Proof: $U$ is an ultrafilter of a Boolean algebra $B$ if and only if for all $x$ in $U$ exactly one of...












1












$begingroup$


I have been stuck with this problem for a while now. I have a proof that letting $U$ be an ultrafilter, exactly one of $x,x^*$ belongs to $U$ for all $x$ in $B$, I did this by showing that both belong to $U$ implies that $U=B$ which cannot be the case, and if neither long to $U$ then a contradiction can be derived by de-Morgan's laws. However, I'm stuck with the reverse implication, I need to prove that:



"If $U$ is a subset of a Boolean algebra $B$ such that $forall x in B$, exactly one of $x in U$ and $x^* in U$ is true, U is an ultrafilter.".



Is this even the case? Any help would be greatly appreciated, thanks in advance.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What do you denote by $x^*$? $neg x$?
    $endgroup$
    – mathcounterexamples.net
    Jan 3 at 20:45












  • $begingroup$
    Indeed, my mistake.
    $endgroup$
    – Marmoset
    Jan 3 at 21:50










  • $begingroup$
    For a given ultrafilter $usubset B$, define the set $u^ast = { 1-a: a in u}$ and consider the two questions: "Does this set meet the required hypothesis?" and "Is u^ast a filter?"
    $endgroup$
    – Not Mike
    Jan 3 at 22:07








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In general, such a subst will not even be a filter ...
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Jan 3 at 23:35
















1












$begingroup$


I have been stuck with this problem for a while now. I have a proof that letting $U$ be an ultrafilter, exactly one of $x,x^*$ belongs to $U$ for all $x$ in $B$, I did this by showing that both belong to $U$ implies that $U=B$ which cannot be the case, and if neither long to $U$ then a contradiction can be derived by de-Morgan's laws. However, I'm stuck with the reverse implication, I need to prove that:



"If $U$ is a subset of a Boolean algebra $B$ such that $forall x in B$, exactly one of $x in U$ and $x^* in U$ is true, U is an ultrafilter.".



Is this even the case? Any help would be greatly appreciated, thanks in advance.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What do you denote by $x^*$? $neg x$?
    $endgroup$
    – mathcounterexamples.net
    Jan 3 at 20:45












  • $begingroup$
    Indeed, my mistake.
    $endgroup$
    – Marmoset
    Jan 3 at 21:50










  • $begingroup$
    For a given ultrafilter $usubset B$, define the set $u^ast = { 1-a: a in u}$ and consider the two questions: "Does this set meet the required hypothesis?" and "Is u^ast a filter?"
    $endgroup$
    – Not Mike
    Jan 3 at 22:07








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In general, such a subst will not even be a filter ...
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Jan 3 at 23:35














1












1








1





$begingroup$


I have been stuck with this problem for a while now. I have a proof that letting $U$ be an ultrafilter, exactly one of $x,x^*$ belongs to $U$ for all $x$ in $B$, I did this by showing that both belong to $U$ implies that $U=B$ which cannot be the case, and if neither long to $U$ then a contradiction can be derived by de-Morgan's laws. However, I'm stuck with the reverse implication, I need to prove that:



"If $U$ is a subset of a Boolean algebra $B$ such that $forall x in B$, exactly one of $x in U$ and $x^* in U$ is true, U is an ultrafilter.".



Is this even the case? Any help would be greatly appreciated, thanks in advance.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I have been stuck with this problem for a while now. I have a proof that letting $U$ be an ultrafilter, exactly one of $x,x^*$ belongs to $U$ for all $x$ in $B$, I did this by showing that both belong to $U$ implies that $U=B$ which cannot be the case, and if neither long to $U$ then a contradiction can be derived by de-Morgan's laws. However, I'm stuck with the reverse implication, I need to prove that:



"If $U$ is a subset of a Boolean algebra $B$ such that $forall x in B$, exactly one of $x in U$ and $x^* in U$ is true, U is an ultrafilter.".



Is this even the case? Any help would be greatly appreciated, thanks in advance.







elementary-set-theory boolean-algebra filters






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share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 4 at 17:54









Andrés E. Caicedo

65.8k8160252




65.8k8160252










asked Jan 3 at 20:34









MarmosetMarmoset

506




506












  • $begingroup$
    What do you denote by $x^*$? $neg x$?
    $endgroup$
    – mathcounterexamples.net
    Jan 3 at 20:45












  • $begingroup$
    Indeed, my mistake.
    $endgroup$
    – Marmoset
    Jan 3 at 21:50










  • $begingroup$
    For a given ultrafilter $usubset B$, define the set $u^ast = { 1-a: a in u}$ and consider the two questions: "Does this set meet the required hypothesis?" and "Is u^ast a filter?"
    $endgroup$
    – Not Mike
    Jan 3 at 22:07








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In general, such a subst will not even be a filter ...
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Jan 3 at 23:35


















  • $begingroup$
    What do you denote by $x^*$? $neg x$?
    $endgroup$
    – mathcounterexamples.net
    Jan 3 at 20:45












  • $begingroup$
    Indeed, my mistake.
    $endgroup$
    – Marmoset
    Jan 3 at 21:50










  • $begingroup$
    For a given ultrafilter $usubset B$, define the set $u^ast = { 1-a: a in u}$ and consider the two questions: "Does this set meet the required hypothesis?" and "Is u^ast a filter?"
    $endgroup$
    – Not Mike
    Jan 3 at 22:07








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In general, such a subst will not even be a filter ...
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Jan 3 at 23:35
















$begingroup$
What do you denote by $x^*$? $neg x$?
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 3 at 20:45






$begingroup$
What do you denote by $x^*$? $neg x$?
$endgroup$
– mathcounterexamples.net
Jan 3 at 20:45














$begingroup$
Indeed, my mistake.
$endgroup$
– Marmoset
Jan 3 at 21:50




$begingroup$
Indeed, my mistake.
$endgroup$
– Marmoset
Jan 3 at 21:50












$begingroup$
For a given ultrafilter $usubset B$, define the set $u^ast = { 1-a: a in u}$ and consider the two questions: "Does this set meet the required hypothesis?" and "Is u^ast a filter?"
$endgroup$
– Not Mike
Jan 3 at 22:07






$begingroup$
For a given ultrafilter $usubset B$, define the set $u^ast = { 1-a: a in u}$ and consider the two questions: "Does this set meet the required hypothesis?" and "Is u^ast a filter?"
$endgroup$
– Not Mike
Jan 3 at 22:07






1




1




$begingroup$
In general, such a subst will not even be a filter ...
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Jan 3 at 23:35




$begingroup$
In general, such a subst will not even be a filter ...
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Jan 3 at 23:35










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

A correct statement would be




If $Usubseteq B$ is a filter and for all $xin B$ exactly one of $xin U$ or $x^*in U$ is true, then $U$ is an ultrafilter.




The converse holds as well, and this is sometimes taken as the definition of an ultrafilter. I presume the one you've been given is that an ultrafilter is a maximal (proper) filter.



To see that the statement holds, note first that the fact that both $x$ and $x^*$ aren't in $U$ implies $U$ is a proper filter. Assume that $F$ is a filter extending $U$ and let $xin Fsetminus U.$ Then $x^*in U,$ so $x^*in F$ and since both $x$ and $x^*$ are in $F,$ $F$ is improper.



Without the provision that $U$ is a filter, the statement becomes very badly false. Just randomly choose elements of a Boolean algebra, randomly label with zero or one (indicators as to whether the element is inside or outside $U$), and assign the complement the opposite label. Odds are you hit a counterexample. (To guarantee you do so, just make sure you start out labeling the $0$ element with a one and the $1$ element with a zero).






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Although it's easy to get counterexamples, it's not quite as easy as you made it sound. You need to arrange for each complementary pair $x$ and $neg x$ to get opposite values. So randomly pick one element from each complementary pair, label the chosen elements $1$ and the unchosen ones $0$. As you said, you have a good chance of getting a counterexample, and you can guarantee a counterexample by choosing $0$ from the pair ${0,1}$. (Also, if you have bad luck and get an ultrafilter, just take its complement to get a counterexample.)
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    Jan 4 at 3:25










  • $begingroup$
    @AndreasBlass Yes, I put that incorrectly, thank you for the correction!
    $endgroup$
    – spaceisdarkgreen
    Jan 4 at 3:29










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much! This was very helpful
    $endgroup$
    – Marmoset
    Jan 4 at 15:02












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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

oldest

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active

oldest

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1












$begingroup$

A correct statement would be




If $Usubseteq B$ is a filter and for all $xin B$ exactly one of $xin U$ or $x^*in U$ is true, then $U$ is an ultrafilter.




The converse holds as well, and this is sometimes taken as the definition of an ultrafilter. I presume the one you've been given is that an ultrafilter is a maximal (proper) filter.



To see that the statement holds, note first that the fact that both $x$ and $x^*$ aren't in $U$ implies $U$ is a proper filter. Assume that $F$ is a filter extending $U$ and let $xin Fsetminus U.$ Then $x^*in U,$ so $x^*in F$ and since both $x$ and $x^*$ are in $F,$ $F$ is improper.



Without the provision that $U$ is a filter, the statement becomes very badly false. Just randomly choose elements of a Boolean algebra, randomly label with zero or one (indicators as to whether the element is inside or outside $U$), and assign the complement the opposite label. Odds are you hit a counterexample. (To guarantee you do so, just make sure you start out labeling the $0$ element with a one and the $1$ element with a zero).






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Although it's easy to get counterexamples, it's not quite as easy as you made it sound. You need to arrange for each complementary pair $x$ and $neg x$ to get opposite values. So randomly pick one element from each complementary pair, label the chosen elements $1$ and the unchosen ones $0$. As you said, you have a good chance of getting a counterexample, and you can guarantee a counterexample by choosing $0$ from the pair ${0,1}$. (Also, if you have bad luck and get an ultrafilter, just take its complement to get a counterexample.)
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    Jan 4 at 3:25










  • $begingroup$
    @AndreasBlass Yes, I put that incorrectly, thank you for the correction!
    $endgroup$
    – spaceisdarkgreen
    Jan 4 at 3:29










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much! This was very helpful
    $endgroup$
    – Marmoset
    Jan 4 at 15:02
















1












$begingroup$

A correct statement would be




If $Usubseteq B$ is a filter and for all $xin B$ exactly one of $xin U$ or $x^*in U$ is true, then $U$ is an ultrafilter.




The converse holds as well, and this is sometimes taken as the definition of an ultrafilter. I presume the one you've been given is that an ultrafilter is a maximal (proper) filter.



To see that the statement holds, note first that the fact that both $x$ and $x^*$ aren't in $U$ implies $U$ is a proper filter. Assume that $F$ is a filter extending $U$ and let $xin Fsetminus U.$ Then $x^*in U,$ so $x^*in F$ and since both $x$ and $x^*$ are in $F,$ $F$ is improper.



Without the provision that $U$ is a filter, the statement becomes very badly false. Just randomly choose elements of a Boolean algebra, randomly label with zero or one (indicators as to whether the element is inside or outside $U$), and assign the complement the opposite label. Odds are you hit a counterexample. (To guarantee you do so, just make sure you start out labeling the $0$ element with a one and the $1$ element with a zero).






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$









  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Although it's easy to get counterexamples, it's not quite as easy as you made it sound. You need to arrange for each complementary pair $x$ and $neg x$ to get opposite values. So randomly pick one element from each complementary pair, label the chosen elements $1$ and the unchosen ones $0$. As you said, you have a good chance of getting a counterexample, and you can guarantee a counterexample by choosing $0$ from the pair ${0,1}$. (Also, if you have bad luck and get an ultrafilter, just take its complement to get a counterexample.)
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    Jan 4 at 3:25










  • $begingroup$
    @AndreasBlass Yes, I put that incorrectly, thank you for the correction!
    $endgroup$
    – spaceisdarkgreen
    Jan 4 at 3:29










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much! This was very helpful
    $endgroup$
    – Marmoset
    Jan 4 at 15:02














1












1








1





$begingroup$

A correct statement would be




If $Usubseteq B$ is a filter and for all $xin B$ exactly one of $xin U$ or $x^*in U$ is true, then $U$ is an ultrafilter.




The converse holds as well, and this is sometimes taken as the definition of an ultrafilter. I presume the one you've been given is that an ultrafilter is a maximal (proper) filter.



To see that the statement holds, note first that the fact that both $x$ and $x^*$ aren't in $U$ implies $U$ is a proper filter. Assume that $F$ is a filter extending $U$ and let $xin Fsetminus U.$ Then $x^*in U,$ so $x^*in F$ and since both $x$ and $x^*$ are in $F,$ $F$ is improper.



Without the provision that $U$ is a filter, the statement becomes very badly false. Just randomly choose elements of a Boolean algebra, randomly label with zero or one (indicators as to whether the element is inside or outside $U$), and assign the complement the opposite label. Odds are you hit a counterexample. (To guarantee you do so, just make sure you start out labeling the $0$ element with a one and the $1$ element with a zero).






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



A correct statement would be




If $Usubseteq B$ is a filter and for all $xin B$ exactly one of $xin U$ or $x^*in U$ is true, then $U$ is an ultrafilter.




The converse holds as well, and this is sometimes taken as the definition of an ultrafilter. I presume the one you've been given is that an ultrafilter is a maximal (proper) filter.



To see that the statement holds, note first that the fact that both $x$ and $x^*$ aren't in $U$ implies $U$ is a proper filter. Assume that $F$ is a filter extending $U$ and let $xin Fsetminus U.$ Then $x^*in U,$ so $x^*in F$ and since both $x$ and $x^*$ are in $F,$ $F$ is improper.



Without the provision that $U$ is a filter, the statement becomes very badly false. Just randomly choose elements of a Boolean algebra, randomly label with zero or one (indicators as to whether the element is inside or outside $U$), and assign the complement the opposite label. Odds are you hit a counterexample. (To guarantee you do so, just make sure you start out labeling the $0$ element with a one and the $1$ element with a zero).







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jan 4 at 3:34

























answered Jan 4 at 1:03









spaceisdarkgreenspaceisdarkgreen

33.8k21753




33.8k21753








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Although it's easy to get counterexamples, it's not quite as easy as you made it sound. You need to arrange for each complementary pair $x$ and $neg x$ to get opposite values. So randomly pick one element from each complementary pair, label the chosen elements $1$ and the unchosen ones $0$. As you said, you have a good chance of getting a counterexample, and you can guarantee a counterexample by choosing $0$ from the pair ${0,1}$. (Also, if you have bad luck and get an ultrafilter, just take its complement to get a counterexample.)
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    Jan 4 at 3:25










  • $begingroup$
    @AndreasBlass Yes, I put that incorrectly, thank you for the correction!
    $endgroup$
    – spaceisdarkgreen
    Jan 4 at 3:29










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much! This was very helpful
    $endgroup$
    – Marmoset
    Jan 4 at 15:02














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    Although it's easy to get counterexamples, it's not quite as easy as you made it sound. You need to arrange for each complementary pair $x$ and $neg x$ to get opposite values. So randomly pick one element from each complementary pair, label the chosen elements $1$ and the unchosen ones $0$. As you said, you have a good chance of getting a counterexample, and you can guarantee a counterexample by choosing $0$ from the pair ${0,1}$. (Also, if you have bad luck and get an ultrafilter, just take its complement to get a counterexample.)
    $endgroup$
    – Andreas Blass
    Jan 4 at 3:25










  • $begingroup$
    @AndreasBlass Yes, I put that incorrectly, thank you for the correction!
    $endgroup$
    – spaceisdarkgreen
    Jan 4 at 3:29










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much! This was very helpful
    $endgroup$
    – Marmoset
    Jan 4 at 15:02








2




2




$begingroup$
Although it's easy to get counterexamples, it's not quite as easy as you made it sound. You need to arrange for each complementary pair $x$ and $neg x$ to get opposite values. So randomly pick one element from each complementary pair, label the chosen elements $1$ and the unchosen ones $0$. As you said, you have a good chance of getting a counterexample, and you can guarantee a counterexample by choosing $0$ from the pair ${0,1}$. (Also, if you have bad luck and get an ultrafilter, just take its complement to get a counterexample.)
$endgroup$
– Andreas Blass
Jan 4 at 3:25




$begingroup$
Although it's easy to get counterexamples, it's not quite as easy as you made it sound. You need to arrange for each complementary pair $x$ and $neg x$ to get opposite values. So randomly pick one element from each complementary pair, label the chosen elements $1$ and the unchosen ones $0$. As you said, you have a good chance of getting a counterexample, and you can guarantee a counterexample by choosing $0$ from the pair ${0,1}$. (Also, if you have bad luck and get an ultrafilter, just take its complement to get a counterexample.)
$endgroup$
– Andreas Blass
Jan 4 at 3:25












$begingroup$
@AndreasBlass Yes, I put that incorrectly, thank you for the correction!
$endgroup$
– spaceisdarkgreen
Jan 4 at 3:29




$begingroup$
@AndreasBlass Yes, I put that incorrectly, thank you for the correction!
$endgroup$
– spaceisdarkgreen
Jan 4 at 3:29












$begingroup$
Thank you very much! This was very helpful
$endgroup$
– Marmoset
Jan 4 at 15:02




$begingroup$
Thank you very much! This was very helpful
$endgroup$
– Marmoset
Jan 4 at 15:02


















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