Showing that an injective Darboux function is strictly monotone.












2












$begingroup$


I was hoping someone could tell me how to prove the following problem I was given:



Let $f:[a,b]tomathbb{R}$ be a function such that for every $yin[f(a),f(b)]$ there exists $xin[a,b]$ such that $y=f(x)$. Then the function is strictly monotone.





Attemp 1:



Suppose $f(a)<f(b)$, and suppose that the function is not strictly increasing.



Then there exists $a',b'in{(a,b)}$ such that $a'lt b'$ and $ f(b')le{f(a')}$. First, note that $f(b')not=f(a')$, for otherwise the function is not one-to-one, so suppose $f(b')lt{f(a')}$.



Since $f$ is Darboux and since $f(a)<f(b')<f(a')$, there exists $a''in{(a,a')}$ such that $f(a'')=f(b')$, but this is a contradiction since $b'notin{(a,a'')}$ and $f$ is injective.





Attempt 2:



Suppose $f(a)<f(b)$, and suppose that the function is not strictly increasing.



Then there exists $a',b'in{(a,b)}$ such that $a'lt b'$ and $ f(b')le{f(a')}$. First, note that $f(b')not=f(a')$, for otherwise the function is not one-to-one, so suppose $f(b')lt{f(a')}$.



First, suppose $f(b')>f(b)$.

Since $f$ is Darboux and since $f(a)<f(b')<f(a')$, there exists $a''in{(a,a')}$ such that $f(a'')=f(b')$, but this is a contradiction since $b'notin{(a,a'')}$ and $f$ is injective.



Now, suppose $f(b')<f(b)$.

Without loss of generality we can assume $f(a')<f(b)$. Similarly, since $f$ is Darboux and since $f(b')<f(a')<f(b)$, there exists $b''in{(b',b)}$ such that $f(b'')=f(a')$, but this is a contradiction since $a''notin{(b',b)}$ and $f$ is injective.










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    @egreg What would you want clarified, if you were being extremely critical?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex D
    Dec 9 '18 at 21:02






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    How do you know that $f(a)<f(b')<f(a')$? We know that $f(a)<f(b)$, but we don't know that $f(a)$ is an infimum.
    $endgroup$
    – Melody
    Dec 9 '18 at 21:04










  • $begingroup$
    @AlexD Actually, Melody is raising a good point.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Dec 9 '18 at 21:09










  • $begingroup$
    @egreg Melody Ok guys I think I got it. Let me rewrite it. Thank you so much
    $endgroup$
    – Alex D
    Dec 9 '18 at 21:20










  • $begingroup$
    @Melody Is it better?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex D
    Dec 9 '18 at 21:45
















2












$begingroup$


I was hoping someone could tell me how to prove the following problem I was given:



Let $f:[a,b]tomathbb{R}$ be a function such that for every $yin[f(a),f(b)]$ there exists $xin[a,b]$ such that $y=f(x)$. Then the function is strictly monotone.





Attemp 1:



Suppose $f(a)<f(b)$, and suppose that the function is not strictly increasing.



Then there exists $a',b'in{(a,b)}$ such that $a'lt b'$ and $ f(b')le{f(a')}$. First, note that $f(b')not=f(a')$, for otherwise the function is not one-to-one, so suppose $f(b')lt{f(a')}$.



Since $f$ is Darboux and since $f(a)<f(b')<f(a')$, there exists $a''in{(a,a')}$ such that $f(a'')=f(b')$, but this is a contradiction since $b'notin{(a,a'')}$ and $f$ is injective.





Attempt 2:



Suppose $f(a)<f(b)$, and suppose that the function is not strictly increasing.



Then there exists $a',b'in{(a,b)}$ such that $a'lt b'$ and $ f(b')le{f(a')}$. First, note that $f(b')not=f(a')$, for otherwise the function is not one-to-one, so suppose $f(b')lt{f(a')}$.



First, suppose $f(b')>f(b)$.

Since $f$ is Darboux and since $f(a)<f(b')<f(a')$, there exists $a''in{(a,a')}$ such that $f(a'')=f(b')$, but this is a contradiction since $b'notin{(a,a'')}$ and $f$ is injective.



Now, suppose $f(b')<f(b)$.

Without loss of generality we can assume $f(a')<f(b)$. Similarly, since $f$ is Darboux and since $f(b')<f(a')<f(b)$, there exists $b''in{(b',b)}$ such that $f(b'')=f(a')$, but this is a contradiction since $a''notin{(b',b)}$ and $f$ is injective.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    @egreg What would you want clarified, if you were being extremely critical?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex D
    Dec 9 '18 at 21:02






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    How do you know that $f(a)<f(b')<f(a')$? We know that $f(a)<f(b)$, but we don't know that $f(a)$ is an infimum.
    $endgroup$
    – Melody
    Dec 9 '18 at 21:04










  • $begingroup$
    @AlexD Actually, Melody is raising a good point.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Dec 9 '18 at 21:09










  • $begingroup$
    @egreg Melody Ok guys I think I got it. Let me rewrite it. Thank you so much
    $endgroup$
    – Alex D
    Dec 9 '18 at 21:20










  • $begingroup$
    @Melody Is it better?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex D
    Dec 9 '18 at 21:45














2












2








2





$begingroup$


I was hoping someone could tell me how to prove the following problem I was given:



Let $f:[a,b]tomathbb{R}$ be a function such that for every $yin[f(a),f(b)]$ there exists $xin[a,b]$ such that $y=f(x)$. Then the function is strictly monotone.





Attemp 1:



Suppose $f(a)<f(b)$, and suppose that the function is not strictly increasing.



Then there exists $a',b'in{(a,b)}$ such that $a'lt b'$ and $ f(b')le{f(a')}$. First, note that $f(b')not=f(a')$, for otherwise the function is not one-to-one, so suppose $f(b')lt{f(a')}$.



Since $f$ is Darboux and since $f(a)<f(b')<f(a')$, there exists $a''in{(a,a')}$ such that $f(a'')=f(b')$, but this is a contradiction since $b'notin{(a,a'')}$ and $f$ is injective.





Attempt 2:



Suppose $f(a)<f(b)$, and suppose that the function is not strictly increasing.



Then there exists $a',b'in{(a,b)}$ such that $a'lt b'$ and $ f(b')le{f(a')}$. First, note that $f(b')not=f(a')$, for otherwise the function is not one-to-one, so suppose $f(b')lt{f(a')}$.



First, suppose $f(b')>f(b)$.

Since $f$ is Darboux and since $f(a)<f(b')<f(a')$, there exists $a''in{(a,a')}$ such that $f(a'')=f(b')$, but this is a contradiction since $b'notin{(a,a'')}$ and $f$ is injective.



Now, suppose $f(b')<f(b)$.

Without loss of generality we can assume $f(a')<f(b)$. Similarly, since $f$ is Darboux and since $f(b')<f(a')<f(b)$, there exists $b''in{(b',b)}$ such that $f(b'')=f(a')$, but this is a contradiction since $a''notin{(b',b)}$ and $f$ is injective.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I was hoping someone could tell me how to prove the following problem I was given:



Let $f:[a,b]tomathbb{R}$ be a function such that for every $yin[f(a),f(b)]$ there exists $xin[a,b]$ such that $y=f(x)$. Then the function is strictly monotone.





Attemp 1:



Suppose $f(a)<f(b)$, and suppose that the function is not strictly increasing.



Then there exists $a',b'in{(a,b)}$ such that $a'lt b'$ and $ f(b')le{f(a')}$. First, note that $f(b')not=f(a')$, for otherwise the function is not one-to-one, so suppose $f(b')lt{f(a')}$.



Since $f$ is Darboux and since $f(a)<f(b')<f(a')$, there exists $a''in{(a,a')}$ such that $f(a'')=f(b')$, but this is a contradiction since $b'notin{(a,a'')}$ and $f$ is injective.





Attempt 2:



Suppose $f(a)<f(b)$, and suppose that the function is not strictly increasing.



Then there exists $a',b'in{(a,b)}$ such that $a'lt b'$ and $ f(b')le{f(a')}$. First, note that $f(b')not=f(a')$, for otherwise the function is not one-to-one, so suppose $f(b')lt{f(a')}$.



First, suppose $f(b')>f(b)$.

Since $f$ is Darboux and since $f(a)<f(b')<f(a')$, there exists $a''in{(a,a')}$ such that $f(a'')=f(b')$, but this is a contradiction since $b'notin{(a,a'')}$ and $f$ is injective.



Now, suppose $f(b')<f(b)$.

Without loss of generality we can assume $f(a')<f(b)$. Similarly, since $f$ is Darboux and since $f(b')<f(a')<f(b)$, there exists $b''in{(b',b)}$ such that $f(b'')=f(a')$, but this is a contradiction since $a''notin{(b',b)}$ and $f$ is injective.







real-analysis calculus proof-verification proof-writing






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 9 '18 at 21:36







Alex D

















asked Dec 9 '18 at 20:36









Alex DAlex D

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508219












  • $begingroup$
    @egreg What would you want clarified, if you were being extremely critical?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex D
    Dec 9 '18 at 21:02






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    How do you know that $f(a)<f(b')<f(a')$? We know that $f(a)<f(b)$, but we don't know that $f(a)$ is an infimum.
    $endgroup$
    – Melody
    Dec 9 '18 at 21:04










  • $begingroup$
    @AlexD Actually, Melody is raising a good point.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Dec 9 '18 at 21:09










  • $begingroup$
    @egreg Melody Ok guys I think I got it. Let me rewrite it. Thank you so much
    $endgroup$
    – Alex D
    Dec 9 '18 at 21:20










  • $begingroup$
    @Melody Is it better?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex D
    Dec 9 '18 at 21:45


















  • $begingroup$
    @egreg What would you want clarified, if you were being extremely critical?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex D
    Dec 9 '18 at 21:02






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    How do you know that $f(a)<f(b')<f(a')$? We know that $f(a)<f(b)$, but we don't know that $f(a)$ is an infimum.
    $endgroup$
    – Melody
    Dec 9 '18 at 21:04










  • $begingroup$
    @AlexD Actually, Melody is raising a good point.
    $endgroup$
    – egreg
    Dec 9 '18 at 21:09










  • $begingroup$
    @egreg Melody Ok guys I think I got it. Let me rewrite it. Thank you so much
    $endgroup$
    – Alex D
    Dec 9 '18 at 21:20










  • $begingroup$
    @Melody Is it better?
    $endgroup$
    – Alex D
    Dec 9 '18 at 21:45
















$begingroup$
@egreg What would you want clarified, if you were being extremely critical?
$endgroup$
– Alex D
Dec 9 '18 at 21:02




$begingroup$
@egreg What would you want clarified, if you were being extremely critical?
$endgroup$
– Alex D
Dec 9 '18 at 21:02




1




1




$begingroup$
How do you know that $f(a)<f(b')<f(a')$? We know that $f(a)<f(b)$, but we don't know that $f(a)$ is an infimum.
$endgroup$
– Melody
Dec 9 '18 at 21:04




$begingroup$
How do you know that $f(a)<f(b')<f(a')$? We know that $f(a)<f(b)$, but we don't know that $f(a)$ is an infimum.
$endgroup$
– Melody
Dec 9 '18 at 21:04












$begingroup$
@AlexD Actually, Melody is raising a good point.
$endgroup$
– egreg
Dec 9 '18 at 21:09




$begingroup$
@AlexD Actually, Melody is raising a good point.
$endgroup$
– egreg
Dec 9 '18 at 21:09












$begingroup$
@egreg Melody Ok guys I think I got it. Let me rewrite it. Thank you so much
$endgroup$
– Alex D
Dec 9 '18 at 21:20




$begingroup$
@egreg Melody Ok guys I think I got it. Let me rewrite it. Thank you so much
$endgroup$
– Alex D
Dec 9 '18 at 21:20












$begingroup$
@Melody Is it better?
$endgroup$
– Alex D
Dec 9 '18 at 21:45




$begingroup$
@Melody Is it better?
$endgroup$
– Alex D
Dec 9 '18 at 21:45










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

Without loss of generality we can assume $f(a)<f(b)$.



Assume $f$ is not strictly increasing. Then there are $c,din[a,b]$ with $c<d$ and $f(c)ge f(d)$. Since $f$ is injective, we can say that $f(c)>f(d)$.



At this point we don't know whether $f(a)le f(c)$ or $f(a)>f(c)$.



Suppose $f(a)>f(c)$. Then there is $a'in[c,b]$ with $f(a)=f(a')$, contradicting injectivity. Similarly we can exclude $f(d)>f(b)$. Hence we have
$$
f(a)le f(c),quad f(c)>f(d),quad f(d)le f(b)
$$

and your argument carries over after noticing that we must also have $f(c)le f(b)$ and $f(a)le f(d)$ (same reasoning as before).






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    $begingroup$

    Without loss of generality we can assume $f(a)<f(b)$.



    Assume $f$ is not strictly increasing. Then there are $c,din[a,b]$ with $c<d$ and $f(c)ge f(d)$. Since $f$ is injective, we can say that $f(c)>f(d)$.



    At this point we don't know whether $f(a)le f(c)$ or $f(a)>f(c)$.



    Suppose $f(a)>f(c)$. Then there is $a'in[c,b]$ with $f(a)=f(a')$, contradicting injectivity. Similarly we can exclude $f(d)>f(b)$. Hence we have
    $$
    f(a)le f(c),quad f(c)>f(d),quad f(d)le f(b)
    $$

    and your argument carries over after noticing that we must also have $f(c)le f(b)$ and $f(a)le f(d)$ (same reasoning as before).






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      Without loss of generality we can assume $f(a)<f(b)$.



      Assume $f$ is not strictly increasing. Then there are $c,din[a,b]$ with $c<d$ and $f(c)ge f(d)$. Since $f$ is injective, we can say that $f(c)>f(d)$.



      At this point we don't know whether $f(a)le f(c)$ or $f(a)>f(c)$.



      Suppose $f(a)>f(c)$. Then there is $a'in[c,b]$ with $f(a)=f(a')$, contradicting injectivity. Similarly we can exclude $f(d)>f(b)$. Hence we have
      $$
      f(a)le f(c),quad f(c)>f(d),quad f(d)le f(b)
      $$

      and your argument carries over after noticing that we must also have $f(c)le f(b)$ and $f(a)le f(d)$ (same reasoning as before).






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Without loss of generality we can assume $f(a)<f(b)$.



        Assume $f$ is not strictly increasing. Then there are $c,din[a,b]$ with $c<d$ and $f(c)ge f(d)$. Since $f$ is injective, we can say that $f(c)>f(d)$.



        At this point we don't know whether $f(a)le f(c)$ or $f(a)>f(c)$.



        Suppose $f(a)>f(c)$. Then there is $a'in[c,b]$ with $f(a)=f(a')$, contradicting injectivity. Similarly we can exclude $f(d)>f(b)$. Hence we have
        $$
        f(a)le f(c),quad f(c)>f(d),quad f(d)le f(b)
        $$

        and your argument carries over after noticing that we must also have $f(c)le f(b)$ and $f(a)le f(d)$ (same reasoning as before).






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Without loss of generality we can assume $f(a)<f(b)$.



        Assume $f$ is not strictly increasing. Then there are $c,din[a,b]$ with $c<d$ and $f(c)ge f(d)$. Since $f$ is injective, we can say that $f(c)>f(d)$.



        At this point we don't know whether $f(a)le f(c)$ or $f(a)>f(c)$.



        Suppose $f(a)>f(c)$. Then there is $a'in[c,b]$ with $f(a)=f(a')$, contradicting injectivity. Similarly we can exclude $f(d)>f(b)$. Hence we have
        $$
        f(a)le f(c),quad f(c)>f(d),quad f(d)le f(b)
        $$

        and your argument carries over after noticing that we must also have $f(c)le f(b)$ and $f(a)le f(d)$ (same reasoning as before).







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 9 '18 at 21:16









        egregegreg

        181k1485202




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