Computing probability of one random variable less than another — how to approach?












0












$begingroup$


I have 2 random variables X~U[-2,2], Y~U[0,1]. Lets define two new random variables $A=(X+Y)^2$, $B=X^2-Y^2$ .



What is the exact numerical value of the probability of $Pr(A<B)$?



My approach to solve this problem is to make a new random variable $Z=A-B$ and then to compute $F_Z(z)=Pr(Z<z)$ and finally solve for $F_z(0)=Pr(Z<0)=(A-B<0)$.



This is the only approach I can think of to solve this. Does this seem like an efficient approach?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Hint: $(X+Y)^2 - (X^2 - Y^2) = X^2 + 2XY + Y^2 - X^2 + Y^2 = 2(XY + 2Y^2)$. This is negative exactly when $X+Y$ is negative (because $2Y$ is nonnegative). Now you can just draw a picture of the rectangle $[-2, 2] times [0, 1]$ and shade in various parts of it.
    $endgroup$
    – John Hughes
    Dec 25 '18 at 20:42












  • $begingroup$
    Thanks. I actually factored it to be P(X+Y<0), graphed, and then shaded in the region of the left of the line which intersects the pdfs of X and Y. The pdf have am amplitude of 4. Integrating to the left of P(X+Y<0) you get (1+1/2)/4 = 3/8
    $endgroup$
    – Avedis
    Dec 25 '18 at 21:01
















0












$begingroup$


I have 2 random variables X~U[-2,2], Y~U[0,1]. Lets define two new random variables $A=(X+Y)^2$, $B=X^2-Y^2$ .



What is the exact numerical value of the probability of $Pr(A<B)$?



My approach to solve this problem is to make a new random variable $Z=A-B$ and then to compute $F_Z(z)=Pr(Z<z)$ and finally solve for $F_z(0)=Pr(Z<0)=(A-B<0)$.



This is the only approach I can think of to solve this. Does this seem like an efficient approach?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Hint: $(X+Y)^2 - (X^2 - Y^2) = X^2 + 2XY + Y^2 - X^2 + Y^2 = 2(XY + 2Y^2)$. This is negative exactly when $X+Y$ is negative (because $2Y$ is nonnegative). Now you can just draw a picture of the rectangle $[-2, 2] times [0, 1]$ and shade in various parts of it.
    $endgroup$
    – John Hughes
    Dec 25 '18 at 20:42












  • $begingroup$
    Thanks. I actually factored it to be P(X+Y<0), graphed, and then shaded in the region of the left of the line which intersects the pdfs of X and Y. The pdf have am amplitude of 4. Integrating to the left of P(X+Y<0) you get (1+1/2)/4 = 3/8
    $endgroup$
    – Avedis
    Dec 25 '18 at 21:01














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I have 2 random variables X~U[-2,2], Y~U[0,1]. Lets define two new random variables $A=(X+Y)^2$, $B=X^2-Y^2$ .



What is the exact numerical value of the probability of $Pr(A<B)$?



My approach to solve this problem is to make a new random variable $Z=A-B$ and then to compute $F_Z(z)=Pr(Z<z)$ and finally solve for $F_z(0)=Pr(Z<0)=(A-B<0)$.



This is the only approach I can think of to solve this. Does this seem like an efficient approach?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




I have 2 random variables X~U[-2,2], Y~U[0,1]. Lets define two new random variables $A=(X+Y)^2$, $B=X^2-Y^2$ .



What is the exact numerical value of the probability of $Pr(A<B)$?



My approach to solve this problem is to make a new random variable $Z=A-B$ and then to compute $F_Z(z)=Pr(Z<z)$ and finally solve for $F_z(0)=Pr(Z<0)=(A-B<0)$.



This is the only approach I can think of to solve this. Does this seem like an efficient approach?







probability-theory random-variables






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 25 '18 at 20:39









AvedisAvedis

647




647








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Hint: $(X+Y)^2 - (X^2 - Y^2) = X^2 + 2XY + Y^2 - X^2 + Y^2 = 2(XY + 2Y^2)$. This is negative exactly when $X+Y$ is negative (because $2Y$ is nonnegative). Now you can just draw a picture of the rectangle $[-2, 2] times [0, 1]$ and shade in various parts of it.
    $endgroup$
    – John Hughes
    Dec 25 '18 at 20:42












  • $begingroup$
    Thanks. I actually factored it to be P(X+Y<0), graphed, and then shaded in the region of the left of the line which intersects the pdfs of X and Y. The pdf have am amplitude of 4. Integrating to the left of P(X+Y<0) you get (1+1/2)/4 = 3/8
    $endgroup$
    – Avedis
    Dec 25 '18 at 21:01














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Hint: $(X+Y)^2 - (X^2 - Y^2) = X^2 + 2XY + Y^2 - X^2 + Y^2 = 2(XY + 2Y^2)$. This is negative exactly when $X+Y$ is negative (because $2Y$ is nonnegative). Now you can just draw a picture of the rectangle $[-2, 2] times [0, 1]$ and shade in various parts of it.
    $endgroup$
    – John Hughes
    Dec 25 '18 at 20:42












  • $begingroup$
    Thanks. I actually factored it to be P(X+Y<0), graphed, and then shaded in the region of the left of the line which intersects the pdfs of X and Y. The pdf have am amplitude of 4. Integrating to the left of P(X+Y<0) you get (1+1/2)/4 = 3/8
    $endgroup$
    – Avedis
    Dec 25 '18 at 21:01








1




1




$begingroup$
Hint: $(X+Y)^2 - (X^2 - Y^2) = X^2 + 2XY + Y^2 - X^2 + Y^2 = 2(XY + 2Y^2)$. This is negative exactly when $X+Y$ is negative (because $2Y$ is nonnegative). Now you can just draw a picture of the rectangle $[-2, 2] times [0, 1]$ and shade in various parts of it.
$endgroup$
– John Hughes
Dec 25 '18 at 20:42






$begingroup$
Hint: $(X+Y)^2 - (X^2 - Y^2) = X^2 + 2XY + Y^2 - X^2 + Y^2 = 2(XY + 2Y^2)$. This is negative exactly when $X+Y$ is negative (because $2Y$ is nonnegative). Now you can just draw a picture of the rectangle $[-2, 2] times [0, 1]$ and shade in various parts of it.
$endgroup$
– John Hughes
Dec 25 '18 at 20:42














$begingroup$
Thanks. I actually factored it to be P(X+Y<0), graphed, and then shaded in the region of the left of the line which intersects the pdfs of X and Y. The pdf have am amplitude of 4. Integrating to the left of P(X+Y<0) you get (1+1/2)/4 = 3/8
$endgroup$
– Avedis
Dec 25 '18 at 21:01




$begingroup$
Thanks. I actually factored it to be P(X+Y<0), graphed, and then shaded in the region of the left of the line which intersects the pdfs of X and Y. The pdf have am amplitude of 4. Integrating to the left of P(X+Y<0) you get (1+1/2)/4 = 3/8
$endgroup$
– Avedis
Dec 25 '18 at 21:01










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Yes it is. We have $$Pr(Z<0){=Pr(A<B)\=Pr(2XY+Y^2<-Y^2)\=Pr(X<-Y)\={3over 8}}$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I just computed this on my own and got 3/8. Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – Avedis
    Dec 25 '18 at 20:56











Your Answer





StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function () {
return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function () {
StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix) {
StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
});
});
}, "mathjax-editing");

StackExchange.ready(function() {
var channelOptions = {
tags: "".split(" "),
id: "69"
};
initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
// Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
createEditor();
});
}
else {
createEditor();
}
});

function createEditor() {
StackExchange.prepareEditor({
heartbeatType: 'answer',
autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
convertImagesToLinks: true,
noModals: true,
showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
reputationToPostImages: 10,
bindNavPrevention: true,
postfix: "",
imageUploader: {
brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
allowUrls: true
},
noCode: true, onDemand: true,
discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
});


}
});














draft saved

draft discarded


















StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3052415%2fcomputing-probability-of-one-random-variable-less-than-another-how-to-approac%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);

Post as a guest















Required, but never shown

























1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$

Yes it is. We have $$Pr(Z<0){=Pr(A<B)\=Pr(2XY+Y^2<-Y^2)\=Pr(X<-Y)\={3over 8}}$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I just computed this on my own and got 3/8. Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – Avedis
    Dec 25 '18 at 20:56
















1












$begingroup$

Yes it is. We have $$Pr(Z<0){=Pr(A<B)\=Pr(2XY+Y^2<-Y^2)\=Pr(X<-Y)\={3over 8}}$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I just computed this on my own and got 3/8. Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – Avedis
    Dec 25 '18 at 20:56














1












1








1





$begingroup$

Yes it is. We have $$Pr(Z<0){=Pr(A<B)\=Pr(2XY+Y^2<-Y^2)\=Pr(X<-Y)\={3over 8}}$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



Yes it is. We have $$Pr(Z<0){=Pr(A<B)\=Pr(2XY+Y^2<-Y^2)\=Pr(X<-Y)\={3over 8}}$$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 25 '18 at 20:45









Mostafa AyazMostafa Ayaz

15.7k3939




15.7k3939












  • $begingroup$
    I just computed this on my own and got 3/8. Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – Avedis
    Dec 25 '18 at 20:56


















  • $begingroup$
    I just computed this on my own and got 3/8. Thanks!
    $endgroup$
    – Avedis
    Dec 25 '18 at 20:56
















$begingroup$
I just computed this on my own and got 3/8. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Avedis
Dec 25 '18 at 20:56




$begingroup$
I just computed this on my own and got 3/8. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Avedis
Dec 25 '18 at 20:56


















draft saved

draft discarded




















































Thanks for contributing an answer to Mathematics Stack Exchange!


  • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

But avoid



  • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

  • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


Use MathJax to format equations. MathJax reference.


To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




draft saved


draft discarded














StackExchange.ready(
function () {
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f3052415%2fcomputing-probability-of-one-random-variable-less-than-another-how-to-approac%23new-answer', 'question_page');
}
);

Post as a guest















Required, but never shown





















































Required, but never shown














Required, but never shown












Required, but never shown







Required, but never shown

































Required, but never shown














Required, but never shown












Required, but never shown







Required, but never shown







Popular posts from this blog

Wiesbaden

Marschland

Dieringhausen