Two questions about electron's magnetic spin
Does electron's magnetic spin mean that we can think of it as having the two magnetic poles?
Does the spin mean that it generates magnetic field even if it is at rest?
I expect to get 'no' to both questions because we always say moving charges generate magnetic field. And I hope to see answers which will clear my confusion.
electromagnetism electrons magnetic-moment
edited Dec 2 '18 at 22:26
Emilio Pisanty
82.1k21199411
asked Dec 2 '18 at 21:45
physicsguy19
828118
add a comment |
Does electron's magnetic spin mean that we can think of it as having the two magnetic poles?
Does the spin mean that it generates magnetic field even if it is at rest?
I expect to get 'no' to both questions because we always say moving charges generate magnetic field. And I hope to see answers which will clear my confusion.
electromagnetism electrons magnetic-moment
edited Dec 2 '18 at 22:26
Emilio Pisanty
82.1k21199411
asked Dec 2 '18 at 21:45
physicsguy19
828118
1
Possible duplicate of physics.stackexchange.com/questions/9969/… but I wrote a short answer, as it seems more appropriate for the OP to learn more from. (Hopefully)
– StudyStudy
Dec 2 '18 at 22:25
1
@physicsguy19: the answer by Hans de Vries present in the link cited by StudyStudyStudy contains the answer to your question. n.2. The wavefunction of a charged particle with a non-zero spin carries a current which explains the magnetic dipole of the electron.
– GiorgioP
Dec 2 '18 at 23:03
Thank you. Actually I'm so happy to get a 'yes' for both questions 👍 I love this site.
– physicsguy19
Dec 3 '18 at 6:01
add a comment |
Does electron's magnetic spin mean that we can think of it as having the two magnetic poles?
Does the spin mean that it generates magnetic field even if it is at rest?
I expect to get 'no' to both questions because we always say moving charges generate magnetic field. And I hope to see answers which will clear my confusion.
electromagnetism electrons magnetic-moment
edited Dec 2 '18 at 22:26
Emilio Pisanty
82.1k21199411
asked Dec 2 '18 at 21:45
physicsguy19
828118
Does electron's magnetic spin mean that we can think of it as having the two magnetic poles?
Does the spin mean that it generates magnetic field even if it is at rest?
I expect to get 'no' to both questions because we always say moving charges generate magnetic field. And I hope to see answers which will clear my confusion.
electromagnetism electrons magnetic-moment
electromagnetism electrons magnetic-moment
edited Dec 2 '18 at 22:26
Emilio Pisanty
82.1k21199411
asked Dec 2 '18 at 21:45
physicsguy19
828118
edited Dec 2 '18 at 22:26
Emilio Pisanty
82.1k21199411
asked Dec 2 '18 at 21:45
physicsguy19
828118
edited Dec 2 '18 at 22:26
Emilio Pisanty
82.1k21199411
edited Dec 2 '18 at 22:26
Emilio Pisanty
82.1k21199411
edited Dec 2 '18 at 22:26
Emilio Pisanty
82.1k21199411
82.1k21199411
asked Dec 2 '18 at 21:45
physicsguy19
828118
asked Dec 2 '18 at 21:45
physicsguy19
828118
asked Dec 2 '18 at 21:45
physicsguy19
828118
828118
1
Possible duplicate of physics.stackexchange.com/questions/9969/… but I wrote a short answer, as it seems more appropriate for the OP to learn more from. (Hopefully)
– StudyStudy
Dec 2 '18 at 22:25
1
@physicsguy19: the answer by Hans de Vries present in the link cited by StudyStudyStudy contains the answer to your question. n.2. The wavefunction of a charged particle with a non-zero spin carries a current which explains the magnetic dipole of the electron.
– GiorgioP
Dec 2 '18 at 23:03
Thank you. Actually I'm so happy to get a 'yes' for both questions 👍 I love this site.
– physicsguy19
Dec 3 '18 at 6:01
add a comment |
1
Possible duplicate of physics.stackexchange.com/questions/9969/… but I wrote a short answer, as it seems more appropriate for the OP to learn more from. (Hopefully)
– StudyStudy
Dec 2 '18 at 22:25
1
@physicsguy19: the answer by Hans de Vries present in the link cited by StudyStudyStudy contains the answer to your question. n.2. The wavefunction of a charged particle with a non-zero spin carries a current which explains the magnetic dipole of the electron.
– GiorgioP
Dec 2 '18 at 23:03
Thank you. Actually I'm so happy to get a 'yes' for both questions 👍 I love this site.
– physicsguy19
Dec 3 '18 at 6:01
1
1
Possible duplicate of physics.stackexchange.com/questions/9969/… but I wrote a short answer, as it seems more appropriate for the OP to learn more from. (Hopefully)
– StudyStudy
Dec 2 '18 at 22:25
Possible duplicate of physics.stackexchange.com/questions/9969/… but I wrote a short answer, as it seems more appropriate for the OP to learn more from. (Hopefully)
– StudyStudy
Dec 2 '18 at 22:25
1
1
@physicsguy19: the answer by Hans de Vries present in the link cited by StudyStudyStudy contains the answer to your question. n.2. The wavefunction of a charged particle with a non-zero spin carries a current which explains the magnetic dipole of the electron.
– GiorgioP
Dec 2 '18 at 23:03
@physicsguy19: the answer by Hans de Vries present in the link cited by StudyStudyStudy contains the answer to your question. n.2. The wavefunction of a charged particle with a non-zero spin carries a current which explains the magnetic dipole of the electron.
– GiorgioP
Dec 2 '18 at 23:03
Thank you. Actually I'm so happy to get a 'yes' for both questions 👍 I love this site.
– physicsguy19
Dec 3 '18 at 6:01
Thank you. Actually I'm so happy to get a 'yes' for both questions 👍 I love this site.
– physicsguy19
Dec 3 '18 at 6:01
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
The electron can be seen as a small magnet with the field of a magnetic dipole of strength $2mu_B vec S$. So my answer is yes in both cases. I interpret as at rest a state in which the electron has zero momentum expectation value. Note that there is no accepted model of spin as a rotation, although spin is an angular moment to every effect.
edited Dec 2 '18 at 22:39
Emilio Pisanty
82.1k21199411
answered Dec 2 '18 at 22:33
my2cts
4,6302617
does it mean that when an electron is released (with zero speed classically) in a uniform magnetic field, it just aligns its magnetic moment with the field and does no translational motion (classically)?
– physicsguy19
Dec 3 '18 at 8:05
Yes, that is correct.
– my2cts
Dec 3 '18 at 8:22
@my2cts: which one is correct?:) sorry..
– physicsguy19
Dec 3 '18 at 8:47
1
@StudyStudy No motion or translation will occur in a uniform field.
– my2cts
Dec 3 '18 at 9:23
1
It will move as the field is nonuniform. In your original question you assumed a uniform field.
– my2cts
Dec 3 '18 at 12:59
|
show 6 more comments
Does electron's magnetic spin mean that we can think of it as having the two magnetic poles?
Yes. There are no known magnetic monopoles, see: Magnetic Monopoles
Does the spin mean that it generates magnetic field even if it is at rest?
Yes, but as regards "at rest", you should read this answer: Electron at rest
Magnetic spin isn't really a proper term, but an electron's spin is directly linked to its magnetic field, if we were to say that only moving electric charges produce magnetic fields, we would have trouble explaining how a static magnetic "works".
I would also stress that spin in this case is purely a mathematical idea, an electron does not resemble a very small rotating football in this case, its a bad choice of words made years ago.
If you read the links, you will get a better answer than this short reply.
answered Dec 2 '18 at 22:05
StudyStudy
4409
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
The electron can be seen as a small magnet with the field of a magnetic dipole of strength $2mu_B vec S$. So my answer is yes in both cases. I interpret as at rest a state in which the electron has zero momentum expectation value. Note that there is no accepted model of spin as a rotation, although spin is an angular moment to every effect.
edited Dec 2 '18 at 22:39
Emilio Pisanty
82.1k21199411
answered Dec 2 '18 at 22:33
my2cts
4,6302617
does it mean that when an electron is released (with zero speed classically) in a uniform magnetic field, it just aligns its magnetic moment with the field and does no translational motion (classically)?
– physicsguy19
Dec 3 '18 at 8:05
Yes, that is correct.
– my2cts
Dec 3 '18 at 8:22
@my2cts: which one is correct?:) sorry..
– physicsguy19
Dec 3 '18 at 8:47
1
@StudyStudy No motion or translation will occur in a uniform field.
– my2cts
Dec 3 '18 at 9:23
1
It will move as the field is nonuniform. In your original question you assumed a uniform field.
– my2cts
Dec 3 '18 at 12:59
|
show 6 more comments
The electron can be seen as a small magnet with the field of a magnetic dipole of strength $2mu_B vec S$. So my answer is yes in both cases. I interpret as at rest a state in which the electron has zero momentum expectation value. Note that there is no accepted model of spin as a rotation, although spin is an angular moment to every effect.
edited Dec 2 '18 at 22:39
Emilio Pisanty
82.1k21199411
answered Dec 2 '18 at 22:33
my2cts
4,6302617
does it mean that when an electron is released (with zero speed classically) in a uniform magnetic field, it just aligns its magnetic moment with the field and does no translational motion (classically)?
– physicsguy19
Dec 3 '18 at 8:05
Yes, that is correct.
– my2cts
Dec 3 '18 at 8:22
@my2cts: which one is correct?:) sorry..
– physicsguy19
Dec 3 '18 at 8:47
1
@StudyStudy No motion or translation will occur in a uniform field.
– my2cts
Dec 3 '18 at 9:23
1
It will move as the field is nonuniform. In your original question you assumed a uniform field.
– my2cts
Dec 3 '18 at 12:59
|
show 6 more comments
The electron can be seen as a small magnet with the field of a magnetic dipole of strength $2mu_B vec S$. So my answer is yes in both cases. I interpret as at rest a state in which the electron has zero momentum expectation value. Note that there is no accepted model of spin as a rotation, although spin is an angular moment to every effect.
edited Dec 2 '18 at 22:39
Emilio Pisanty
82.1k21199411
answered Dec 2 '18 at 22:33
my2cts
4,6302617
The electron can be seen as a small magnet with the field of a magnetic dipole of strength $2mu_B vec S$. So my answer is yes in both cases. I interpret as at rest a state in which the electron has zero momentum expectation value. Note that there is no accepted model of spin as a rotation, although spin is an angular moment to every effect.
edited Dec 2 '18 at 22:39
Emilio Pisanty
82.1k21199411
answered Dec 2 '18 at 22:33
my2cts
4,6302617
edited Dec 2 '18 at 22:39
Emilio Pisanty
82.1k21199411
edited Dec 2 '18 at 22:39
Emilio Pisanty
82.1k21199411
edited Dec 2 '18 at 22:39
Emilio Pisanty
82.1k21199411
82.1k21199411
answered Dec 2 '18 at 22:33
my2cts
4,6302617
answered Dec 2 '18 at 22:33
my2cts
4,6302617
answered Dec 2 '18 at 22:33
my2cts
4,6302617
4,6302617
does it mean that when an electron is released (with zero speed classically) in a uniform magnetic field, it just aligns its magnetic moment with the field and does no translational motion (classically)?
– physicsguy19
Dec 3 '18 at 8:05
Yes, that is correct.
– my2cts
Dec 3 '18 at 8:22
@my2cts: which one is correct?:) sorry..
– physicsguy19
Dec 3 '18 at 8:47
1
@StudyStudy No motion or translation will occur in a uniform field.
– my2cts
Dec 3 '18 at 9:23
1
It will move as the field is nonuniform. In your original question you assumed a uniform field.
– my2cts
Dec 3 '18 at 12:59
|
show 6 more comments
does it mean that when an electron is released (with zero speed classically) in a uniform magnetic field, it just aligns its magnetic moment with the field and does no translational motion (classically)?
– physicsguy19
Dec 3 '18 at 8:05
Yes, that is correct.
– my2cts
Dec 3 '18 at 8:22
@my2cts: which one is correct?:) sorry..
– physicsguy19
Dec 3 '18 at 8:47
1
@StudyStudy No motion or translation will occur in a uniform field.
– my2cts
Dec 3 '18 at 9:23
1
It will move as the field is nonuniform. In your original question you assumed a uniform field.
– my2cts
Dec 3 '18 at 12:59
does it mean that when an electron is released (with zero speed classically) in a uniform magnetic field, it just aligns its magnetic moment with the field and does no translational motion (classically)?
– physicsguy19
Dec 3 '18 at 8:05
does it mean that when an electron is released (with zero speed classically) in a uniform magnetic field, it just aligns its magnetic moment with the field and does no translational motion (classically)?
– physicsguy19
Dec 3 '18 at 8:05
Yes, that is correct.
– my2cts
Dec 3 '18 at 8:22
Yes, that is correct.
– my2cts
Dec 3 '18 at 8:22
@my2cts: which one is correct?:) sorry..
– physicsguy19
Dec 3 '18 at 8:47
@my2cts: which one is correct?:) sorry..
– physicsguy19
Dec 3 '18 at 8:47
1
1
@StudyStudy No motion or translation will occur in a uniform field.
– my2cts
Dec 3 '18 at 9:23
@StudyStudy No motion or translation will occur in a uniform field.
– my2cts
Dec 3 '18 at 9:23
1
1
It will move as the field is nonuniform. In your original question you assumed a uniform field.
– my2cts
Dec 3 '18 at 12:59
It will move as the field is nonuniform. In your original question you assumed a uniform field.
– my2cts
Dec 3 '18 at 12:59
|
show 6 more comments
Does electron's magnetic spin mean that we can think of it as having the two magnetic poles?
Yes. There are no known magnetic monopoles, see: Magnetic Monopoles
Does the spin mean that it generates magnetic field even if it is at rest?
Yes, but as regards "at rest", you should read this answer: Electron at rest
Magnetic spin isn't really a proper term, but an electron's spin is directly linked to its magnetic field, if we were to say that only moving electric charges produce magnetic fields, we would have trouble explaining how a static magnetic "works".
I would also stress that spin in this case is purely a mathematical idea, an electron does not resemble a very small rotating football in this case, its a bad choice of words made years ago.
If you read the links, you will get a better answer than this short reply.
answered Dec 2 '18 at 22:05
StudyStudy
4409
add a comment |
Does electron's magnetic spin mean that we can think of it as having the two magnetic poles?
Yes. There are no known magnetic monopoles, see: Magnetic Monopoles
Does the spin mean that it generates magnetic field even if it is at rest?
Yes, but as regards "at rest", you should read this answer: Electron at rest
Magnetic spin isn't really a proper term, but an electron's spin is directly linked to its magnetic field, if we were to say that only moving electric charges produce magnetic fields, we would have trouble explaining how a static magnetic "works".
I would also stress that spin in this case is purely a mathematical idea, an electron does not resemble a very small rotating football in this case, its a bad choice of words made years ago.
If you read the links, you will get a better answer than this short reply.
answered Dec 2 '18 at 22:05
StudyStudy
4409
add a comment |
Does electron's magnetic spin mean that we can think of it as having the two magnetic poles?
Yes. There are no known magnetic monopoles, see: Magnetic Monopoles
Does the spin mean that it generates magnetic field even if it is at rest?
Yes, but as regards "at rest", you should read this answer: Electron at rest
Magnetic spin isn't really a proper term, but an electron's spin is directly linked to its magnetic field, if we were to say that only moving electric charges produce magnetic fields, we would have trouble explaining how a static magnetic "works".
I would also stress that spin in this case is purely a mathematical idea, an electron does not resemble a very small rotating football in this case, its a bad choice of words made years ago.
If you read the links, you will get a better answer than this short reply.
answered Dec 2 '18 at 22:05
StudyStudy
4409
Does electron's magnetic spin mean that we can think of it as having the two magnetic poles?
Yes. There are no known magnetic monopoles, see: Magnetic Monopoles
Does the spin mean that it generates magnetic field even if it is at rest?
Yes, but as regards "at rest", you should read this answer: Electron at rest
Magnetic spin isn't really a proper term, but an electron's spin is directly linked to its magnetic field, if we were to say that only moving electric charges produce magnetic fields, we would have trouble explaining how a static magnetic "works".
I would also stress that spin in this case is purely a mathematical idea, an electron does not resemble a very small rotating football in this case, its a bad choice of words made years ago.
If you read the links, you will get a better answer than this short reply.
answered Dec 2 '18 at 22:05
StudyStudy
4409
edited Dec 2 '18 at 22:14
answered Dec 2 '18 at 22:05
StudyStudy
4409
answered Dec 2 '18 at 22:05
StudyStudy
4409
answered Dec 2 '18 at 22:05
StudyStudy
4409
4409
add a comment |
add a comment |
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1
Possible duplicate of physics.stackexchange.com/questions/9969/… but I wrote a short answer, as it seems more appropriate for the OP to learn more from. (Hopefully)
– StudyStudy
Dec 2 '18 at 22:25
1
@physicsguy19: the answer by Hans de Vries present in the link cited by StudyStudyStudy contains the answer to your question. n.2. The wavefunction of a charged particle with a non-zero spin carries a current which explains the magnetic dipole of the electron.
– GiorgioP
Dec 2 '18 at 23:03
Thank you. Actually I'm so happy to get a 'yes' for both questions 👍 I love this site.
– physicsguy19
Dec 3 '18 at 6:01