Dart Throw Probability
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In the book, "A Practical Guide to Quantitative Finance Interviews", the following question is posed on page 75:
Jason throws two darts at a dartboard, aiming for the center. The second dart lands farther from the center than the first. If Jason throws a third dart aiming for the center, what is the probability that the third throw is further from the center than the first? Assume Jason's skillfulness is constant.
At first glance, it seems the second throw is irrelevant - since his skillfulness is constant, the second throw in no way influences his third throw. Furthermore, it seems like this question can only be answered in terms of the distance from the center of the first toss. Indeed, denote this distance by $D_1$. Then assuming the area of the dart board is $1$, the probability that the third throw is further than the first is just the area of the annulus, which is given by $1 - pi D_1^2$.
However, the solution given in this text is $frac{2}{3}$, which is arrived at by enumerating the possible outcomes. Let $D_i$ be the distance of the $i$th throw. Then the possible outcomes assuming the second throw is further than the first are:
$$
D_3 < D_1 < D_2 \
boxed{D_1 < D_3 < D_2} \
boxed{D_1 < D_2 < D_3}
$$
The two boxed outcomes satisfy our event in question, so the probability must be $frac{2}{3}$. But, this seems to be answering a different question, namely,
What's the probability the third throw is not the best out of three, given the second throw is worse than the first?
Are the two block-quoted questions really asking the same thing, and I've misunderstood the first one?
probability
add a comment |
up vote
1
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In the book, "A Practical Guide to Quantitative Finance Interviews", the following question is posed on page 75:
Jason throws two darts at a dartboard, aiming for the center. The second dart lands farther from the center than the first. If Jason throws a third dart aiming for the center, what is the probability that the third throw is further from the center than the first? Assume Jason's skillfulness is constant.
At first glance, it seems the second throw is irrelevant - since his skillfulness is constant, the second throw in no way influences his third throw. Furthermore, it seems like this question can only be answered in terms of the distance from the center of the first toss. Indeed, denote this distance by $D_1$. Then assuming the area of the dart board is $1$, the probability that the third throw is further than the first is just the area of the annulus, which is given by $1 - pi D_1^2$.
However, the solution given in this text is $frac{2}{3}$, which is arrived at by enumerating the possible outcomes. Let $D_i$ be the distance of the $i$th throw. Then the possible outcomes assuming the second throw is further than the first are:
$$
D_3 < D_1 < D_2 \
boxed{D_1 < D_3 < D_2} \
boxed{D_1 < D_2 < D_3}
$$
The two boxed outcomes satisfy our event in question, so the probability must be $frac{2}{3}$. But, this seems to be answering a different question, namely,
What's the probability the third throw is not the best out of three, given the second throw is worse than the first?
Are the two block-quoted questions really asking the same thing, and I've misunderstood the first one?
probability
The two questions are indeed equivalent. $D_3$ is further from the center than $D_1$ if and only if it is not the best of the three throws. to phrase it without the (possibly confusing) negative: "$D_3$ is nearer the center than $D_1$ if and only if it is the best of the three throws."
– lulu
Nov 11 '15 at 3:13
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
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up vote
1
down vote
favorite
In the book, "A Practical Guide to Quantitative Finance Interviews", the following question is posed on page 75:
Jason throws two darts at a dartboard, aiming for the center. The second dart lands farther from the center than the first. If Jason throws a third dart aiming for the center, what is the probability that the third throw is further from the center than the first? Assume Jason's skillfulness is constant.
At first glance, it seems the second throw is irrelevant - since his skillfulness is constant, the second throw in no way influences his third throw. Furthermore, it seems like this question can only be answered in terms of the distance from the center of the first toss. Indeed, denote this distance by $D_1$. Then assuming the area of the dart board is $1$, the probability that the third throw is further than the first is just the area of the annulus, which is given by $1 - pi D_1^2$.
However, the solution given in this text is $frac{2}{3}$, which is arrived at by enumerating the possible outcomes. Let $D_i$ be the distance of the $i$th throw. Then the possible outcomes assuming the second throw is further than the first are:
$$
D_3 < D_1 < D_2 \
boxed{D_1 < D_3 < D_2} \
boxed{D_1 < D_2 < D_3}
$$
The two boxed outcomes satisfy our event in question, so the probability must be $frac{2}{3}$. But, this seems to be answering a different question, namely,
What's the probability the third throw is not the best out of three, given the second throw is worse than the first?
Are the two block-quoted questions really asking the same thing, and I've misunderstood the first one?
probability
In the book, "A Practical Guide to Quantitative Finance Interviews", the following question is posed on page 75:
Jason throws two darts at a dartboard, aiming for the center. The second dart lands farther from the center than the first. If Jason throws a third dart aiming for the center, what is the probability that the third throw is further from the center than the first? Assume Jason's skillfulness is constant.
At first glance, it seems the second throw is irrelevant - since his skillfulness is constant, the second throw in no way influences his third throw. Furthermore, it seems like this question can only be answered in terms of the distance from the center of the first toss. Indeed, denote this distance by $D_1$. Then assuming the area of the dart board is $1$, the probability that the third throw is further than the first is just the area of the annulus, which is given by $1 - pi D_1^2$.
However, the solution given in this text is $frac{2}{3}$, which is arrived at by enumerating the possible outcomes. Let $D_i$ be the distance of the $i$th throw. Then the possible outcomes assuming the second throw is further than the first are:
$$
D_3 < D_1 < D_2 \
boxed{D_1 < D_3 < D_2} \
boxed{D_1 < D_2 < D_3}
$$
The two boxed outcomes satisfy our event in question, so the probability must be $frac{2}{3}$. But, this seems to be answering a different question, namely,
What's the probability the third throw is not the best out of three, given the second throw is worse than the first?
Are the two block-quoted questions really asking the same thing, and I've misunderstood the first one?
probability
probability
edited Nov 15 '15 at 20:38
asked Nov 11 '15 at 3:09
bcf
1,414817
1,414817
The two questions are indeed equivalent. $D_3$ is further from the center than $D_1$ if and only if it is not the best of the three throws. to phrase it without the (possibly confusing) negative: "$D_3$ is nearer the center than $D_1$ if and only if it is the best of the three throws."
– lulu
Nov 11 '15 at 3:13
add a comment |
The two questions are indeed equivalent. $D_3$ is further from the center than $D_1$ if and only if it is not the best of the three throws. to phrase it without the (possibly confusing) negative: "$D_3$ is nearer the center than $D_1$ if and only if it is the best of the three throws."
– lulu
Nov 11 '15 at 3:13
The two questions are indeed equivalent. $D_3$ is further from the center than $D_1$ if and only if it is not the best of the three throws. to phrase it without the (possibly confusing) negative: "$D_3$ is nearer the center than $D_1$ if and only if it is the best of the three throws."
– lulu
Nov 11 '15 at 3:13
The two questions are indeed equivalent. $D_3$ is further from the center than $D_1$ if and only if it is not the best of the three throws. to phrase it without the (possibly confusing) negative: "$D_3$ is nearer the center than $D_1$ if and only if it is the best of the three throws."
– lulu
Nov 11 '15 at 3:13
add a comment |
2 Answers
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0
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Yes.
The key to the question is that "skillfulness is constant" means that the three distances are independent and identically distributed. It is also almost impossible for them to be tied, since they are continuous RV.
This means that even without knowing what the distribution of distances may be, we do know that the $6$ order arrangements are equally probable.
$$boxed{boxed{D_1{<}D_2{<}D_3 ;,; D_1{<}D_3{<}D_2} ;,; D_3{<}D_1{<}D_2}\ D_2{<}D_1{<}D_3 ;,; D_2{<}D_3{<}D_1 ;,; D_3{<}D_2{<}D_1$$
Now we were asked to evaluate the probability that the third throw is placed further than the first throw, when given that the first throw is placed closer than the second. That is: $mathsf P(D_1<D_3mid D_1<D_2)$. Clearly this is: $2/3$.
If doing it the easy way isn't convincing, we shall do it the hard way:
Let $f_1(r), f_2(r), f_3(r)$ be the probability density functions of the distance from the center of the three darts, respectively, and $F_1(r), F_2(r), F_3(r)$ be their cumulative distribution functions. (These of course will be co-equal because the darts are i.i.d., but the indices are a readability guide.)
Without knowing the skill of the dart thrower we may as well assume the darts are uniformly distributed over the board (why? why not?). Then ...,
$$newcommand{dint}{{displaystyle int}}
begin{align}
f_1(r) & = dfrac{2r}{R^2} & =f_2(r)=f_3(r)
\[2ex]
F_1 (r) & = dfrac{r^2}{R^2} & =F_2(r)=F_3(r)
\[2ex]
mathsf P(D_1<D_2)
& = int_0^R f_1(r),big(1-F_2(r)big) operatorname d r
\[1ex] & = frac 2{R^4}int_0^R rR^2-r^3operatorname d r
\[1ex] & = dfrac 1 2
\[2ex]mathsf P(D_1<D_3mid D_1<D_2)
& = int_0^R f_1(r mid D_1<D_2); big(1-F_3(r)big) operatorname d r
\[1ex] ~ & = dfrac{
dint_0^R f_1(r) , big(1-F_2(r)big) , big(1-F_3(r)big) operatorname d r
}{
dint_0^R f_1(r) , big(1-F_2(r)big)operatorname d r
}
\[1ex] ~ & = dfrac{
frac{2}{R^6} dint_0^R r , (R^2-r^2)^2 operatorname d r
}{
frac 1 2
}
\[1ex] ~ & = dfrac 2 3
end{align}$$
As an exercise for the student, try this with some other assumption of the dart thrower's skill, such as $f_1(r)=frac 1 R$.
Finally examine the situation when you make no assumption, and convince yourself of the symmetry argument.
$mathsf P(D_1<D_2) = dint_0^R f(x) dint_r^R f(y)operatorname d yoperatorname d x \ mathsf P(D_1<D_3mid D_1< D_2) = frac{int_0^R f(x) left(int_r^R f(y)operatorname d yright)^2operatorname d x}{int_0^R f(x) int_r^R f(y)operatorname d yoperatorname d x}$
Your solution is indeed the book's solution; however, it seems that given the nature of the experiment, ${D_1 < D_3}$ is independent of ${D_1 < D_2}$, and hence $P(D_1 < D_3 mid D_1 < D_2) = P(D_1 < D_3) = 1 - pi D_1^2$ as I had at first. I'm having trouble viewing this problem as you have.
– bcf
Nov 15 '15 at 20:34
@bcf Why would ${D_1<D_3}$ be independent of ${D_1<D_2}$? If you know ${D_1<D_2}$ you will expect $D_1$ to be statistically closer to the center than if you knew ${D_1>D_2}$; so these conditions will undoubtedly have similar influence on the probability measure of ${D_1<D_3}$.
– Graham Kemp
Nov 15 '15 at 23:07
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0
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...it seems like this question can only be answered in terms of the distance from the center of the first toss.
Why? I think you have almost all the information to answer it. I say almost because you have to interpret the "Jason's skillfulness is constant" phrase.
I try to answer it by using simple probabilistic arguments and notation.
Translate Question in Mathematical Terms
First we need to translate the question in probabilistic terms by writing (I use your notation for $D_i$):
$Prob(D_3 > D_1 | D_2 > D_1) = ?$
Interpretation of "Jason's skillfulness is constant"
The fact that "Jason's skillfulness is constant" can be interpreted in different ways. Does it mean he's a "normal"/average player (e.g., his probability distribution is a 2D normal pdf centered in the dartboard center) or a "skillful" professional player (e.g., his probability distribution has an higher kurtosis than the normal pdf) or is he a monkey throwing darts on the wall without much aim in doing so?
We don't know it and we don't care, we simply interpret this as the fact that the distances $D_i$ of Jason's darts from the center constitute a sequence of random variables i.i.d. (independent and identically distributed), whatever that distribution is (normal pdf, leptokurtic, "monkey" pdf, etc.).
Answer to the question
Now that we have clarified the question and made the relevant assumptions we can answer it. As I said, I'll try to make it is simple as possible by using trivial logic/probability.
- $$begin{align}Prob(D_3 > D_1 | D_2 > D_1)&=Prob(D_3 > D_1 | D_1 text{ is the best among 2 darts})\&=1-Prob(D_3 < D_1 | D_1 text{ is the best among 2 darts})\&underbrace{=}_{text{HP: $D_i$ i.i.d.}}1-Prob(D_3 text{ is the best among 3 darts})end{align}$$
- As you can see above, I've used the i.i.d. assumption (in the last step). Now I translate the probability over $D_3$ to a more intuitive one and I use again the i.i.d. assumption:
$$Prob(D_3 text{ is the best among 3 darts}) underbrace{equiv}_{text{HP: $D_i$ i.i.d.}} Prob(text{Picking an object among 3 available})=frac{text{# favorable outcomes}}{text{# total outcomes}}=frac{1}{3}$$ - Hence the result is:
$$begin{align}Prob(D_3 > D_1 | D_2 > D_1)&=1-Prob(D_3 text{ is the best among 3 darts})\&=1-frac{1}{3}\&=frac{2}{3}end{align}$$
Extension to Generic $n$
You can extend this result to a generic number $n$ of darts, with the further (similar) assumption that $D_1$ is the best dart among $(n-1)$ darts:
- $$begin{align}&Prob(D_n > D_1 | D_2 > D_1, D_3 > D_1, dots, D_{n-1} > D_1)\&=Prob(D_n > D_1 | D_1 text{ is the best among $(n-1)$ darts})\&=1-Prob(D_n < D_1 | D_1 text{ is the best among $(n-1)$ darts})\&underbrace{=}_{text{HP: $D_i$ i.i.d.}}1-Prob(D_n text{ is the best among $n$ darts})end{align}$$
- $$Prob(D_n text{ is the best among $n$ darts}) underbrace{equiv}_{text{HP: $D_i$ i.i.d.}} Prob(text{Picking an object among $n$ available})=frac{text{# favorable outcomes}}{text{# total outcomes}}= frac{1}{n}$$
- Hence the result is:
$$begin{align}Prob(D_n > D_1 | D_2 > D_1, D_3 > D_1, dots, D_{n-1}>D_1)&=1-Prob(D_n text{ is the best among $n$ darts})\&=1-frac{1}{n}\&=frac{n-1}{n}end{align}$$
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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Yes.
The key to the question is that "skillfulness is constant" means that the three distances are independent and identically distributed. It is also almost impossible for them to be tied, since they are continuous RV.
This means that even without knowing what the distribution of distances may be, we do know that the $6$ order arrangements are equally probable.
$$boxed{boxed{D_1{<}D_2{<}D_3 ;,; D_1{<}D_3{<}D_2} ;,; D_3{<}D_1{<}D_2}\ D_2{<}D_1{<}D_3 ;,; D_2{<}D_3{<}D_1 ;,; D_3{<}D_2{<}D_1$$
Now we were asked to evaluate the probability that the third throw is placed further than the first throw, when given that the first throw is placed closer than the second. That is: $mathsf P(D_1<D_3mid D_1<D_2)$. Clearly this is: $2/3$.
If doing it the easy way isn't convincing, we shall do it the hard way:
Let $f_1(r), f_2(r), f_3(r)$ be the probability density functions of the distance from the center of the three darts, respectively, and $F_1(r), F_2(r), F_3(r)$ be their cumulative distribution functions. (These of course will be co-equal because the darts are i.i.d., but the indices are a readability guide.)
Without knowing the skill of the dart thrower we may as well assume the darts are uniformly distributed over the board (why? why not?). Then ...,
$$newcommand{dint}{{displaystyle int}}
begin{align}
f_1(r) & = dfrac{2r}{R^2} & =f_2(r)=f_3(r)
\[2ex]
F_1 (r) & = dfrac{r^2}{R^2} & =F_2(r)=F_3(r)
\[2ex]
mathsf P(D_1<D_2)
& = int_0^R f_1(r),big(1-F_2(r)big) operatorname d r
\[1ex] & = frac 2{R^4}int_0^R rR^2-r^3operatorname d r
\[1ex] & = dfrac 1 2
\[2ex]mathsf P(D_1<D_3mid D_1<D_2)
& = int_0^R f_1(r mid D_1<D_2); big(1-F_3(r)big) operatorname d r
\[1ex] ~ & = dfrac{
dint_0^R f_1(r) , big(1-F_2(r)big) , big(1-F_3(r)big) operatorname d r
}{
dint_0^R f_1(r) , big(1-F_2(r)big)operatorname d r
}
\[1ex] ~ & = dfrac{
frac{2}{R^6} dint_0^R r , (R^2-r^2)^2 operatorname d r
}{
frac 1 2
}
\[1ex] ~ & = dfrac 2 3
end{align}$$
As an exercise for the student, try this with some other assumption of the dart thrower's skill, such as $f_1(r)=frac 1 R$.
Finally examine the situation when you make no assumption, and convince yourself of the symmetry argument.
$mathsf P(D_1<D_2) = dint_0^R f(x) dint_r^R f(y)operatorname d yoperatorname d x \ mathsf P(D_1<D_3mid D_1< D_2) = frac{int_0^R f(x) left(int_r^R f(y)operatorname d yright)^2operatorname d x}{int_0^R f(x) int_r^R f(y)operatorname d yoperatorname d x}$
Your solution is indeed the book's solution; however, it seems that given the nature of the experiment, ${D_1 < D_3}$ is independent of ${D_1 < D_2}$, and hence $P(D_1 < D_3 mid D_1 < D_2) = P(D_1 < D_3) = 1 - pi D_1^2$ as I had at first. I'm having trouble viewing this problem as you have.
– bcf
Nov 15 '15 at 20:34
@bcf Why would ${D_1<D_3}$ be independent of ${D_1<D_2}$? If you know ${D_1<D_2}$ you will expect $D_1$ to be statistically closer to the center than if you knew ${D_1>D_2}$; so these conditions will undoubtedly have similar influence on the probability measure of ${D_1<D_3}$.
– Graham Kemp
Nov 15 '15 at 23:07
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
Yes.
The key to the question is that "skillfulness is constant" means that the three distances are independent and identically distributed. It is also almost impossible for them to be tied, since they are continuous RV.
This means that even without knowing what the distribution of distances may be, we do know that the $6$ order arrangements are equally probable.
$$boxed{boxed{D_1{<}D_2{<}D_3 ;,; D_1{<}D_3{<}D_2} ;,; D_3{<}D_1{<}D_2}\ D_2{<}D_1{<}D_3 ;,; D_2{<}D_3{<}D_1 ;,; D_3{<}D_2{<}D_1$$
Now we were asked to evaluate the probability that the third throw is placed further than the first throw, when given that the first throw is placed closer than the second. That is: $mathsf P(D_1<D_3mid D_1<D_2)$. Clearly this is: $2/3$.
If doing it the easy way isn't convincing, we shall do it the hard way:
Let $f_1(r), f_2(r), f_3(r)$ be the probability density functions of the distance from the center of the three darts, respectively, and $F_1(r), F_2(r), F_3(r)$ be their cumulative distribution functions. (These of course will be co-equal because the darts are i.i.d., but the indices are a readability guide.)
Without knowing the skill of the dart thrower we may as well assume the darts are uniformly distributed over the board (why? why not?). Then ...,
$$newcommand{dint}{{displaystyle int}}
begin{align}
f_1(r) & = dfrac{2r}{R^2} & =f_2(r)=f_3(r)
\[2ex]
F_1 (r) & = dfrac{r^2}{R^2} & =F_2(r)=F_3(r)
\[2ex]
mathsf P(D_1<D_2)
& = int_0^R f_1(r),big(1-F_2(r)big) operatorname d r
\[1ex] & = frac 2{R^4}int_0^R rR^2-r^3operatorname d r
\[1ex] & = dfrac 1 2
\[2ex]mathsf P(D_1<D_3mid D_1<D_2)
& = int_0^R f_1(r mid D_1<D_2); big(1-F_3(r)big) operatorname d r
\[1ex] ~ & = dfrac{
dint_0^R f_1(r) , big(1-F_2(r)big) , big(1-F_3(r)big) operatorname d r
}{
dint_0^R f_1(r) , big(1-F_2(r)big)operatorname d r
}
\[1ex] ~ & = dfrac{
frac{2}{R^6} dint_0^R r , (R^2-r^2)^2 operatorname d r
}{
frac 1 2
}
\[1ex] ~ & = dfrac 2 3
end{align}$$
As an exercise for the student, try this with some other assumption of the dart thrower's skill, such as $f_1(r)=frac 1 R$.
Finally examine the situation when you make no assumption, and convince yourself of the symmetry argument.
$mathsf P(D_1<D_2) = dint_0^R f(x) dint_r^R f(y)operatorname d yoperatorname d x \ mathsf P(D_1<D_3mid D_1< D_2) = frac{int_0^R f(x) left(int_r^R f(y)operatorname d yright)^2operatorname d x}{int_0^R f(x) int_r^R f(y)operatorname d yoperatorname d x}$
Your solution is indeed the book's solution; however, it seems that given the nature of the experiment, ${D_1 < D_3}$ is independent of ${D_1 < D_2}$, and hence $P(D_1 < D_3 mid D_1 < D_2) = P(D_1 < D_3) = 1 - pi D_1^2$ as I had at first. I'm having trouble viewing this problem as you have.
– bcf
Nov 15 '15 at 20:34
@bcf Why would ${D_1<D_3}$ be independent of ${D_1<D_2}$? If you know ${D_1<D_2}$ you will expect $D_1$ to be statistically closer to the center than if you knew ${D_1>D_2}$; so these conditions will undoubtedly have similar influence on the probability measure of ${D_1<D_3}$.
– Graham Kemp
Nov 15 '15 at 23:07
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
Yes.
The key to the question is that "skillfulness is constant" means that the three distances are independent and identically distributed. It is also almost impossible for them to be tied, since they are continuous RV.
This means that even without knowing what the distribution of distances may be, we do know that the $6$ order arrangements are equally probable.
$$boxed{boxed{D_1{<}D_2{<}D_3 ;,; D_1{<}D_3{<}D_2} ;,; D_3{<}D_1{<}D_2}\ D_2{<}D_1{<}D_3 ;,; D_2{<}D_3{<}D_1 ;,; D_3{<}D_2{<}D_1$$
Now we were asked to evaluate the probability that the third throw is placed further than the first throw, when given that the first throw is placed closer than the second. That is: $mathsf P(D_1<D_3mid D_1<D_2)$. Clearly this is: $2/3$.
If doing it the easy way isn't convincing, we shall do it the hard way:
Let $f_1(r), f_2(r), f_3(r)$ be the probability density functions of the distance from the center of the three darts, respectively, and $F_1(r), F_2(r), F_3(r)$ be their cumulative distribution functions. (These of course will be co-equal because the darts are i.i.d., but the indices are a readability guide.)
Without knowing the skill of the dart thrower we may as well assume the darts are uniformly distributed over the board (why? why not?). Then ...,
$$newcommand{dint}{{displaystyle int}}
begin{align}
f_1(r) & = dfrac{2r}{R^2} & =f_2(r)=f_3(r)
\[2ex]
F_1 (r) & = dfrac{r^2}{R^2} & =F_2(r)=F_3(r)
\[2ex]
mathsf P(D_1<D_2)
& = int_0^R f_1(r),big(1-F_2(r)big) operatorname d r
\[1ex] & = frac 2{R^4}int_0^R rR^2-r^3operatorname d r
\[1ex] & = dfrac 1 2
\[2ex]mathsf P(D_1<D_3mid D_1<D_2)
& = int_0^R f_1(r mid D_1<D_2); big(1-F_3(r)big) operatorname d r
\[1ex] ~ & = dfrac{
dint_0^R f_1(r) , big(1-F_2(r)big) , big(1-F_3(r)big) operatorname d r
}{
dint_0^R f_1(r) , big(1-F_2(r)big)operatorname d r
}
\[1ex] ~ & = dfrac{
frac{2}{R^6} dint_0^R r , (R^2-r^2)^2 operatorname d r
}{
frac 1 2
}
\[1ex] ~ & = dfrac 2 3
end{align}$$
As an exercise for the student, try this with some other assumption of the dart thrower's skill, such as $f_1(r)=frac 1 R$.
Finally examine the situation when you make no assumption, and convince yourself of the symmetry argument.
$mathsf P(D_1<D_2) = dint_0^R f(x) dint_r^R f(y)operatorname d yoperatorname d x \ mathsf P(D_1<D_3mid D_1< D_2) = frac{int_0^R f(x) left(int_r^R f(y)operatorname d yright)^2operatorname d x}{int_0^R f(x) int_r^R f(y)operatorname d yoperatorname d x}$
Yes.
The key to the question is that "skillfulness is constant" means that the three distances are independent and identically distributed. It is also almost impossible for them to be tied, since they are continuous RV.
This means that even without knowing what the distribution of distances may be, we do know that the $6$ order arrangements are equally probable.
$$boxed{boxed{D_1{<}D_2{<}D_3 ;,; D_1{<}D_3{<}D_2} ;,; D_3{<}D_1{<}D_2}\ D_2{<}D_1{<}D_3 ;,; D_2{<}D_3{<}D_1 ;,; D_3{<}D_2{<}D_1$$
Now we were asked to evaluate the probability that the third throw is placed further than the first throw, when given that the first throw is placed closer than the second. That is: $mathsf P(D_1<D_3mid D_1<D_2)$. Clearly this is: $2/3$.
If doing it the easy way isn't convincing, we shall do it the hard way:
Let $f_1(r), f_2(r), f_3(r)$ be the probability density functions of the distance from the center of the three darts, respectively, and $F_1(r), F_2(r), F_3(r)$ be their cumulative distribution functions. (These of course will be co-equal because the darts are i.i.d., but the indices are a readability guide.)
Without knowing the skill of the dart thrower we may as well assume the darts are uniformly distributed over the board (why? why not?). Then ...,
$$newcommand{dint}{{displaystyle int}}
begin{align}
f_1(r) & = dfrac{2r}{R^2} & =f_2(r)=f_3(r)
\[2ex]
F_1 (r) & = dfrac{r^2}{R^2} & =F_2(r)=F_3(r)
\[2ex]
mathsf P(D_1<D_2)
& = int_0^R f_1(r),big(1-F_2(r)big) operatorname d r
\[1ex] & = frac 2{R^4}int_0^R rR^2-r^3operatorname d r
\[1ex] & = dfrac 1 2
\[2ex]mathsf P(D_1<D_3mid D_1<D_2)
& = int_0^R f_1(r mid D_1<D_2); big(1-F_3(r)big) operatorname d r
\[1ex] ~ & = dfrac{
dint_0^R f_1(r) , big(1-F_2(r)big) , big(1-F_3(r)big) operatorname d r
}{
dint_0^R f_1(r) , big(1-F_2(r)big)operatorname d r
}
\[1ex] ~ & = dfrac{
frac{2}{R^6} dint_0^R r , (R^2-r^2)^2 operatorname d r
}{
frac 1 2
}
\[1ex] ~ & = dfrac 2 3
end{align}$$
As an exercise for the student, try this with some other assumption of the dart thrower's skill, such as $f_1(r)=frac 1 R$.
Finally examine the situation when you make no assumption, and convince yourself of the symmetry argument.
$mathsf P(D_1<D_2) = dint_0^R f(x) dint_r^R f(y)operatorname d yoperatorname d x \ mathsf P(D_1<D_3mid D_1< D_2) = frac{int_0^R f(x) left(int_r^R f(y)operatorname d yright)^2operatorname d x}{int_0^R f(x) int_r^R f(y)operatorname d yoperatorname d x}$
edited Nov 16 '15 at 0:20
answered Nov 11 '15 at 8:07
Graham Kemp
84.6k43378
84.6k43378
Your solution is indeed the book's solution; however, it seems that given the nature of the experiment, ${D_1 < D_3}$ is independent of ${D_1 < D_2}$, and hence $P(D_1 < D_3 mid D_1 < D_2) = P(D_1 < D_3) = 1 - pi D_1^2$ as I had at first. I'm having trouble viewing this problem as you have.
– bcf
Nov 15 '15 at 20:34
@bcf Why would ${D_1<D_3}$ be independent of ${D_1<D_2}$? If you know ${D_1<D_2}$ you will expect $D_1$ to be statistically closer to the center than if you knew ${D_1>D_2}$; so these conditions will undoubtedly have similar influence on the probability measure of ${D_1<D_3}$.
– Graham Kemp
Nov 15 '15 at 23:07
add a comment |
Your solution is indeed the book's solution; however, it seems that given the nature of the experiment, ${D_1 < D_3}$ is independent of ${D_1 < D_2}$, and hence $P(D_1 < D_3 mid D_1 < D_2) = P(D_1 < D_3) = 1 - pi D_1^2$ as I had at first. I'm having trouble viewing this problem as you have.
– bcf
Nov 15 '15 at 20:34
@bcf Why would ${D_1<D_3}$ be independent of ${D_1<D_2}$? If you know ${D_1<D_2}$ you will expect $D_1$ to be statistically closer to the center than if you knew ${D_1>D_2}$; so these conditions will undoubtedly have similar influence on the probability measure of ${D_1<D_3}$.
– Graham Kemp
Nov 15 '15 at 23:07
Your solution is indeed the book's solution; however, it seems that given the nature of the experiment, ${D_1 < D_3}$ is independent of ${D_1 < D_2}$, and hence $P(D_1 < D_3 mid D_1 < D_2) = P(D_1 < D_3) = 1 - pi D_1^2$ as I had at first. I'm having trouble viewing this problem as you have.
– bcf
Nov 15 '15 at 20:34
Your solution is indeed the book's solution; however, it seems that given the nature of the experiment, ${D_1 < D_3}$ is independent of ${D_1 < D_2}$, and hence $P(D_1 < D_3 mid D_1 < D_2) = P(D_1 < D_3) = 1 - pi D_1^2$ as I had at first. I'm having trouble viewing this problem as you have.
– bcf
Nov 15 '15 at 20:34
@bcf Why would ${D_1<D_3}$ be independent of ${D_1<D_2}$? If you know ${D_1<D_2}$ you will expect $D_1$ to be statistically closer to the center than if you knew ${D_1>D_2}$; so these conditions will undoubtedly have similar influence on the probability measure of ${D_1<D_3}$.
– Graham Kemp
Nov 15 '15 at 23:07
@bcf Why would ${D_1<D_3}$ be independent of ${D_1<D_2}$? If you know ${D_1<D_2}$ you will expect $D_1$ to be statistically closer to the center than if you knew ${D_1>D_2}$; so these conditions will undoubtedly have similar influence on the probability measure of ${D_1<D_3}$.
– Graham Kemp
Nov 15 '15 at 23:07
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
...it seems like this question can only be answered in terms of the distance from the center of the first toss.
Why? I think you have almost all the information to answer it. I say almost because you have to interpret the "Jason's skillfulness is constant" phrase.
I try to answer it by using simple probabilistic arguments and notation.
Translate Question in Mathematical Terms
First we need to translate the question in probabilistic terms by writing (I use your notation for $D_i$):
$Prob(D_3 > D_1 | D_2 > D_1) = ?$
Interpretation of "Jason's skillfulness is constant"
The fact that "Jason's skillfulness is constant" can be interpreted in different ways. Does it mean he's a "normal"/average player (e.g., his probability distribution is a 2D normal pdf centered in the dartboard center) or a "skillful" professional player (e.g., his probability distribution has an higher kurtosis than the normal pdf) or is he a monkey throwing darts on the wall without much aim in doing so?
We don't know it and we don't care, we simply interpret this as the fact that the distances $D_i$ of Jason's darts from the center constitute a sequence of random variables i.i.d. (independent and identically distributed), whatever that distribution is (normal pdf, leptokurtic, "monkey" pdf, etc.).
Answer to the question
Now that we have clarified the question and made the relevant assumptions we can answer it. As I said, I'll try to make it is simple as possible by using trivial logic/probability.
- $$begin{align}Prob(D_3 > D_1 | D_2 > D_1)&=Prob(D_3 > D_1 | D_1 text{ is the best among 2 darts})\&=1-Prob(D_3 < D_1 | D_1 text{ is the best among 2 darts})\&underbrace{=}_{text{HP: $D_i$ i.i.d.}}1-Prob(D_3 text{ is the best among 3 darts})end{align}$$
- As you can see above, I've used the i.i.d. assumption (in the last step). Now I translate the probability over $D_3$ to a more intuitive one and I use again the i.i.d. assumption:
$$Prob(D_3 text{ is the best among 3 darts}) underbrace{equiv}_{text{HP: $D_i$ i.i.d.}} Prob(text{Picking an object among 3 available})=frac{text{# favorable outcomes}}{text{# total outcomes}}=frac{1}{3}$$ - Hence the result is:
$$begin{align}Prob(D_3 > D_1 | D_2 > D_1)&=1-Prob(D_3 text{ is the best among 3 darts})\&=1-frac{1}{3}\&=frac{2}{3}end{align}$$
Extension to Generic $n$
You can extend this result to a generic number $n$ of darts, with the further (similar) assumption that $D_1$ is the best dart among $(n-1)$ darts:
- $$begin{align}&Prob(D_n > D_1 | D_2 > D_1, D_3 > D_1, dots, D_{n-1} > D_1)\&=Prob(D_n > D_1 | D_1 text{ is the best among $(n-1)$ darts})\&=1-Prob(D_n < D_1 | D_1 text{ is the best among $(n-1)$ darts})\&underbrace{=}_{text{HP: $D_i$ i.i.d.}}1-Prob(D_n text{ is the best among $n$ darts})end{align}$$
- $$Prob(D_n text{ is the best among $n$ darts}) underbrace{equiv}_{text{HP: $D_i$ i.i.d.}} Prob(text{Picking an object among $n$ available})=frac{text{# favorable outcomes}}{text{# total outcomes}}= frac{1}{n}$$
- Hence the result is:
$$begin{align}Prob(D_n > D_1 | D_2 > D_1, D_3 > D_1, dots, D_{n-1}>D_1)&=1-Prob(D_n text{ is the best among $n$ darts})\&=1-frac{1}{n}\&=frac{n-1}{n}end{align}$$
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
...it seems like this question can only be answered in terms of the distance from the center of the first toss.
Why? I think you have almost all the information to answer it. I say almost because you have to interpret the "Jason's skillfulness is constant" phrase.
I try to answer it by using simple probabilistic arguments and notation.
Translate Question in Mathematical Terms
First we need to translate the question in probabilistic terms by writing (I use your notation for $D_i$):
$Prob(D_3 > D_1 | D_2 > D_1) = ?$
Interpretation of "Jason's skillfulness is constant"
The fact that "Jason's skillfulness is constant" can be interpreted in different ways. Does it mean he's a "normal"/average player (e.g., his probability distribution is a 2D normal pdf centered in the dartboard center) or a "skillful" professional player (e.g., his probability distribution has an higher kurtosis than the normal pdf) or is he a monkey throwing darts on the wall without much aim in doing so?
We don't know it and we don't care, we simply interpret this as the fact that the distances $D_i$ of Jason's darts from the center constitute a sequence of random variables i.i.d. (independent and identically distributed), whatever that distribution is (normal pdf, leptokurtic, "monkey" pdf, etc.).
Answer to the question
Now that we have clarified the question and made the relevant assumptions we can answer it. As I said, I'll try to make it is simple as possible by using trivial logic/probability.
- $$begin{align}Prob(D_3 > D_1 | D_2 > D_1)&=Prob(D_3 > D_1 | D_1 text{ is the best among 2 darts})\&=1-Prob(D_3 < D_1 | D_1 text{ is the best among 2 darts})\&underbrace{=}_{text{HP: $D_i$ i.i.d.}}1-Prob(D_3 text{ is the best among 3 darts})end{align}$$
- As you can see above, I've used the i.i.d. assumption (in the last step). Now I translate the probability over $D_3$ to a more intuitive one and I use again the i.i.d. assumption:
$$Prob(D_3 text{ is the best among 3 darts}) underbrace{equiv}_{text{HP: $D_i$ i.i.d.}} Prob(text{Picking an object among 3 available})=frac{text{# favorable outcomes}}{text{# total outcomes}}=frac{1}{3}$$ - Hence the result is:
$$begin{align}Prob(D_3 > D_1 | D_2 > D_1)&=1-Prob(D_3 text{ is the best among 3 darts})\&=1-frac{1}{3}\&=frac{2}{3}end{align}$$
Extension to Generic $n$
You can extend this result to a generic number $n$ of darts, with the further (similar) assumption that $D_1$ is the best dart among $(n-1)$ darts:
- $$begin{align}&Prob(D_n > D_1 | D_2 > D_1, D_3 > D_1, dots, D_{n-1} > D_1)\&=Prob(D_n > D_1 | D_1 text{ is the best among $(n-1)$ darts})\&=1-Prob(D_n < D_1 | D_1 text{ is the best among $(n-1)$ darts})\&underbrace{=}_{text{HP: $D_i$ i.i.d.}}1-Prob(D_n text{ is the best among $n$ darts})end{align}$$
- $$Prob(D_n text{ is the best among $n$ darts}) underbrace{equiv}_{text{HP: $D_i$ i.i.d.}} Prob(text{Picking an object among $n$ available})=frac{text{# favorable outcomes}}{text{# total outcomes}}= frac{1}{n}$$
- Hence the result is:
$$begin{align}Prob(D_n > D_1 | D_2 > D_1, D_3 > D_1, dots, D_{n-1}>D_1)&=1-Prob(D_n text{ is the best among $n$ darts})\&=1-frac{1}{n}\&=frac{n-1}{n}end{align}$$
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
...it seems like this question can only be answered in terms of the distance from the center of the first toss.
Why? I think you have almost all the information to answer it. I say almost because you have to interpret the "Jason's skillfulness is constant" phrase.
I try to answer it by using simple probabilistic arguments and notation.
Translate Question in Mathematical Terms
First we need to translate the question in probabilistic terms by writing (I use your notation for $D_i$):
$Prob(D_3 > D_1 | D_2 > D_1) = ?$
Interpretation of "Jason's skillfulness is constant"
The fact that "Jason's skillfulness is constant" can be interpreted in different ways. Does it mean he's a "normal"/average player (e.g., his probability distribution is a 2D normal pdf centered in the dartboard center) or a "skillful" professional player (e.g., his probability distribution has an higher kurtosis than the normal pdf) or is he a monkey throwing darts on the wall without much aim in doing so?
We don't know it and we don't care, we simply interpret this as the fact that the distances $D_i$ of Jason's darts from the center constitute a sequence of random variables i.i.d. (independent and identically distributed), whatever that distribution is (normal pdf, leptokurtic, "monkey" pdf, etc.).
Answer to the question
Now that we have clarified the question and made the relevant assumptions we can answer it. As I said, I'll try to make it is simple as possible by using trivial logic/probability.
- $$begin{align}Prob(D_3 > D_1 | D_2 > D_1)&=Prob(D_3 > D_1 | D_1 text{ is the best among 2 darts})\&=1-Prob(D_3 < D_1 | D_1 text{ is the best among 2 darts})\&underbrace{=}_{text{HP: $D_i$ i.i.d.}}1-Prob(D_3 text{ is the best among 3 darts})end{align}$$
- As you can see above, I've used the i.i.d. assumption (in the last step). Now I translate the probability over $D_3$ to a more intuitive one and I use again the i.i.d. assumption:
$$Prob(D_3 text{ is the best among 3 darts}) underbrace{equiv}_{text{HP: $D_i$ i.i.d.}} Prob(text{Picking an object among 3 available})=frac{text{# favorable outcomes}}{text{# total outcomes}}=frac{1}{3}$$ - Hence the result is:
$$begin{align}Prob(D_3 > D_1 | D_2 > D_1)&=1-Prob(D_3 text{ is the best among 3 darts})\&=1-frac{1}{3}\&=frac{2}{3}end{align}$$
Extension to Generic $n$
You can extend this result to a generic number $n$ of darts, with the further (similar) assumption that $D_1$ is the best dart among $(n-1)$ darts:
- $$begin{align}&Prob(D_n > D_1 | D_2 > D_1, D_3 > D_1, dots, D_{n-1} > D_1)\&=Prob(D_n > D_1 | D_1 text{ is the best among $(n-1)$ darts})\&=1-Prob(D_n < D_1 | D_1 text{ is the best among $(n-1)$ darts})\&underbrace{=}_{text{HP: $D_i$ i.i.d.}}1-Prob(D_n text{ is the best among $n$ darts})end{align}$$
- $$Prob(D_n text{ is the best among $n$ darts}) underbrace{equiv}_{text{HP: $D_i$ i.i.d.}} Prob(text{Picking an object among $n$ available})=frac{text{# favorable outcomes}}{text{# total outcomes}}= frac{1}{n}$$
- Hence the result is:
$$begin{align}Prob(D_n > D_1 | D_2 > D_1, D_3 > D_1, dots, D_{n-1}>D_1)&=1-Prob(D_n text{ is the best among $n$ darts})\&=1-frac{1}{n}\&=frac{n-1}{n}end{align}$$
...it seems like this question can only be answered in terms of the distance from the center of the first toss.
Why? I think you have almost all the information to answer it. I say almost because you have to interpret the "Jason's skillfulness is constant" phrase.
I try to answer it by using simple probabilistic arguments and notation.
Translate Question in Mathematical Terms
First we need to translate the question in probabilistic terms by writing (I use your notation for $D_i$):
$Prob(D_3 > D_1 | D_2 > D_1) = ?$
Interpretation of "Jason's skillfulness is constant"
The fact that "Jason's skillfulness is constant" can be interpreted in different ways. Does it mean he's a "normal"/average player (e.g., his probability distribution is a 2D normal pdf centered in the dartboard center) or a "skillful" professional player (e.g., his probability distribution has an higher kurtosis than the normal pdf) or is he a monkey throwing darts on the wall without much aim in doing so?
We don't know it and we don't care, we simply interpret this as the fact that the distances $D_i$ of Jason's darts from the center constitute a sequence of random variables i.i.d. (independent and identically distributed), whatever that distribution is (normal pdf, leptokurtic, "monkey" pdf, etc.).
Answer to the question
Now that we have clarified the question and made the relevant assumptions we can answer it. As I said, I'll try to make it is simple as possible by using trivial logic/probability.
- $$begin{align}Prob(D_3 > D_1 | D_2 > D_1)&=Prob(D_3 > D_1 | D_1 text{ is the best among 2 darts})\&=1-Prob(D_3 < D_1 | D_1 text{ is the best among 2 darts})\&underbrace{=}_{text{HP: $D_i$ i.i.d.}}1-Prob(D_3 text{ is the best among 3 darts})end{align}$$
- As you can see above, I've used the i.i.d. assumption (in the last step). Now I translate the probability over $D_3$ to a more intuitive one and I use again the i.i.d. assumption:
$$Prob(D_3 text{ is the best among 3 darts}) underbrace{equiv}_{text{HP: $D_i$ i.i.d.}} Prob(text{Picking an object among 3 available})=frac{text{# favorable outcomes}}{text{# total outcomes}}=frac{1}{3}$$ - Hence the result is:
$$begin{align}Prob(D_3 > D_1 | D_2 > D_1)&=1-Prob(D_3 text{ is the best among 3 darts})\&=1-frac{1}{3}\&=frac{2}{3}end{align}$$
Extension to Generic $n$
You can extend this result to a generic number $n$ of darts, with the further (similar) assumption that $D_1$ is the best dart among $(n-1)$ darts:
- $$begin{align}&Prob(D_n > D_1 | D_2 > D_1, D_3 > D_1, dots, D_{n-1} > D_1)\&=Prob(D_n > D_1 | D_1 text{ is the best among $(n-1)$ darts})\&=1-Prob(D_n < D_1 | D_1 text{ is the best among $(n-1)$ darts})\&underbrace{=}_{text{HP: $D_i$ i.i.d.}}1-Prob(D_n text{ is the best among $n$ darts})end{align}$$
- $$Prob(D_n text{ is the best among $n$ darts}) underbrace{equiv}_{text{HP: $D_i$ i.i.d.}} Prob(text{Picking an object among $n$ available})=frac{text{# favorable outcomes}}{text{# total outcomes}}= frac{1}{n}$$
- Hence the result is:
$$begin{align}Prob(D_n > D_1 | D_2 > D_1, D_3 > D_1, dots, D_{n-1}>D_1)&=1-Prob(D_n text{ is the best among $n$ darts})\&=1-frac{1}{n}\&=frac{n-1}{n}end{align}$$
answered Oct 12 '17 at 12:34
SergeGardien
111
111
add a comment |
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The two questions are indeed equivalent. $D_3$ is further from the center than $D_1$ if and only if it is not the best of the three throws. to phrase it without the (possibly confusing) negative: "$D_3$ is nearer the center than $D_1$ if and only if it is the best of the three throws."
– lulu
Nov 11 '15 at 3:13