Doubt about a known gaussian integral












0












$begingroup$


I've seen in books like "Mathematical Handbook of Formulas and tables" by Spiegel et al. (3rd. edition) that



$$
int_0^infty dx e^{-ax^2 - b/x^2} = frac{1}{2}sqrt{frac{pi}{a}}e^{-2sqrt{ab}}
tag1$$



Nevertheless, in order to solve a Physics problem I only get the right solution if I change $sqrt{frac{pi}{a}} leftrightarrow sqrt{frac{pi}{b}}$



Is there any chance of that formula to be an erratum? I've already computed with Wolfram-Apha and gives the same result as the book, but I'm pretty sure of not being wrong with the Physics and previous calculations.



Moreover, this integral appears when you try to compute



$$
I = int_{mathbb{R}^3}d^3p frac{e^{ivec{p}vec{x}}}{(2pi)^3(vec{p}^2 + m^2)} = frac{e^{-mx}}{4pi x}, quad x = |vec{x}|
tag2$$

By using



$$
frac{1}{vec{p}^2 + m^2} = int_0^infty dy e^{-y(m^2 + vec{p}^{ 2})}
tag3$$



So the only way Eq. (2) is right is if Eq. (1) needs the change I suggest or if I'm using it wrongly.





ADDENDUM
Let's see this last thing explicitly:



Introducing Eq. (3) in Eq. (2) renders,



$$
I = int_0^infty dyint_{mathbb{R}^3}frac{d^3p}{(2pi)^3} e^{-ycdot m^2}e^{-yvec{p}^{ 2} + ivec{p}vec{x}}
$$



Now, apply



$$
int_{mathbb{R}^3}frac{d^3p}{(2pi)^{3/2}}e^{-yvec{p}^{ 2} + ivec{p}vec{x}} = frac{1}{sqrt{2y}}e^{-x^2/(4y)}
$$



So there is just one remaining integral in $y$ inside $I$, let's call it $I_y$, that you can solve with Eq. (1) (without my suggestion and using the change of variable $y = alpha^2$):



$$
I_y = int_0^infty dy frac{e^{-ycdot m^2 - x^2/(4y)}}{sqrt{y}} = frac{sqrt{pi}}{m}e^{-mx}
$$



And the problem, the reasion why you don't get Eq. (2) is due to the factor $1/m$ that should be $2/x$ to obtain Eq. (2)










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I'm sure the $a$ is in the right place.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 23 '18 at 8:32










  • $begingroup$
    Then how do you get Eq. (2) via the last formula (Eq. (3))? I don't obtain it as I explained
    $endgroup$
    – Vicky
    Dec 23 '18 at 8:33












  • $begingroup$
    The formula is correct
    $endgroup$
    – Claude Leibovici
    Dec 23 '18 at 8:40










  • $begingroup$
    @Vicky Maybe Physics is wrong?
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 23 '18 at 8:43










  • $begingroup$
    Forget Physics, if you don't mind, could you take a look to my ADDENDUM where I prove the inconsistency?
    $endgroup$
    – Vicky
    Dec 23 '18 at 9:32
















0












$begingroup$


I've seen in books like "Mathematical Handbook of Formulas and tables" by Spiegel et al. (3rd. edition) that



$$
int_0^infty dx e^{-ax^2 - b/x^2} = frac{1}{2}sqrt{frac{pi}{a}}e^{-2sqrt{ab}}
tag1$$



Nevertheless, in order to solve a Physics problem I only get the right solution if I change $sqrt{frac{pi}{a}} leftrightarrow sqrt{frac{pi}{b}}$



Is there any chance of that formula to be an erratum? I've already computed with Wolfram-Apha and gives the same result as the book, but I'm pretty sure of not being wrong with the Physics and previous calculations.



Moreover, this integral appears when you try to compute



$$
I = int_{mathbb{R}^3}d^3p frac{e^{ivec{p}vec{x}}}{(2pi)^3(vec{p}^2 + m^2)} = frac{e^{-mx}}{4pi x}, quad x = |vec{x}|
tag2$$

By using



$$
frac{1}{vec{p}^2 + m^2} = int_0^infty dy e^{-y(m^2 + vec{p}^{ 2})}
tag3$$



So the only way Eq. (2) is right is if Eq. (1) needs the change I suggest or if I'm using it wrongly.





ADDENDUM
Let's see this last thing explicitly:



Introducing Eq. (3) in Eq. (2) renders,



$$
I = int_0^infty dyint_{mathbb{R}^3}frac{d^3p}{(2pi)^3} e^{-ycdot m^2}e^{-yvec{p}^{ 2} + ivec{p}vec{x}}
$$



Now, apply



$$
int_{mathbb{R}^3}frac{d^3p}{(2pi)^{3/2}}e^{-yvec{p}^{ 2} + ivec{p}vec{x}} = frac{1}{sqrt{2y}}e^{-x^2/(4y)}
$$



So there is just one remaining integral in $y$ inside $I$, let's call it $I_y$, that you can solve with Eq. (1) (without my suggestion and using the change of variable $y = alpha^2$):



$$
I_y = int_0^infty dy frac{e^{-ycdot m^2 - x^2/(4y)}}{sqrt{y}} = frac{sqrt{pi}}{m}e^{-mx}
$$



And the problem, the reasion why you don't get Eq. (2) is due to the factor $1/m$ that should be $2/x$ to obtain Eq. (2)










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    I'm sure the $a$ is in the right place.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 23 '18 at 8:32










  • $begingroup$
    Then how do you get Eq. (2) via the last formula (Eq. (3))? I don't obtain it as I explained
    $endgroup$
    – Vicky
    Dec 23 '18 at 8:33












  • $begingroup$
    The formula is correct
    $endgroup$
    – Claude Leibovici
    Dec 23 '18 at 8:40










  • $begingroup$
    @Vicky Maybe Physics is wrong?
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 23 '18 at 8:43










  • $begingroup$
    Forget Physics, if you don't mind, could you take a look to my ADDENDUM where I prove the inconsistency?
    $endgroup$
    – Vicky
    Dec 23 '18 at 9:32














0












0








0


1



$begingroup$


I've seen in books like "Mathematical Handbook of Formulas and tables" by Spiegel et al. (3rd. edition) that



$$
int_0^infty dx e^{-ax^2 - b/x^2} = frac{1}{2}sqrt{frac{pi}{a}}e^{-2sqrt{ab}}
tag1$$



Nevertheless, in order to solve a Physics problem I only get the right solution if I change $sqrt{frac{pi}{a}} leftrightarrow sqrt{frac{pi}{b}}$



Is there any chance of that formula to be an erratum? I've already computed with Wolfram-Apha and gives the same result as the book, but I'm pretty sure of not being wrong with the Physics and previous calculations.



Moreover, this integral appears when you try to compute



$$
I = int_{mathbb{R}^3}d^3p frac{e^{ivec{p}vec{x}}}{(2pi)^3(vec{p}^2 + m^2)} = frac{e^{-mx}}{4pi x}, quad x = |vec{x}|
tag2$$

By using



$$
frac{1}{vec{p}^2 + m^2} = int_0^infty dy e^{-y(m^2 + vec{p}^{ 2})}
tag3$$



So the only way Eq. (2) is right is if Eq. (1) needs the change I suggest or if I'm using it wrongly.





ADDENDUM
Let's see this last thing explicitly:



Introducing Eq. (3) in Eq. (2) renders,



$$
I = int_0^infty dyint_{mathbb{R}^3}frac{d^3p}{(2pi)^3} e^{-ycdot m^2}e^{-yvec{p}^{ 2} + ivec{p}vec{x}}
$$



Now, apply



$$
int_{mathbb{R}^3}frac{d^3p}{(2pi)^{3/2}}e^{-yvec{p}^{ 2} + ivec{p}vec{x}} = frac{1}{sqrt{2y}}e^{-x^2/(4y)}
$$



So there is just one remaining integral in $y$ inside $I$, let's call it $I_y$, that you can solve with Eq. (1) (without my suggestion and using the change of variable $y = alpha^2$):



$$
I_y = int_0^infty dy frac{e^{-ycdot m^2 - x^2/(4y)}}{sqrt{y}} = frac{sqrt{pi}}{m}e^{-mx}
$$



And the problem, the reasion why you don't get Eq. (2) is due to the factor $1/m$ that should be $2/x$ to obtain Eq. (2)










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I've seen in books like "Mathematical Handbook of Formulas and tables" by Spiegel et al. (3rd. edition) that



$$
int_0^infty dx e^{-ax^2 - b/x^2} = frac{1}{2}sqrt{frac{pi}{a}}e^{-2sqrt{ab}}
tag1$$



Nevertheless, in order to solve a Physics problem I only get the right solution if I change $sqrt{frac{pi}{a}} leftrightarrow sqrt{frac{pi}{b}}$



Is there any chance of that formula to be an erratum? I've already computed with Wolfram-Apha and gives the same result as the book, but I'm pretty sure of not being wrong with the Physics and previous calculations.



Moreover, this integral appears when you try to compute



$$
I = int_{mathbb{R}^3}d^3p frac{e^{ivec{p}vec{x}}}{(2pi)^3(vec{p}^2 + m^2)} = frac{e^{-mx}}{4pi x}, quad x = |vec{x}|
tag2$$

By using



$$
frac{1}{vec{p}^2 + m^2} = int_0^infty dy e^{-y(m^2 + vec{p}^{ 2})}
tag3$$



So the only way Eq. (2) is right is if Eq. (1) needs the change I suggest or if I'm using it wrongly.





ADDENDUM
Let's see this last thing explicitly:



Introducing Eq. (3) in Eq. (2) renders,



$$
I = int_0^infty dyint_{mathbb{R}^3}frac{d^3p}{(2pi)^3} e^{-ycdot m^2}e^{-yvec{p}^{ 2} + ivec{p}vec{x}}
$$



Now, apply



$$
int_{mathbb{R}^3}frac{d^3p}{(2pi)^{3/2}}e^{-yvec{p}^{ 2} + ivec{p}vec{x}} = frac{1}{sqrt{2y}}e^{-x^2/(4y)}
$$



So there is just one remaining integral in $y$ inside $I$, let's call it $I_y$, that you can solve with Eq. (1) (without my suggestion and using the change of variable $y = alpha^2$):



$$
I_y = int_0^infty dy frac{e^{-ycdot m^2 - x^2/(4y)}}{sqrt{y}} = frac{sqrt{pi}}{m}e^{-mx}
$$



And the problem, the reasion why you don't get Eq. (2) is due to the factor $1/m$ that should be $2/x$ to obtain Eq. (2)







calculus integration multivariable-calculus definite-integrals multiple-integral






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 23 '18 at 9:19







Vicky

















asked Dec 23 '18 at 8:23









VickyVicky

1557




1557












  • $begingroup$
    I'm sure the $a$ is in the right place.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 23 '18 at 8:32










  • $begingroup$
    Then how do you get Eq. (2) via the last formula (Eq. (3))? I don't obtain it as I explained
    $endgroup$
    – Vicky
    Dec 23 '18 at 8:33












  • $begingroup$
    The formula is correct
    $endgroup$
    – Claude Leibovici
    Dec 23 '18 at 8:40










  • $begingroup$
    @Vicky Maybe Physics is wrong?
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 23 '18 at 8:43










  • $begingroup$
    Forget Physics, if you don't mind, could you take a look to my ADDENDUM where I prove the inconsistency?
    $endgroup$
    – Vicky
    Dec 23 '18 at 9:32


















  • $begingroup$
    I'm sure the $a$ is in the right place.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 23 '18 at 8:32










  • $begingroup$
    Then how do you get Eq. (2) via the last formula (Eq. (3))? I don't obtain it as I explained
    $endgroup$
    – Vicky
    Dec 23 '18 at 8:33












  • $begingroup$
    The formula is correct
    $endgroup$
    – Claude Leibovici
    Dec 23 '18 at 8:40










  • $begingroup$
    @Vicky Maybe Physics is wrong?
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 23 '18 at 8:43










  • $begingroup$
    Forget Physics, if you don't mind, could you take a look to my ADDENDUM where I prove the inconsistency?
    $endgroup$
    – Vicky
    Dec 23 '18 at 9:32
















$begingroup$
I'm sure the $a$ is in the right place.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Dec 23 '18 at 8:32




$begingroup$
I'm sure the $a$ is in the right place.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Dec 23 '18 at 8:32












$begingroup$
Then how do you get Eq. (2) via the last formula (Eq. (3))? I don't obtain it as I explained
$endgroup$
– Vicky
Dec 23 '18 at 8:33






$begingroup$
Then how do you get Eq. (2) via the last formula (Eq. (3))? I don't obtain it as I explained
$endgroup$
– Vicky
Dec 23 '18 at 8:33














$begingroup$
The formula is correct
$endgroup$
– Claude Leibovici
Dec 23 '18 at 8:40




$begingroup$
The formula is correct
$endgroup$
– Claude Leibovici
Dec 23 '18 at 8:40












$begingroup$
@Vicky Maybe Physics is wrong?
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Dec 23 '18 at 8:43




$begingroup$
@Vicky Maybe Physics is wrong?
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Dec 23 '18 at 8:43












$begingroup$
Forget Physics, if you don't mind, could you take a look to my ADDENDUM where I prove the inconsistency?
$endgroup$
– Vicky
Dec 23 '18 at 9:32




$begingroup$
Forget Physics, if you don't mind, could you take a look to my ADDENDUM where I prove the inconsistency?
$endgroup$
– Vicky
Dec 23 '18 at 9:32










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

It's convenient to put $a=r^2$ and $b=s^2$ and consider
$$I=e^{2rs}int_0^inftyexp(-r^2x^2-s^2/x^2),dx
=int_0^inftyexp(-(rx-s/x)^2),dx.$$

Letting $x'=s/(rx)$ gives
$$I=frac srint_0^inftyexp(-(s/x'-rx')^2),frac{dx'}{x'^2}$$
and so $$2I=int_0^inftyleft(1+frac{s}{rx^2}right)exp(-(rx-s/x)^2),dx.$$
Now define $y=rx-s/x$, to get
$$2I=frac1rint_{-infty}^infty exp(-y^2),dy=frac{sqrtpi}{r}.$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Ok, I get this demostration of Eq. (1), but then where am I failing in the ADDENDUM (see edition to my post)? Surely it's a naive issue but I don't see it
    $endgroup$
    – Vicky
    Dec 23 '18 at 9:16











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

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votes









2












$begingroup$

It's convenient to put $a=r^2$ and $b=s^2$ and consider
$$I=e^{2rs}int_0^inftyexp(-r^2x^2-s^2/x^2),dx
=int_0^inftyexp(-(rx-s/x)^2),dx.$$

Letting $x'=s/(rx)$ gives
$$I=frac srint_0^inftyexp(-(s/x'-rx')^2),frac{dx'}{x'^2}$$
and so $$2I=int_0^inftyleft(1+frac{s}{rx^2}right)exp(-(rx-s/x)^2),dx.$$
Now define $y=rx-s/x$, to get
$$2I=frac1rint_{-infty}^infty exp(-y^2),dy=frac{sqrtpi}{r}.$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Ok, I get this demostration of Eq. (1), but then where am I failing in the ADDENDUM (see edition to my post)? Surely it's a naive issue but I don't see it
    $endgroup$
    – Vicky
    Dec 23 '18 at 9:16
















2












$begingroup$

It's convenient to put $a=r^2$ and $b=s^2$ and consider
$$I=e^{2rs}int_0^inftyexp(-r^2x^2-s^2/x^2),dx
=int_0^inftyexp(-(rx-s/x)^2),dx.$$

Letting $x'=s/(rx)$ gives
$$I=frac srint_0^inftyexp(-(s/x'-rx')^2),frac{dx'}{x'^2}$$
and so $$2I=int_0^inftyleft(1+frac{s}{rx^2}right)exp(-(rx-s/x)^2),dx.$$
Now define $y=rx-s/x$, to get
$$2I=frac1rint_{-infty}^infty exp(-y^2),dy=frac{sqrtpi}{r}.$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Ok, I get this demostration of Eq. (1), but then where am I failing in the ADDENDUM (see edition to my post)? Surely it's a naive issue but I don't see it
    $endgroup$
    – Vicky
    Dec 23 '18 at 9:16














2












2








2





$begingroup$

It's convenient to put $a=r^2$ and $b=s^2$ and consider
$$I=e^{2rs}int_0^inftyexp(-r^2x^2-s^2/x^2),dx
=int_0^inftyexp(-(rx-s/x)^2),dx.$$

Letting $x'=s/(rx)$ gives
$$I=frac srint_0^inftyexp(-(s/x'-rx')^2),frac{dx'}{x'^2}$$
and so $$2I=int_0^inftyleft(1+frac{s}{rx^2}right)exp(-(rx-s/x)^2),dx.$$
Now define $y=rx-s/x$, to get
$$2I=frac1rint_{-infty}^infty exp(-y^2),dy=frac{sqrtpi}{r}.$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



It's convenient to put $a=r^2$ and $b=s^2$ and consider
$$I=e^{2rs}int_0^inftyexp(-r^2x^2-s^2/x^2),dx
=int_0^inftyexp(-(rx-s/x)^2),dx.$$

Letting $x'=s/(rx)$ gives
$$I=frac srint_0^inftyexp(-(s/x'-rx')^2),frac{dx'}{x'^2}$$
and so $$2I=int_0^inftyleft(1+frac{s}{rx^2}right)exp(-(rx-s/x)^2),dx.$$
Now define $y=rx-s/x$, to get
$$2I=frac1rint_{-infty}^infty exp(-y^2),dy=frac{sqrtpi}{r}.$$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 23 '18 at 8:42









Lord Shark the UnknownLord Shark the Unknown

105k1160133




105k1160133












  • $begingroup$
    Ok, I get this demostration of Eq. (1), but then where am I failing in the ADDENDUM (see edition to my post)? Surely it's a naive issue but I don't see it
    $endgroup$
    – Vicky
    Dec 23 '18 at 9:16


















  • $begingroup$
    Ok, I get this demostration of Eq. (1), but then where am I failing in the ADDENDUM (see edition to my post)? Surely it's a naive issue but I don't see it
    $endgroup$
    – Vicky
    Dec 23 '18 at 9:16
















$begingroup$
Ok, I get this demostration of Eq. (1), but then where am I failing in the ADDENDUM (see edition to my post)? Surely it's a naive issue but I don't see it
$endgroup$
– Vicky
Dec 23 '18 at 9:16




$begingroup$
Ok, I get this demostration of Eq. (1), but then where am I failing in the ADDENDUM (see edition to my post)? Surely it's a naive issue but I don't see it
$endgroup$
– Vicky
Dec 23 '18 at 9:16


















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