution, and are both independent of $Y$; the second is linearity).






          share|cite|improve this answer












          By symmetry, you'll have
          $$
          mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2] = 0,.$$

          This is because $mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2] = mathbb{E}[(-X)mid (-X)^2+Y^2]=-mathbb{E}[Xmid X^2+Y^2]$ (the first equality as $X$ and $-X$ have same distribution, and are both independent of $Y$; the second is linearity).







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 3 '18 at 0:27









          Clement C.

          49.7k33886




          49.7k33886























              1














              The answer is $0$. To show this what you have to show is $int_{{X^{2}+Y^{2} leq t}}XdP =0$ for all $t in mathbb R$. But this is immediate from the fact that $(X,Y)$ has same distribution as $(-X,-Y)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                1














                The answer is $0$. To show this what you have to show is $int_{{X^{2}+Y^{2} leq t}}XdP =0$ for all $t in mathbb R$. But this is immediate from the fact that $(X,Y)$ has same distribution as $(-X,-Y)$.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  1












                  1








                  1






                  The answer is $0$. To show this what you have to show is $int_{{X^{2}+Y^{2} leq t}}XdP =0$ for all $t in mathbb R$. But this is immediate from the fact that $(X,Y)$ has same distribution as $(-X,-Y)$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  The answer is $0$. To show this what you have to show is $int_{{X^{2}+Y^{2} leq t}}XdP =0$ for all $t in mathbb R$. But this is immediate from the fact that $(X,Y)$ has same distribution as $(-X,-Y)$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 3 '18 at 0:25









                  Kavi Rama Murthy

                  51.1k31854




                  51.1k31854















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