Proving this mapping is equal to the identity












2












$begingroup$


Question:



Let $f, g$ be mappings of a set $S$ into itself. Assume that $f^2 = g^2 = I$ and that $f circ g = g circ f$.



Prove that $ (f circ g)^2 = I $. Prove that $ (f circ g)^3 = I $.



My Answer:



$ (f circ g)^2 = (f circ g) circ (f circ g) = f circ gcirc fcirc g = f^2 circ g^2 = I circ I= I $



$ (f circ g)^3 = (f circ g) circ (f circ g) circ (f circ g) = f circ gcirc fcirc g circ fcirc g = f^2 circ g^2 circ f circ g= I circ I circ fcirc g= f circ g ; ...$



I've worked out the first part of the question and reduced the second part of a the question to the case of showing that $ (f circ g) = I $, but I can't get any further than that. I also noted down that $ f = f^{-1} $ and $ g = g^{-1} $. I'm not sure whether this plays into it. Could someone point me in the right direction or point out if I'm making a mistake. I almost want to say this is a mistake in the book as I know there a couple in this book but I don't want to give up without knowing for sure. If it's of any help, this is from Serge Lang's Basic Mathematics.



Thank you










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$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$


    Question:



    Let $f, g$ be mappings of a set $S$ into itself. Assume that $f^2 = g^2 = I$ and that $f circ g = g circ f$.



    Prove that $ (f circ g)^2 = I $. Prove that $ (f circ g)^3 = I $.



    My Answer:



    $ (f circ g)^2 = (f circ g) circ (f circ g) = f circ gcirc fcirc g = f^2 circ g^2 = I circ I= I $



    $ (f circ g)^3 = (f circ g) circ (f circ g) circ (f circ g) = f circ gcirc fcirc g circ fcirc g = f^2 circ g^2 circ f circ g= I circ I circ fcirc g= f circ g ; ...$



    I've worked out the first part of the question and reduced the second part of a the question to the case of showing that $ (f circ g) = I $, but I can't get any further than that. I also noted down that $ f = f^{-1} $ and $ g = g^{-1} $. I'm not sure whether this plays into it. Could someone point me in the right direction or point out if I'm making a mistake. I almost want to say this is a mistake in the book as I know there a couple in this book but I don't want to give up without knowing for sure. If it's of any help, this is from Serge Lang's Basic Mathematics.



    Thank you










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      Question:



      Let $f, g$ be mappings of a set $S$ into itself. Assume that $f^2 = g^2 = I$ and that $f circ g = g circ f$.



      Prove that $ (f circ g)^2 = I $. Prove that $ (f circ g)^3 = I $.



      My Answer:



      $ (f circ g)^2 = (f circ g) circ (f circ g) = f circ gcirc fcirc g = f^2 circ g^2 = I circ I= I $



      $ (f circ g)^3 = (f circ g) circ (f circ g) circ (f circ g) = f circ gcirc fcirc g circ fcirc g = f^2 circ g^2 circ f circ g= I circ I circ fcirc g= f circ g ; ...$



      I've worked out the first part of the question and reduced the second part of a the question to the case of showing that $ (f circ g) = I $, but I can't get any further than that. I also noted down that $ f = f^{-1} $ and $ g = g^{-1} $. I'm not sure whether this plays into it. Could someone point me in the right direction or point out if I'm making a mistake. I almost want to say this is a mistake in the book as I know there a couple in this book but I don't want to give up without knowing for sure. If it's of any help, this is from Serge Lang's Basic Mathematics.



      Thank you










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Question:



      Let $f, g$ be mappings of a set $S$ into itself. Assume that $f^2 = g^2 = I$ and that $f circ g = g circ f$.



      Prove that $ (f circ g)^2 = I $. Prove that $ (f circ g)^3 = I $.



      My Answer:



      $ (f circ g)^2 = (f circ g) circ (f circ g) = f circ gcirc fcirc g = f^2 circ g^2 = I circ I= I $



      $ (f circ g)^3 = (f circ g) circ (f circ g) circ (f circ g) = f circ gcirc fcirc g circ fcirc g = f^2 circ g^2 circ f circ g= I circ I circ fcirc g= f circ g ; ...$



      I've worked out the first part of the question and reduced the second part of a the question to the case of showing that $ (f circ g) = I $, but I can't get any further than that. I also noted down that $ f = f^{-1} $ and $ g = g^{-1} $. I'm not sure whether this plays into it. Could someone point me in the right direction or point out if I'm making a mistake. I almost want to say this is a mistake in the book as I know there a couple in this book but I don't want to give up without knowing for sure. If it's of any help, this is from Serge Lang's Basic Mathematics.



      Thank you







      algebra-precalculus functions






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      asked Jan 6 at 23:43









      peachespeaches

      153




      153






















          1 Answer
          1






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          $begingroup$

          The second part seems false: take $S=mathbb{R}^2$, $f(x,y)=(x,-y)$, $g(x,y)=(-x,y)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I think you're right. Seems to check the three requirements and definietly does not hold. Thank you for your help!
            $endgroup$
            – peaches
            Jan 7 at 0:15












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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          3












          $begingroup$

          The second part seems false: take $S=mathbb{R}^2$, $f(x,y)=(x,-y)$, $g(x,y)=(-x,y)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I think you're right. Seems to check the three requirements and definietly does not hold. Thank you for your help!
            $endgroup$
            – peaches
            Jan 7 at 0:15
















          3












          $begingroup$

          The second part seems false: take $S=mathbb{R}^2$, $f(x,y)=(x,-y)$, $g(x,y)=(-x,y)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I think you're right. Seems to check the three requirements and definietly does not hold. Thank you for your help!
            $endgroup$
            – peaches
            Jan 7 at 0:15














          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$

          The second part seems false: take $S=mathbb{R}^2$, $f(x,y)=(x,-y)$, $g(x,y)=(-x,y)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          The second part seems false: take $S=mathbb{R}^2$, $f(x,y)=(x,-y)$, $g(x,y)=(-x,y)$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 7 at 0:00









          MindlackMindlack

          4,910211




          4,910211












          • $begingroup$
            I think you're right. Seems to check the three requirements and definietly does not hold. Thank you for your help!
            $endgroup$
            – peaches
            Jan 7 at 0:15


















          • $begingroup$
            I think you're right. Seems to check the three requirements and definietly does not hold. Thank you for your help!
            $endgroup$
            – peaches
            Jan 7 at 0:15
















          $begingroup$
          I think you're right. Seems to check the three requirements and definietly does not hold. Thank you for your help!
          $endgroup$
          – peaches
          Jan 7 at 0:15




          $begingroup$
          I think you're right. Seems to check the three requirements and definietly does not hold. Thank you for your help!
          $endgroup$
          – peaches
          Jan 7 at 0:15


















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