Are these definitions of a differential form equivalent?












0














The definition from my notes says that a differential $k$-form is a section of $bigwedge^k T^*X rightarrow X$, so $omega in Omega^k(X)$ would be a map $omega : X rightarrow bigwedge^k T^*X$ satisfying the condition for a section.



John Lee's text defines a $k$-form as a section of $coprod_{p in X} bigwedge^k (T_pX) rightarrow X$. Are these two definitions equivalent? I know that the cotangent bundle $T^*X$ is defined as $$T^*X = { (p, alpha) mid p in X, alpha in T_p^*X }$$ so that $alpha$ is a map $alpha : T_pX rightarrow mathbb R$ (the tangent space in this case is a real vector space). I know that we can also write the cotangent bundle as $T^*X = coprod_{p in X} T^*_pX$. But then how are the above two definitions equivalent? Substituting what I just wrote for the cotangent bundle into $bigwedge^k T^*X$ from the first definition gives $bigwedge^k coprod_{p in X} T^*_pX = coprod_{p in X} bigwedge^k T^*_pX$ (I have assumed that the disjoint union and exterior product commute here) whereas we should have $T_pX$ in this equation rather than $T^*_pX$ according to the second definition. Could anyone please shed some light on where I am going wrong here?



On a related note, I would like to ask what a differential form evaluated at a point (denote it $omega(p) =: omega_p$) takes as its argument? I am an unsure of this because I am unsure of the above discussion. I think it would either take a coefficient times a wedge of things in $T_pX$ or $T_p^*X$, depending on where I've gone wrong above.



Edit: I suppose that $T_pX cong T_p^*X$ since in general a (finite dimensional, which we have here) vector space is isomorphic to its dual, but I'm still not sure if this solves my questions, i.e. what should I be taking as the arguments for $omega_p$, and can what I asked really be resolved as simply as writing the standard isomorphism between a vector space and its dual?



Any help is much appreciated. Many thanks.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    It would help if you gave your definition for the vector bundle $Lambda^k(T^*M)$? Typically given a vector space $V$, we have the dual space $V^*$, and the space of covectors $Lambda^kV$, which are our alternation tensors $omega:V^ktomathbb{R}$. That is, $omega$ takes in $k$-vectors $v_1,...,v_kin V$ and gives a real number. I have a feeling this is just different notation, and not different definitions.
    – Matt
    Nov 30 at 13:16












  • Thanks for your comment. Yes, as discussed in Jack Lee's answer, I was indeed going wrong with the notation.
    – mathphys
    Dec 1 at 2:18
















0














The definition from my notes says that a differential $k$-form is a section of $bigwedge^k T^*X rightarrow X$, so $omega in Omega^k(X)$ would be a map $omega : X rightarrow bigwedge^k T^*X$ satisfying the condition for a section.



John Lee's text defines a $k$-form as a section of $coprod_{p in X} bigwedge^k (T_pX) rightarrow X$. Are these two definitions equivalent? I know that the cotangent bundle $T^*X$ is defined as $$T^*X = { (p, alpha) mid p in X, alpha in T_p^*X }$$ so that $alpha$ is a map $alpha : T_pX rightarrow mathbb R$ (the tangent space in this case is a real vector space). I know that we can also write the cotangent bundle as $T^*X = coprod_{p in X} T^*_pX$. But then how are the above two definitions equivalent? Substituting what I just wrote for the cotangent bundle into $bigwedge^k T^*X$ from the first definition gives $bigwedge^k coprod_{p in X} T^*_pX = coprod_{p in X} bigwedge^k T^*_pX$ (I have assumed that the disjoint union and exterior product commute here) whereas we should have $T_pX$ in this equation rather than $T^*_pX$ according to the second definition. Could anyone please shed some light on where I am going wrong here?



On a related note, I would like to ask what a differential form evaluated at a point (denote it $omega(p) =: omega_p$) takes as its argument? I am an unsure of this because I am unsure of the above discussion. I think it would either take a coefficient times a wedge of things in $T_pX$ or $T_p^*X$, depending on where I've gone wrong above.



Edit: I suppose that $T_pX cong T_p^*X$ since in general a (finite dimensional, which we have here) vector space is isomorphic to its dual, but I'm still not sure if this solves my questions, i.e. what should I be taking as the arguments for $omega_p$, and can what I asked really be resolved as simply as writing the standard isomorphism between a vector space and its dual?



Any help is much appreciated. Many thanks.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    It would help if you gave your definition for the vector bundle $Lambda^k(T^*M)$? Typically given a vector space $V$, we have the dual space $V^*$, and the space of covectors $Lambda^kV$, which are our alternation tensors $omega:V^ktomathbb{R}$. That is, $omega$ takes in $k$-vectors $v_1,...,v_kin V$ and gives a real number. I have a feeling this is just different notation, and not different definitions.
    – Matt
    Nov 30 at 13:16












  • Thanks for your comment. Yes, as discussed in Jack Lee's answer, I was indeed going wrong with the notation.
    – mathphys
    Dec 1 at 2:18














0












0








0







The definition from my notes says that a differential $k$-form is a section of $bigwedge^k T^*X rightarrow X$, so $omega in Omega^k(X)$ would be a map $omega : X rightarrow bigwedge^k T^*X$ satisfying the condition for a section.



John Lee's text defines a $k$-form as a section of $coprod_{p in X} bigwedge^k (T_pX) rightarrow X$. Are these two definitions equivalent? I know that the cotangent bundle $T^*X$ is defined as $$T^*X = { (p, alpha) mid p in X, alpha in T_p^*X }$$ so that $alpha$ is a map $alpha : T_pX rightarrow mathbb R$ (the tangent space in this case is a real vector space). I know that we can also write the cotangent bundle as $T^*X = coprod_{p in X} T^*_pX$. But then how are the above two definitions equivalent? Substituting what I just wrote for the cotangent bundle into $bigwedge^k T^*X$ from the first definition gives $bigwedge^k coprod_{p in X} T^*_pX = coprod_{p in X} bigwedge^k T^*_pX$ (I have assumed that the disjoint union and exterior product commute here) whereas we should have $T_pX$ in this equation rather than $T^*_pX$ according to the second definition. Could anyone please shed some light on where I am going wrong here?



On a related note, I would like to ask what a differential form evaluated at a point (denote it $omega(p) =: omega_p$) takes as its argument? I am an unsure of this because I am unsure of the above discussion. I think it would either take a coefficient times a wedge of things in $T_pX$ or $T_p^*X$, depending on where I've gone wrong above.



Edit: I suppose that $T_pX cong T_p^*X$ since in general a (finite dimensional, which we have here) vector space is isomorphic to its dual, but I'm still not sure if this solves my questions, i.e. what should I be taking as the arguments for $omega_p$, and can what I asked really be resolved as simply as writing the standard isomorphism between a vector space and its dual?



Any help is much appreciated. Many thanks.










share|cite|improve this question















The definition from my notes says that a differential $k$-form is a section of $bigwedge^k T^*X rightarrow X$, so $omega in Omega^k(X)$ would be a map $omega : X rightarrow bigwedge^k T^*X$ satisfying the condition for a section.



John Lee's text defines a $k$-form as a section of $coprod_{p in X} bigwedge^k (T_pX) rightarrow X$. Are these two definitions equivalent? I know that the cotangent bundle $T^*X$ is defined as $$T^*X = { (p, alpha) mid p in X, alpha in T_p^*X }$$ so that $alpha$ is a map $alpha : T_pX rightarrow mathbb R$ (the tangent space in this case is a real vector space). I know that we can also write the cotangent bundle as $T^*X = coprod_{p in X} T^*_pX$. But then how are the above two definitions equivalent? Substituting what I just wrote for the cotangent bundle into $bigwedge^k T^*X$ from the first definition gives $bigwedge^k coprod_{p in X} T^*_pX = coprod_{p in X} bigwedge^k T^*_pX$ (I have assumed that the disjoint union and exterior product commute here) whereas we should have $T_pX$ in this equation rather than $T^*_pX$ according to the second definition. Could anyone please shed some light on where I am going wrong here?



On a related note, I would like to ask what a differential form evaluated at a point (denote it $omega(p) =: omega_p$) takes as its argument? I am an unsure of this because I am unsure of the above discussion. I think it would either take a coefficient times a wedge of things in $T_pX$ or $T_p^*X$, depending on where I've gone wrong above.



Edit: I suppose that $T_pX cong T_p^*X$ since in general a (finite dimensional, which we have here) vector space is isomorphic to its dual, but I'm still not sure if this solves my questions, i.e. what should I be taking as the arguments for $omega_p$, and can what I asked really be resolved as simply as writing the standard isomorphism between a vector space and its dual?



Any help is much appreciated. Many thanks.







differential-geometry manifolds smooth-manifolds differential-forms tangent-bundle






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 28 at 21:07

























asked Nov 28 at 20:55









mathphys

965516




965516








  • 1




    It would help if you gave your definition for the vector bundle $Lambda^k(T^*M)$? Typically given a vector space $V$, we have the dual space $V^*$, and the space of covectors $Lambda^kV$, which are our alternation tensors $omega:V^ktomathbb{R}$. That is, $omega$ takes in $k$-vectors $v_1,...,v_kin V$ and gives a real number. I have a feeling this is just different notation, and not different definitions.
    – Matt
    Nov 30 at 13:16












  • Thanks for your comment. Yes, as discussed in Jack Lee's answer, I was indeed going wrong with the notation.
    – mathphys
    Dec 1 at 2:18














  • 1




    It would help if you gave your definition for the vector bundle $Lambda^k(T^*M)$? Typically given a vector space $V$, we have the dual space $V^*$, and the space of covectors $Lambda^kV$, which are our alternation tensors $omega:V^ktomathbb{R}$. That is, $omega$ takes in $k$-vectors $v_1,...,v_kin V$ and gives a real number. I have a feeling this is just different notation, and not different definitions.
    – Matt
    Nov 30 at 13:16












  • Thanks for your comment. Yes, as discussed in Jack Lee's answer, I was indeed going wrong with the notation.
    – mathphys
    Dec 1 at 2:18








1




1




It would help if you gave your definition for the vector bundle $Lambda^k(T^*M)$? Typically given a vector space $V$, we have the dual space $V^*$, and the space of covectors $Lambda^kV$, which are our alternation tensors $omega:V^ktomathbb{R}$. That is, $omega$ takes in $k$-vectors $v_1,...,v_kin V$ and gives a real number. I have a feeling this is just different notation, and not different definitions.
– Matt
Nov 30 at 13:16






It would help if you gave your definition for the vector bundle $Lambda^k(T^*M)$? Typically given a vector space $V$, we have the dual space $V^*$, and the space of covectors $Lambda^kV$, which are our alternation tensors $omega:V^ktomathbb{R}$. That is, $omega$ takes in $k$-vectors $v_1,...,v_kin V$ and gives a real number. I have a feeling this is just different notation, and not different definitions.
– Matt
Nov 30 at 13:16














Thanks for your comment. Yes, as discussed in Jack Lee's answer, I was indeed going wrong with the notation.
– mathphys
Dec 1 at 2:18




Thanks for your comment. Yes, as discussed in Jack Lee's answer, I was indeed going wrong with the notation.
– mathphys
Dec 1 at 2:18










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1














It's just a question of notation. You didn't say which of my books you're looking at, but I gather it's either Riemannian Manifolds or the first edition of Introduction to Smooth Manifolds. I originally learned most of my differential geometry from Spivak, who uses the notations $mathcal T^k(V)$ and $Omega^k(V)$ for the spaces of covariant $k$-tensors and alternating $k$-tensors on a vector space $V$, and correspondingly $mathcal T^k(TX)$ and $Omega^k(TX)$ for the bundles of $k$-tensors and $k$-forms on a manifold. When I wrote those books, I decided to change the notations a bit, to $T^k(V)$ and $Lambda^k(V)$, but I kept Spivak's convention of using the notation $V$ to reflect the fact that covariant tensors are functions on $V$.



After those books were published, I realized that Spivak was an outlier in this notation, and almost everyone else in the world uses something like $T^k(V^*)$ and $Lambda^k(V^*)$ for the spaces of covariant $k$-tensors and alternating $k$-tensors on $V$, with analogous notations for tensors and forms on a manifold. (The reason for this is that $T^k(V)$ is naturally isomorphic to $V^*otimes cdots otimes V^*$, the $k$-th tensor product of $V^*$ with itself.) So in the second edition of ISM (and the second edition of Riemannian Manifolds, which should appear sometime in January or February), I've switched to the more common notations.



The upshot is that the definition of $Lambda^k(T_pX)$ in my older books is exactly the same as the definition of $Lambda^k(T_p^*X)$ in my newer ones and in your notes: It's the space of real-valued alternating multilinear functions on $T_pX$.



While it's true that $T_pX$ and $T_p^*X$ are isomorphic vector spaces (simply because they have the same dimension), there is no "standard isomorphism" between them. So it definitely makes a difference that we think of differential forms as multilinear functions on the tangent space, not on its dual.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you very much for your answer - I understand where I was going wrong now. The book I have is indeed the first edition of Introduction to Smooth Manifolds. Let me take this opportunity to say that it’s a great book which I've found very useful – thank you for writing it!
    – mathphys
    Dec 1 at 2:19












  • @mathphys — you’re welcome! If you get a chance, take a look at the 2nd edition — it’s much better!
    – Jack Lee
    Dec 1 at 2:28











Your Answer





StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
});
});
}, "mathjax-editing");

StackExchange.ready(function() {
var channelOptions = {
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "69"
};
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
createEditor();
});
}
else {
createEditor();
}
});

function createEditor() {
StackExchange.prepareEditor({
heartbeatType: 'answer',
autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
convertImagesToLinks: true,
noModals: true,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: 10,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
imageUploader: {
brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
allowUrls: true
},
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
});


}
});














draft saved

draft discarded


















StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3017698%2fare-these-definitions-of-a-differential-form-equivalent%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);

Post as a guest















Required, but never shown

























1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1














It's just a question of notation. You didn't say which of my books you're looking at, but I gather it's either Riemannian Manifolds or the first edition of Introduction to Smooth Manifolds. I originally learned most of my differential geometry from Spivak, who uses the notations $mathcal T^k(V)$ and $Omega^k(V)$ for the spaces of covariant $k$-tensors and alternating $k$-tensors on a vector space $V$, and correspondingly $mathcal T^k(TX)$ and $Omega^k(TX)$ for the bundles of $k$-tensors and $k$-forms on a manifold. When I wrote those books, I decided to change the notations a bit, to $T^k(V)$ and $Lambda^k(V)$, but I kept Spivak's convention of using the notation $V$ to reflect the fact that covariant tensors are functions on $V$.



After those books were published, I realized that Spivak was an outlier in this notation, and almost everyone else in the world uses something like $T^k(V^*)$ and $Lambda^k(V^*)$ for the spaces of covariant $k$-tensors and alternating $k$-tensors on $V$, with analogous notations for tensors and forms on a manifold. (The reason for this is that $T^k(V)$ is naturally isomorphic to $V^*otimes cdots otimes V^*$, the $k$-th tensor product of $V^*$ with itself.) So in the second edition of ISM (and the second edition of Riemannian Manifolds, which should appear sometime in January or February), I've switched to the more common notations.



The upshot is that the definition of $Lambda^k(T_pX)$ in my older books is exactly the same as the definition of $Lambda^k(T_p^*X)$ in my newer ones and in your notes: It's the space of real-valued alternating multilinear functions on $T_pX$.



While it's true that $T_pX$ and $T_p^*X$ are isomorphic vector spaces (simply because they have the same dimension), there is no "standard isomorphism" between them. So it definitely makes a difference that we think of differential forms as multilinear functions on the tangent space, not on its dual.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you very much for your answer - I understand where I was going wrong now. The book I have is indeed the first edition of Introduction to Smooth Manifolds. Let me take this opportunity to say that it’s a great book which I've found very useful – thank you for writing it!
    – mathphys
    Dec 1 at 2:19












  • @mathphys — you’re welcome! If you get a chance, take a look at the 2nd edition — it’s much better!
    – Jack Lee
    Dec 1 at 2:28
















1














It's just a question of notation. You didn't say which of my books you're looking at, but I gather it's either Riemannian Manifolds or the first edition of Introduction to Smooth Manifolds. I originally learned most of my differential geometry from Spivak, who uses the notations $mathcal T^k(V)$ and $Omega^k(V)$ for the spaces of covariant $k$-tensors and alternating $k$-tensors on a vector space $V$, and correspondingly $mathcal T^k(TX)$ and $Omega^k(TX)$ for the bundles of $k$-tensors and $k$-forms on a manifold. When I wrote those books, I decided to change the notations a bit, to $T^k(V)$ and $Lambda^k(V)$, but I kept Spivak's convention of using the notation $V$ to reflect the fact that covariant tensors are functions on $V$.



After those books were published, I realized that Spivak was an outlier in this notation, and almost everyone else in the world uses something like $T^k(V^*)$ and $Lambda^k(V^*)$ for the spaces of covariant $k$-tensors and alternating $k$-tensors on $V$, with analogous notations for tensors and forms on a manifold. (The reason for this is that $T^k(V)$ is naturally isomorphic to $V^*otimes cdots otimes V^*$, the $k$-th tensor product of $V^*$ with itself.) So in the second edition of ISM (and the second edition of Riemannian Manifolds, which should appear sometime in January or February), I've switched to the more common notations.



The upshot is that the definition of $Lambda^k(T_pX)$ in my older books is exactly the same as the definition of $Lambda^k(T_p^*X)$ in my newer ones and in your notes: It's the space of real-valued alternating multilinear functions on $T_pX$.



While it's true that $T_pX$ and $T_p^*X$ are isomorphic vector spaces (simply because they have the same dimension), there is no "standard isomorphism" between them. So it definitely makes a difference that we think of differential forms as multilinear functions on the tangent space, not on its dual.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thank you very much for your answer - I understand where I was going wrong now. The book I have is indeed the first edition of Introduction to Smooth Manifolds. Let me take this opportunity to say that it’s a great book which I've found very useful – thank you for writing it!
    – mathphys
    Dec 1 at 2:19












  • @mathphys — you’re welcome! If you get a chance, take a look at the 2nd edition — it’s much better!
    – Jack Lee
    Dec 1 at 2:28














1












1








1






It's just a question of notation. You didn't say which of my books you're looking at, but I gather it's either Riemannian Manifolds or the first edition of Introduction to Smooth Manifolds. I originally learned most of my differential geometry from Spivak, who uses the notations $mathcal T^k(V)$ and $Omega^k(V)$ for the spaces of covariant $k$-tensors and alternating $k$-tensors on a vector space $V$, and correspondingly $mathcal T^k(TX)$ and $Omega^k(TX)$ for the bundles of $k$-tensors and $k$-forms on a manifold. When I wrote those books, I decided to change the notations a bit, to $T^k(V)$ and $Lambda^k(V)$, but I kept Spivak's convention of using the notation $V$ to reflect the fact that covariant tensors are functions on $V$.



After those books were published, I realized that Spivak was an outlier in this notation, and almost everyone else in the world uses something like $T^k(V^*)$ and $Lambda^k(V^*)$ for the spaces of covariant $k$-tensors and alternating $k$-tensors on $V$, with analogous notations for tensors and forms on a manifold. (The reason for this is that $T^k(V)$ is naturally isomorphic to $V^*otimes cdots otimes V^*$, the $k$-th tensor product of $V^*$ with itself.) So in the second edition of ISM (and the second edition of Riemannian Manifolds, which should appear sometime in January or February), I've switched to the more common notations.



The upshot is that the definition of $Lambda^k(T_pX)$ in my older books is exactly the same as the definition of $Lambda^k(T_p^*X)$ in my newer ones and in your notes: It's the space of real-valued alternating multilinear functions on $T_pX$.



While it's true that $T_pX$ and $T_p^*X$ are isomorphic vector spaces (simply because they have the same dimension), there is no "standard isomorphism" between them. So it definitely makes a difference that we think of differential forms as multilinear functions on the tangent space, not on its dual.






share|cite|improve this answer












It's just a question of notation. You didn't say which of my books you're looking at, but I gather it's either Riemannian Manifolds or the first edition of Introduction to Smooth Manifolds. I originally learned most of my differential geometry from Spivak, who uses the notations $mathcal T^k(V)$ and $Omega^k(V)$ for the spaces of covariant $k$-tensors and alternating $k$-tensors on a vector space $V$, and correspondingly $mathcal T^k(TX)$ and $Omega^k(TX)$ for the bundles of $k$-tensors and $k$-forms on a manifold. When I wrote those books, I decided to change the notations a bit, to $T^k(V)$ and $Lambda^k(V)$, but I kept Spivak's convention of using the notation $V$ to reflect the fact that covariant tensors are functions on $V$.



After those books were published, I realized that Spivak was an outlier in this notation, and almost everyone else in the world uses something like $T^k(V^*)$ and $Lambda^k(V^*)$ for the spaces of covariant $k$-tensors and alternating $k$-tensors on $V$, with analogous notations for tensors and forms on a manifold. (The reason for this is that $T^k(V)$ is naturally isomorphic to $V^*otimes cdots otimes V^*$, the $k$-th tensor product of $V^*$ with itself.) So in the second edition of ISM (and the second edition of Riemannian Manifolds, which should appear sometime in January or February), I've switched to the more common notations.



The upshot is that the definition of $Lambda^k(T_pX)$ in my older books is exactly the same as the definition of $Lambda^k(T_p^*X)$ in my newer ones and in your notes: It's the space of real-valued alternating multilinear functions on $T_pX$.



While it's true that $T_pX$ and $T_p^*X$ are isomorphic vector spaces (simply because they have the same dimension), there is no "standard isomorphism" between them. So it definitely makes a difference that we think of differential forms as multilinear functions on the tangent space, not on its dual.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Nov 30 at 15:40









Jack Lee

26.8k54565




26.8k54565












  • Thank you very much for your answer - I understand where I was going wrong now. The book I have is indeed the first edition of Introduction to Smooth Manifolds. Let me take this opportunity to say that it’s a great book which I've found very useful – thank you for writing it!
    – mathphys
    Dec 1 at 2:19












  • @mathphys — you’re welcome! If you get a chance, take a look at the 2nd edition — it’s much better!
    – Jack Lee
    Dec 1 at 2:28


















  • Thank you very much for your answer - I understand where I was going wrong now. The book I have is indeed the first edition of Introduction to Smooth Manifolds. Let me take this opportunity to say that it’s a great book which I've found very useful – thank you for writing it!
    – mathphys
    Dec 1 at 2:19












  • @mathphys — you’re welcome! If you get a chance, take a look at the 2nd edition — it’s much better!
    – Jack Lee
    Dec 1 at 2:28
















Thank you very much for your answer - I understand where I was going wrong now. The book I have is indeed the first edition of Introduction to Smooth Manifolds. Let me take this opportunity to say that it’s a great book which I've found very useful – thank you for writing it!
– mathphys
Dec 1 at 2:19






Thank you very much for your answer - I understand where I was going wrong now. The book I have is indeed the first edition of Introduction to Smooth Manifolds. Let me take this opportunity to say that it’s a great book which I've found very useful – thank you for writing it!
– mathphys
Dec 1 at 2:19














@mathphys — you’re welcome! If you get a chance, take a look at the 2nd edition — it’s much better!
– Jack Lee
Dec 1 at 2:28




@mathphys — you’re welcome! If you get a chance, take a look at the 2nd edition — it’s much better!
– Jack Lee
Dec 1 at 2:28


















draft saved

draft discarded




















































Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


  • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

But avoid



  • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

  • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.





Some of your past answers have not been well-received, and you're in danger of being blocked from answering.


Please pay close attention to the following guidance:


  • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

But avoid



  • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

  • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




draft saved


draft discarded














StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3017698%2fare-these-definitions-of-a-differential-form-equivalent%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);

Post as a guest















Required, but never shown





















































Required, but never shown














Required, but never shown












Required, but never shown







Required, but never shown

































Required, but never shown














Required, but never shown












Required, but never shown







Required, but never shown







Popular posts from this blog

Wiesbaden

Marschland

Dieringhausen