Jordan form of an $n times n$ Jordan block with eigenvalue $0$
$begingroup$
Suppose $J$ is an $n times n$ Jordan block with eigenvalue $0$, what is the Jordan form of $J^2$?
My solution:
I squared the matrix, it follows that the eigenvalues are $0$ again, and $dim(N(J^2)) = 2$, with eigenvectors $e_{n-1}$, $e_{n}$.
Therefore, the Jordan form of $J^2$ is an $(n-2) times (n-2)$ block and two $1times1$ blocks all with eigenvalue zero.
However, there is a hint with the question which says to treat odd and even values of $n$ separately but I fail to see why.
linear-algebra jordan-normal-form
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose $J$ is an $n times n$ Jordan block with eigenvalue $0$, what is the Jordan form of $J^2$?
My solution:
I squared the matrix, it follows that the eigenvalues are $0$ again, and $dim(N(J^2)) = 2$, with eigenvectors $e_{n-1}$, $e_{n}$.
Therefore, the Jordan form of $J^2$ is an $(n-2) times (n-2)$ block and two $1times1$ blocks all with eigenvalue zero.
However, there is a hint with the question which says to treat odd and even values of $n$ separately but I fail to see why.
linear-algebra jordan-normal-form
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose $J$ is an $n times n$ Jordan block with eigenvalue $0$, what is the Jordan form of $J^2$?
My solution:
I squared the matrix, it follows that the eigenvalues are $0$ again, and $dim(N(J^2)) = 2$, with eigenvectors $e_{n-1}$, $e_{n}$.
Therefore, the Jordan form of $J^2$ is an $(n-2) times (n-2)$ block and two $1times1$ blocks all with eigenvalue zero.
However, there is a hint with the question which says to treat odd and even values of $n$ separately but I fail to see why.
linear-algebra jordan-normal-form
$endgroup$
Suppose $J$ is an $n times n$ Jordan block with eigenvalue $0$, what is the Jordan form of $J^2$?
My solution:
I squared the matrix, it follows that the eigenvalues are $0$ again, and $dim(N(J^2)) = 2$, with eigenvectors $e_{n-1}$, $e_{n}$.
Therefore, the Jordan form of $J^2$ is an $(n-2) times (n-2)$ block and two $1times1$ blocks all with eigenvalue zero.
However, there is a hint with the question which says to treat odd and even values of $n$ separately but I fail to see why.
linear-algebra jordan-normal-form
linear-algebra jordan-normal-form
edited Dec 26 '18 at 0:58
Rócherz
2,9112821
2,9112821
asked Dec 25 '18 at 21:07
Scosh_lrScosh_lr
566
566
add a comment |
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
You're wrong. For example,
$$ pmatrix{0 & 1 & 0 cr
0 & 0 & 1cr
0 & 0 & 0cr}^2 = pmatrix{0 & 0 & 1cr 0 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0cr}
text{has Jordan form} pmatrix{0 & 1 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0cr}$$
(a block of size $2$ and a block of size $1$) but
$$ pmatrix{0 & 1 & 0 & 0cr
0 & 0 & 1 & 0cr
0 & 0 & 0 & 1cr
0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr}^2 = pmatrix{0 & 0 & 1 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 1cr
0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr} text{has Jordan form}
pmatrix{0 & 1 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 1cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr}$$
(two blocks of size $2$).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let me illustrate this with the $n = 6$ case. Here, we have a basis ${ e_1, e_2, e_3, e_4, e_5, e_6 }$, and the action of $J$ on the basis vectors is given by
$$ Je_1 = e_2, Je_2 = e_3, Je_3 = e_4, Je_4 = e_5, Je_5 = e_6, Je_6 = 0. $$
So the action of $J^2$ on this basis is given by
$$ J^2e_1 = e_3, J^2e_2 = e_4, J^2e_3 = e_5, J^2e_4 = e_6, J^2e_5 = 0, J^2e_6 = 0.$$
[You absolutely right that the kernel of $J^2$ has dimension two, and is spanned by $e_5$ and $e_6$.]
But here is the really key point. Notice that, under the action of $J^2$, the vector space decomposes into two invariant subspaces:
- There is the subspace spanned by ${ e_1, e_3, e_5 }$, on which the action of $J^2$ is
$$ J^2e_1 = e_3, J^2e_3 = e_5, J^2e_5 = 0.$$
- Then there is the subspace spanned by ${ e_2, e_4, e_6 }$, on which the action of $J^2$ is
$$ J^2e_2 = e_4, J^2e_4 = e_6, J^2e_6 = 0 .$$
So $J^2$ has two Jordan blocks (corresponding to these two subspaces), and for each of these two blocks, the Jordan matrix is
$$ begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1 \ 0 & 0 & 0end{bmatrix}$$
That was the $n = 6$ case. Can you generalise this approach for $n = 7$? And from there, can you generalise for arbitrary $n$?
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you that clears things up I can finish it out from there. More generally when does the "key point" come into play? and do you have any references I could see about that because I've always assumed if you have eigenvectors for an eigenvalue of multiplicity 'n' it follows that you get an (n - 2) jordan block automatically
$endgroup$
– Scosh_lr
Dec 25 '18 at 22:32
1
$begingroup$
@Scosh_lr I'm afraid I don't think I've ever come across such a theorem. To give you another example, suppose we have a $4times 4$ matrix $A$, and I tell you that $A$ has $0$ as an eigenvalue, and no other eigenvalues, and that the dimension of the eigenspace corresponding to the zero eigenvalue is 2-dimensional. Then there are two possible Jordan forms for $A$: either it has a 3-dimensional block and a 1-dimensional block, or it has two 2-dimensional blocks. The fact that the dimension of the eigenspace is two means that we have two blocks.
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 22:43
$begingroup$
why is it not possible to have a 2x2 block and two 1x1 blocks?
$endgroup$
– Scosh_lr
Dec 25 '18 at 22:57
1
$begingroup$
@Scosh_lr Because in that case, the eigenspace would have dimension three. (To spell it out, if $e_1, e_2$ span the $2times 2$ block, and $e_3$ spans a $1 times 1 $ block and $e_4$ spans the other $1 times 1$ block, then $Ae_1 = e_2$, $Ae_2 = 0$, $Ae_3 = 0$ and $Ae_4 = 0$, so $e_2, e_3, e_4$ are all eigenvectors with eigenvalue $0$.)
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 23:24
$begingroup$
Oh I see now, Thanks for the help.
$endgroup$
– Scosh_lr
Dec 25 '18 at 23:26
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
You're wrong. For example,
$$ pmatrix{0 & 1 & 0 cr
0 & 0 & 1cr
0 & 0 & 0cr}^2 = pmatrix{0 & 0 & 1cr 0 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0cr}
text{has Jordan form} pmatrix{0 & 1 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0cr}$$
(a block of size $2$ and a block of size $1$) but
$$ pmatrix{0 & 1 & 0 & 0cr
0 & 0 & 1 & 0cr
0 & 0 & 0 & 1cr
0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr}^2 = pmatrix{0 & 0 & 1 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 1cr
0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr} text{has Jordan form}
pmatrix{0 & 1 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 1cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr}$$
(two blocks of size $2$).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You're wrong. For example,
$$ pmatrix{0 & 1 & 0 cr
0 & 0 & 1cr
0 & 0 & 0cr}^2 = pmatrix{0 & 0 & 1cr 0 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0cr}
text{has Jordan form} pmatrix{0 & 1 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0cr}$$
(a block of size $2$ and a block of size $1$) but
$$ pmatrix{0 & 1 & 0 & 0cr
0 & 0 & 1 & 0cr
0 & 0 & 0 & 1cr
0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr}^2 = pmatrix{0 & 0 & 1 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 1cr
0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr} text{has Jordan form}
pmatrix{0 & 1 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 1cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr}$$
(two blocks of size $2$).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
You're wrong. For example,
$$ pmatrix{0 & 1 & 0 cr
0 & 0 & 1cr
0 & 0 & 0cr}^2 = pmatrix{0 & 0 & 1cr 0 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0cr}
text{has Jordan form} pmatrix{0 & 1 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0cr}$$
(a block of size $2$ and a block of size $1$) but
$$ pmatrix{0 & 1 & 0 & 0cr
0 & 0 & 1 & 0cr
0 & 0 & 0 & 1cr
0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr}^2 = pmatrix{0 & 0 & 1 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 1cr
0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr} text{has Jordan form}
pmatrix{0 & 1 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 1cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr}$$
(two blocks of size $2$).
$endgroup$
You're wrong. For example,
$$ pmatrix{0 & 1 & 0 cr
0 & 0 & 1cr
0 & 0 & 0cr}^2 = pmatrix{0 & 0 & 1cr 0 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0cr}
text{has Jordan form} pmatrix{0 & 1 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0cr}$$
(a block of size $2$ and a block of size $1$) but
$$ pmatrix{0 & 1 & 0 & 0cr
0 & 0 & 1 & 0cr
0 & 0 & 0 & 1cr
0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr}^2 = pmatrix{0 & 0 & 1 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 1cr
0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr} text{has Jordan form}
pmatrix{0 & 1 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 1cr 0 & 0 & 0 & 0cr}$$
(two blocks of size $2$).
answered Dec 25 '18 at 21:25
Robert IsraelRobert Israel
327k23216469
327k23216469
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let me illustrate this with the $n = 6$ case. Here, we have a basis ${ e_1, e_2, e_3, e_4, e_5, e_6 }$, and the action of $J$ on the basis vectors is given by
$$ Je_1 = e_2, Je_2 = e_3, Je_3 = e_4, Je_4 = e_5, Je_5 = e_6, Je_6 = 0. $$
So the action of $J^2$ on this basis is given by
$$ J^2e_1 = e_3, J^2e_2 = e_4, J^2e_3 = e_5, J^2e_4 = e_6, J^2e_5 = 0, J^2e_6 = 0.$$
[You absolutely right that the kernel of $J^2$ has dimension two, and is spanned by $e_5$ and $e_6$.]
But here is the really key point. Notice that, under the action of $J^2$, the vector space decomposes into two invariant subspaces:
- There is the subspace spanned by ${ e_1, e_3, e_5 }$, on which the action of $J^2$ is
$$ J^2e_1 = e_3, J^2e_3 = e_5, J^2e_5 = 0.$$
- Then there is the subspace spanned by ${ e_2, e_4, e_6 }$, on which the action of $J^2$ is
$$ J^2e_2 = e_4, J^2e_4 = e_6, J^2e_6 = 0 .$$
So $J^2$ has two Jordan blocks (corresponding to these two subspaces), and for each of these two blocks, the Jordan matrix is
$$ begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1 \ 0 & 0 & 0end{bmatrix}$$
That was the $n = 6$ case. Can you generalise this approach for $n = 7$? And from there, can you generalise for arbitrary $n$?
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you that clears things up I can finish it out from there. More generally when does the "key point" come into play? and do you have any references I could see about that because I've always assumed if you have eigenvectors for an eigenvalue of multiplicity 'n' it follows that you get an (n - 2) jordan block automatically
$endgroup$
– Scosh_lr
Dec 25 '18 at 22:32
1
$begingroup$
@Scosh_lr I'm afraid I don't think I've ever come across such a theorem. To give you another example, suppose we have a $4times 4$ matrix $A$, and I tell you that $A$ has $0$ as an eigenvalue, and no other eigenvalues, and that the dimension of the eigenspace corresponding to the zero eigenvalue is 2-dimensional. Then there are two possible Jordan forms for $A$: either it has a 3-dimensional block and a 1-dimensional block, or it has two 2-dimensional blocks. The fact that the dimension of the eigenspace is two means that we have two blocks.
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 22:43
$begingroup$
why is it not possible to have a 2x2 block and two 1x1 blocks?
$endgroup$
– Scosh_lr
Dec 25 '18 at 22:57
1
$begingroup$
@Scosh_lr Because in that case, the eigenspace would have dimension three. (To spell it out, if $e_1, e_2$ span the $2times 2$ block, and $e_3$ spans a $1 times 1 $ block and $e_4$ spans the other $1 times 1$ block, then $Ae_1 = e_2$, $Ae_2 = 0$, $Ae_3 = 0$ and $Ae_4 = 0$, so $e_2, e_3, e_4$ are all eigenvectors with eigenvalue $0$.)
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 23:24
$begingroup$
Oh I see now, Thanks for the help.
$endgroup$
– Scosh_lr
Dec 25 '18 at 23:26
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let me illustrate this with the $n = 6$ case. Here, we have a basis ${ e_1, e_2, e_3, e_4, e_5, e_6 }$, and the action of $J$ on the basis vectors is given by
$$ Je_1 = e_2, Je_2 = e_3, Je_3 = e_4, Je_4 = e_5, Je_5 = e_6, Je_6 = 0. $$
So the action of $J^2$ on this basis is given by
$$ J^2e_1 = e_3, J^2e_2 = e_4, J^2e_3 = e_5, J^2e_4 = e_6, J^2e_5 = 0, J^2e_6 = 0.$$
[You absolutely right that the kernel of $J^2$ has dimension two, and is spanned by $e_5$ and $e_6$.]
But here is the really key point. Notice that, under the action of $J^2$, the vector space decomposes into two invariant subspaces:
- There is the subspace spanned by ${ e_1, e_3, e_5 }$, on which the action of $J^2$ is
$$ J^2e_1 = e_3, J^2e_3 = e_5, J^2e_5 = 0.$$
- Then there is the subspace spanned by ${ e_2, e_4, e_6 }$, on which the action of $J^2$ is
$$ J^2e_2 = e_4, J^2e_4 = e_6, J^2e_6 = 0 .$$
So $J^2$ has two Jordan blocks (corresponding to these two subspaces), and for each of these two blocks, the Jordan matrix is
$$ begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1 \ 0 & 0 & 0end{bmatrix}$$
That was the $n = 6$ case. Can you generalise this approach for $n = 7$? And from there, can you generalise for arbitrary $n$?
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you that clears things up I can finish it out from there. More generally when does the "key point" come into play? and do you have any references I could see about that because I've always assumed if you have eigenvectors for an eigenvalue of multiplicity 'n' it follows that you get an (n - 2) jordan block automatically
$endgroup$
– Scosh_lr
Dec 25 '18 at 22:32
1
$begingroup$
@Scosh_lr I'm afraid I don't think I've ever come across such a theorem. To give you another example, suppose we have a $4times 4$ matrix $A$, and I tell you that $A$ has $0$ as an eigenvalue, and no other eigenvalues, and that the dimension of the eigenspace corresponding to the zero eigenvalue is 2-dimensional. Then there are two possible Jordan forms for $A$: either it has a 3-dimensional block and a 1-dimensional block, or it has two 2-dimensional blocks. The fact that the dimension of the eigenspace is two means that we have two blocks.
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 22:43
$begingroup$
why is it not possible to have a 2x2 block and two 1x1 blocks?
$endgroup$
– Scosh_lr
Dec 25 '18 at 22:57
1
$begingroup$
@Scosh_lr Because in that case, the eigenspace would have dimension three. (To spell it out, if $e_1, e_2$ span the $2times 2$ block, and $e_3$ spans a $1 times 1 $ block and $e_4$ spans the other $1 times 1$ block, then $Ae_1 = e_2$, $Ae_2 = 0$, $Ae_3 = 0$ and $Ae_4 = 0$, so $e_2, e_3, e_4$ are all eigenvectors with eigenvalue $0$.)
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 23:24
$begingroup$
Oh I see now, Thanks for the help.
$endgroup$
– Scosh_lr
Dec 25 '18 at 23:26
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let me illustrate this with the $n = 6$ case. Here, we have a basis ${ e_1, e_2, e_3, e_4, e_5, e_6 }$, and the action of $J$ on the basis vectors is given by
$$ Je_1 = e_2, Je_2 = e_3, Je_3 = e_4, Je_4 = e_5, Je_5 = e_6, Je_6 = 0. $$
So the action of $J^2$ on this basis is given by
$$ J^2e_1 = e_3, J^2e_2 = e_4, J^2e_3 = e_5, J^2e_4 = e_6, J^2e_5 = 0, J^2e_6 = 0.$$
[You absolutely right that the kernel of $J^2$ has dimension two, and is spanned by $e_5$ and $e_6$.]
But here is the really key point. Notice that, under the action of $J^2$, the vector space decomposes into two invariant subspaces:
- There is the subspace spanned by ${ e_1, e_3, e_5 }$, on which the action of $J^2$ is
$$ J^2e_1 = e_3, J^2e_3 = e_5, J^2e_5 = 0.$$
- Then there is the subspace spanned by ${ e_2, e_4, e_6 }$, on which the action of $J^2$ is
$$ J^2e_2 = e_4, J^2e_4 = e_6, J^2e_6 = 0 .$$
So $J^2$ has two Jordan blocks (corresponding to these two subspaces), and for each of these two blocks, the Jordan matrix is
$$ begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1 \ 0 & 0 & 0end{bmatrix}$$
That was the $n = 6$ case. Can you generalise this approach for $n = 7$? And from there, can you generalise for arbitrary $n$?
$endgroup$
Let me illustrate this with the $n = 6$ case. Here, we have a basis ${ e_1, e_2, e_3, e_4, e_5, e_6 }$, and the action of $J$ on the basis vectors is given by
$$ Je_1 = e_2, Je_2 = e_3, Je_3 = e_4, Je_4 = e_5, Je_5 = e_6, Je_6 = 0. $$
So the action of $J^2$ on this basis is given by
$$ J^2e_1 = e_3, J^2e_2 = e_4, J^2e_3 = e_5, J^2e_4 = e_6, J^2e_5 = 0, J^2e_6 = 0.$$
[You absolutely right that the kernel of $J^2$ has dimension two, and is spanned by $e_5$ and $e_6$.]
But here is the really key point. Notice that, under the action of $J^2$, the vector space decomposes into two invariant subspaces:
- There is the subspace spanned by ${ e_1, e_3, e_5 }$, on which the action of $J^2$ is
$$ J^2e_1 = e_3, J^2e_3 = e_5, J^2e_5 = 0.$$
- Then there is the subspace spanned by ${ e_2, e_4, e_6 }$, on which the action of $J^2$ is
$$ J^2e_2 = e_4, J^2e_4 = e_6, J^2e_6 = 0 .$$
So $J^2$ has two Jordan blocks (corresponding to these two subspaces), and for each of these two blocks, the Jordan matrix is
$$ begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1 \ 0 & 0 & 0end{bmatrix}$$
That was the $n = 6$ case. Can you generalise this approach for $n = 7$? And from there, can you generalise for arbitrary $n$?
answered Dec 25 '18 at 21:26
Kenny WongKenny Wong
19.1k21441
19.1k21441
$begingroup$
Thank you that clears things up I can finish it out from there. More generally when does the "key point" come into play? and do you have any references I could see about that because I've always assumed if you have eigenvectors for an eigenvalue of multiplicity 'n' it follows that you get an (n - 2) jordan block automatically
$endgroup$
– Scosh_lr
Dec 25 '18 at 22:32
1
$begingroup$
@Scosh_lr I'm afraid I don't think I've ever come across such a theorem. To give you another example, suppose we have a $4times 4$ matrix $A$, and I tell you that $A$ has $0$ as an eigenvalue, and no other eigenvalues, and that the dimension of the eigenspace corresponding to the zero eigenvalue is 2-dimensional. Then there are two possible Jordan forms for $A$: either it has a 3-dimensional block and a 1-dimensional block, or it has two 2-dimensional blocks. The fact that the dimension of the eigenspace is two means that we have two blocks.
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 22:43
$begingroup$
why is it not possible to have a 2x2 block and two 1x1 blocks?
$endgroup$
– Scosh_lr
Dec 25 '18 at 22:57
1
$begingroup$
@Scosh_lr Because in that case, the eigenspace would have dimension three. (To spell it out, if $e_1, e_2$ span the $2times 2$ block, and $e_3$ spans a $1 times 1 $ block and $e_4$ spans the other $1 times 1$ block, then $Ae_1 = e_2$, $Ae_2 = 0$, $Ae_3 = 0$ and $Ae_4 = 0$, so $e_2, e_3, e_4$ are all eigenvectors with eigenvalue $0$.)
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 23:24
$begingroup$
Oh I see now, Thanks for the help.
$endgroup$
– Scosh_lr
Dec 25 '18 at 23:26
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thank you that clears things up I can finish it out from there. More generally when does the "key point" come into play? and do you have any references I could see about that because I've always assumed if you have eigenvectors for an eigenvalue of multiplicity 'n' it follows that you get an (n - 2) jordan block automatically
$endgroup$
– Scosh_lr
Dec 25 '18 at 22:32
1
$begingroup$
@Scosh_lr I'm afraid I don't think I've ever come across such a theorem. To give you another example, suppose we have a $4times 4$ matrix $A$, and I tell you that $A$ has $0$ as an eigenvalue, and no other eigenvalues, and that the dimension of the eigenspace corresponding to the zero eigenvalue is 2-dimensional. Then there are two possible Jordan forms for $A$: either it has a 3-dimensional block and a 1-dimensional block, or it has two 2-dimensional blocks. The fact that the dimension of the eigenspace is two means that we have two blocks.
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 22:43
$begingroup$
why is it not possible to have a 2x2 block and two 1x1 blocks?
$endgroup$
– Scosh_lr
Dec 25 '18 at 22:57
1
$begingroup$
@Scosh_lr Because in that case, the eigenspace would have dimension three. (To spell it out, if $e_1, e_2$ span the $2times 2$ block, and $e_3$ spans a $1 times 1 $ block and $e_4$ spans the other $1 times 1$ block, then $Ae_1 = e_2$, $Ae_2 = 0$, $Ae_3 = 0$ and $Ae_4 = 0$, so $e_2, e_3, e_4$ are all eigenvectors with eigenvalue $0$.)
$endgroup$
– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 23:24
$begingroup$
Oh I see now, Thanks for the help.
$endgroup$
– Scosh_lr
Dec 25 '18 at 23:26
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Thank you that clears things up I can finish it out from there. More generally when does the "key point" come into play? and do you have any references I could see about that because I've always assumed if you have eigenvectors for an eigenvalue of multiplicity 'n' it follows that you get an (n - 2) jordan block automatically
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– Scosh_lr
Dec 25 '18 at 22:32
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Thank you that clears things up I can finish it out from there. More generally when does the "key point" come into play? and do you have any references I could see about that because I've always assumed if you have eigenvectors for an eigenvalue of multiplicity 'n' it follows that you get an (n - 2) jordan block automatically
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– Scosh_lr
Dec 25 '18 at 22:32
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@Scosh_lr I'm afraid I don't think I've ever come across such a theorem. To give you another example, suppose we have a $4times 4$ matrix $A$, and I tell you that $A$ has $0$ as an eigenvalue, and no other eigenvalues, and that the dimension of the eigenspace corresponding to the zero eigenvalue is 2-dimensional. Then there are two possible Jordan forms for $A$: either it has a 3-dimensional block and a 1-dimensional block, or it has two 2-dimensional blocks. The fact that the dimension of the eigenspace is two means that we have two blocks.
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– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 22:43
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@Scosh_lr I'm afraid I don't think I've ever come across such a theorem. To give you another example, suppose we have a $4times 4$ matrix $A$, and I tell you that $A$ has $0$ as an eigenvalue, and no other eigenvalues, and that the dimension of the eigenspace corresponding to the zero eigenvalue is 2-dimensional. Then there are two possible Jordan forms for $A$: either it has a 3-dimensional block and a 1-dimensional block, or it has two 2-dimensional blocks. The fact that the dimension of the eigenspace is two means that we have two blocks.
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– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 22:43
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why is it not possible to have a 2x2 block and two 1x1 blocks?
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– Scosh_lr
Dec 25 '18 at 22:57
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why is it not possible to have a 2x2 block and two 1x1 blocks?
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– Scosh_lr
Dec 25 '18 at 22:57
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@Scosh_lr Because in that case, the eigenspace would have dimension three. (To spell it out, if $e_1, e_2$ span the $2times 2$ block, and $e_3$ spans a $1 times 1 $ block and $e_4$ spans the other $1 times 1$ block, then $Ae_1 = e_2$, $Ae_2 = 0$, $Ae_3 = 0$ and $Ae_4 = 0$, so $e_2, e_3, e_4$ are all eigenvectors with eigenvalue $0$.)
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– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 23:24
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@Scosh_lr Because in that case, the eigenspace would have dimension three. (To spell it out, if $e_1, e_2$ span the $2times 2$ block, and $e_3$ spans a $1 times 1 $ block and $e_4$ spans the other $1 times 1$ block, then $Ae_1 = e_2$, $Ae_2 = 0$, $Ae_3 = 0$ and $Ae_4 = 0$, so $e_2, e_3, e_4$ are all eigenvectors with eigenvalue $0$.)
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– Kenny Wong
Dec 25 '18 at 23:24
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Oh I see now, Thanks for the help.
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– Scosh_lr
Dec 25 '18 at 23:26
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Oh I see now, Thanks for the help.
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– Scosh_lr
Dec 25 '18 at 23:26
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