Is a “local enough” class number always equal to one? [duplicate]
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
This question already has an answer here:
Standard argument for making the class group of a number field trivial
1 answer
Let $F$ be a number field, and $mathcal{O}$ its ring of integers. Is there always a finite set $S$ of places of $F$ such that $mathcal{O}_S$ has class number one? Is it a consequence of standard results on class field theory or is it something else?
number-theory algebraic-number-theory class-field-theory
share | cite | improve this question
asked Nov 26 at 7:06
TheStudent