Find $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ and $bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty}...












0















For $ n,m in Bbb N $, $A_{n,m}=left{ x in Bbb R: n^2 le x<m^2+(n+1)^2 right}$, find
$$bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
$$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}.$$




I suppose that $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=R^{+}$
and $bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset $.










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  • They are correct, but what is the question?
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Nov 29 at 9:40










  • to designate $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} \ bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} $
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 at 9:44










  • and how can i show that it is right?
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 at 9:47






  • 1




    I suspect that you mean something like find, or compute. I've edited accordingly, but feel free to change it if you meant something else.
    – Arnaud D.
    Nov 29 at 9:47












  • yes, thank you :)
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 at 9:49
















0















For $ n,m in Bbb N $, $A_{n,m}=left{ x in Bbb R: n^2 le x<m^2+(n+1)^2 right}$, find
$$bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
$$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}.$$




I suppose that $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=R^{+}$
and $bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset $.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • They are correct, but what is the question?
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Nov 29 at 9:40










  • to designate $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} \ bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} $
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 at 9:44










  • and how can i show that it is right?
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 at 9:47






  • 1




    I suspect that you mean something like find, or compute. I've edited accordingly, but feel free to change it if you meant something else.
    – Arnaud D.
    Nov 29 at 9:47












  • yes, thank you :)
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 at 9:49














0












0








0








For $ n,m in Bbb N $, $A_{n,m}=left{ x in Bbb R: n^2 le x<m^2+(n+1)^2 right}$, find
$$bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
$$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}.$$




I suppose that $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=R^{+}$
and $bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset $.










share|cite|improve this question
















For $ n,m in Bbb N $, $A_{n,m}=left{ x in Bbb R: n^2 le x<m^2+(n+1)^2 right}$, find
$$bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
$$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}.$$




I suppose that $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=R^{+}$
and $bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset $.







elementary-set-theory






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edited Nov 29 at 10:09









miracle173

7,31222247




7,31222247










asked Nov 29 at 9:36









math.trouble

496




496












  • They are correct, but what is the question?
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Nov 29 at 9:40










  • to designate $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} \ bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} $
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 at 9:44










  • and how can i show that it is right?
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 at 9:47






  • 1




    I suspect that you mean something like find, or compute. I've edited accordingly, but feel free to change it if you meant something else.
    – Arnaud D.
    Nov 29 at 9:47












  • yes, thank you :)
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 at 9:49


















  • They are correct, but what is the question?
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Nov 29 at 9:40










  • to designate $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} \ bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} $
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 at 9:44










  • and how can i show that it is right?
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 at 9:47






  • 1




    I suspect that you mean something like find, or compute. I've edited accordingly, but feel free to change it if you meant something else.
    – Arnaud D.
    Nov 29 at 9:47












  • yes, thank you :)
    – math.trouble
    Nov 29 at 9:49
















They are correct, but what is the question?
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Nov 29 at 9:40




They are correct, but what is the question?
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Nov 29 at 9:40












to designate $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} \ bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} $
– math.trouble
Nov 29 at 9:44




to designate $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} \ bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} $
– math.trouble
Nov 29 at 9:44












and how can i show that it is right?
– math.trouble
Nov 29 at 9:47




and how can i show that it is right?
– math.trouble
Nov 29 at 9:47




1




1




I suspect that you mean something like find, or compute. I've edited accordingly, but feel free to change it if you meant something else.
– Arnaud D.
Nov 29 at 9:47






I suspect that you mean something like find, or compute. I've edited accordingly, but feel free to change it if you meant something else.
– Arnaud D.
Nov 29 at 9:47














yes, thank you :)
– math.trouble
Nov 29 at 9:49




yes, thank you :)
– math.trouble
Nov 29 at 9:49










4 Answers
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First result: For any $n, m in mathbb{N}$,



$$[n^2, (n+1)^2[subseteq A_{n,m}$$



$$implies bigcup_{n=0}^{infty}[n^2, (n+1)^2[ subseteqbigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
$$implies R^{+} subseteqbigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
$$implies bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = R^{+}$$ for all $m$. Then you intersect $R^{+}$ with itself for all $m$ and you get your first result.



Second result: We take a given $m in mathbb{N}$. We want to find $n_1, n_2 in mathbb{N}$ such that $A_{{n_1},m} bigcap A_{{n_2},m} = emptyset$. All you have to do is pick $n_1 = 0$ and $n_2 = m+1$ : $$A_{{0},m} bigcap A_{{m+1},m} = [0, m^2 + 1[ bigcap [(m+1)^2, m^2 + (m+2)^2[ = emptyset$$
The union of an infinity of empty sets is still an empty set so you get your second result.






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    1














    We first show that any positive number belongs to $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$. Notice that any positive number lies always between two consecutive perfect squares i.e. $$forall x>0qquadexists Nqquad N^2le x<(N+1)^2$$therefore $$N^2le x<(N+1)^2le m^2+(N+1)^2$$which means that for all $min Bbb N^*$ we have $xin A_{n,m}$ for some $n$ therefore $xin B_m=bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ and this means that $xin bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} B_m=bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$. Also $0in bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ from which we obtain$$bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=Bbb R^{ge 0}$$



    Second, we show that no non-negative real belongs to $bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ for all $m$. This can be simply proved since any real non negative number is finite and for large enough $n$ (i.e. $n^2>x$) we have $xnotin A_n$ which means that $bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=emptyset$. Since the union of empty sets is still an empty set we finally obtain$$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset $$and the proof is complete.






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      0














      Let $xin mathbb R^{+}$ and $ mgeq 0$. Take $n=[sqrt x]$ and verify that $n^{2}leq x leq m^{2}+(n+1)^{2}$. This proves the first relation. Suppose the $y$ belongs to the second set. Then there exists $m$ such that $n^{2}leq x leq m^{2}+(n+1)^{2}$ for all $n$. But then $n^{2} leq x$ and $xleq m^{2}+(1+1)^{2}$, so $n^{2} leq m^{2}+(1+1)^{2}$ for any $n geq 0$ which is absurd. Hence the second set is empty.






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        0














        $$B = bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$



        Since $A$ is never has a negative, you can reason that $B$ doesn't either. Proving the rest is equivalent to



        $$(forall x in mathbb R^{ge 0} ~forall m in mathbb N ~ exists n in mathbb N)~
        n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m$$



        So to prove it you need to give me a function $F$, of the form $n = F(x,m)$, such that if I tell you $x$ and $m$ your function tells me which $n$ it is in. $F$ is pretty direct nothing tricky about it.



        $$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset$$



        $$(forall x in mathbb R) lnot (exists m in mathbb N ~forall n in mathbb N)~
        n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m $$



        equivalently



        $$(forall x in mathbb R ~ forall m in mathbb N ~exists n in mathbb N)~
        lnot (n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m)$$



        So same thing again, your proof will be demonstrating a function $F$ such that $n = F(x, m)$, but in this case it is to give a contradiction of the inequality. If $x < 0$ it is easy,



        $$n = begin{cases} x < 0 &quad text{Anything} \
        x ge 0 &quad text{To be determined}
        end{cases}$$



        I suggest just pick an $n$ that is so big that $x$ can't be in range.






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          4 Answers
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          4 Answers
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          active

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          1














          First result: For any $n, m in mathbb{N}$,



          $$[n^2, (n+1)^2[subseteq A_{n,m}$$



          $$implies bigcup_{n=0}^{infty}[n^2, (n+1)^2[ subseteqbigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
          $$implies R^{+} subseteqbigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
          $$implies bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = R^{+}$$ for all $m$. Then you intersect $R^{+}$ with itself for all $m$ and you get your first result.



          Second result: We take a given $m in mathbb{N}$. We want to find $n_1, n_2 in mathbb{N}$ such that $A_{{n_1},m} bigcap A_{{n_2},m} = emptyset$. All you have to do is pick $n_1 = 0$ and $n_2 = m+1$ : $$A_{{0},m} bigcap A_{{m+1},m} = [0, m^2 + 1[ bigcap [(m+1)^2, m^2 + (m+2)^2[ = emptyset$$
          The union of an infinity of empty sets is still an empty set so you get your second result.






          share|cite|improve this answer


























            1














            First result: For any $n, m in mathbb{N}$,



            $$[n^2, (n+1)^2[subseteq A_{n,m}$$



            $$implies bigcup_{n=0}^{infty}[n^2, (n+1)^2[ subseteqbigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
            $$implies R^{+} subseteqbigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
            $$implies bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = R^{+}$$ for all $m$. Then you intersect $R^{+}$ with itself for all $m$ and you get your first result.



            Second result: We take a given $m in mathbb{N}$. We want to find $n_1, n_2 in mathbb{N}$ such that $A_{{n_1},m} bigcap A_{{n_2},m} = emptyset$. All you have to do is pick $n_1 = 0$ and $n_2 = m+1$ : $$A_{{0},m} bigcap A_{{m+1},m} = [0, m^2 + 1[ bigcap [(m+1)^2, m^2 + (m+2)^2[ = emptyset$$
            The union of an infinity of empty sets is still an empty set so you get your second result.






            share|cite|improve this answer
























              1












              1








              1






              First result: For any $n, m in mathbb{N}$,



              $$[n^2, (n+1)^2[subseteq A_{n,m}$$



              $$implies bigcup_{n=0}^{infty}[n^2, (n+1)^2[ subseteqbigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
              $$implies R^{+} subseteqbigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
              $$implies bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = R^{+}$$ for all $m$. Then you intersect $R^{+}$ with itself for all $m$ and you get your first result.



              Second result: We take a given $m in mathbb{N}$. We want to find $n_1, n_2 in mathbb{N}$ such that $A_{{n_1},m} bigcap A_{{n_2},m} = emptyset$. All you have to do is pick $n_1 = 0$ and $n_2 = m+1$ : $$A_{{0},m} bigcap A_{{m+1},m} = [0, m^2 + 1[ bigcap [(m+1)^2, m^2 + (m+2)^2[ = emptyset$$
              The union of an infinity of empty sets is still an empty set so you get your second result.






              share|cite|improve this answer












              First result: For any $n, m in mathbb{N}$,



              $$[n^2, (n+1)^2[subseteq A_{n,m}$$



              $$implies bigcup_{n=0}^{infty}[n^2, (n+1)^2[ subseteqbigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
              $$implies R^{+} subseteqbigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$
              $$implies bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = R^{+}$$ for all $m$. Then you intersect $R^{+}$ with itself for all $m$ and you get your first result.



              Second result: We take a given $m in mathbb{N}$. We want to find $n_1, n_2 in mathbb{N}$ such that $A_{{n_1},m} bigcap A_{{n_2},m} = emptyset$. All you have to do is pick $n_1 = 0$ and $n_2 = m+1$ : $$A_{{0},m} bigcap A_{{m+1},m} = [0, m^2 + 1[ bigcap [(m+1)^2, m^2 + (m+2)^2[ = emptyset$$
              The union of an infinity of empty sets is still an empty set so you get your second result.







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              answered Nov 29 at 10:03









              Rchn

              49015




              49015























                  1














                  We first show that any positive number belongs to $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$. Notice that any positive number lies always between two consecutive perfect squares i.e. $$forall x>0qquadexists Nqquad N^2le x<(N+1)^2$$therefore $$N^2le x<(N+1)^2le m^2+(N+1)^2$$which means that for all $min Bbb N^*$ we have $xin A_{n,m}$ for some $n$ therefore $xin B_m=bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ and this means that $xin bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} B_m=bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$. Also $0in bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ from which we obtain$$bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=Bbb R^{ge 0}$$



                  Second, we show that no non-negative real belongs to $bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ for all $m$. This can be simply proved since any real non negative number is finite and for large enough $n$ (i.e. $n^2>x$) we have $xnotin A_n$ which means that $bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=emptyset$. Since the union of empty sets is still an empty set we finally obtain$$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset $$and the proof is complete.






                  share|cite|improve this answer


























                    1














                    We first show that any positive number belongs to $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$. Notice that any positive number lies always between two consecutive perfect squares i.e. $$forall x>0qquadexists Nqquad N^2le x<(N+1)^2$$therefore $$N^2le x<(N+1)^2le m^2+(N+1)^2$$which means that for all $min Bbb N^*$ we have $xin A_{n,m}$ for some $n$ therefore $xin B_m=bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ and this means that $xin bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} B_m=bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$. Also $0in bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ from which we obtain$$bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=Bbb R^{ge 0}$$



                    Second, we show that no non-negative real belongs to $bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ for all $m$. This can be simply proved since any real non negative number is finite and for large enough $n$ (i.e. $n^2>x$) we have $xnotin A_n$ which means that $bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=emptyset$. Since the union of empty sets is still an empty set we finally obtain$$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset $$and the proof is complete.






                    share|cite|improve this answer
























                      1












                      1








                      1






                      We first show that any positive number belongs to $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$. Notice that any positive number lies always between two consecutive perfect squares i.e. $$forall x>0qquadexists Nqquad N^2le x<(N+1)^2$$therefore $$N^2le x<(N+1)^2le m^2+(N+1)^2$$which means that for all $min Bbb N^*$ we have $xin A_{n,m}$ for some $n$ therefore $xin B_m=bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ and this means that $xin bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} B_m=bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$. Also $0in bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ from which we obtain$$bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=Bbb R^{ge 0}$$



                      Second, we show that no non-negative real belongs to $bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ for all $m$. This can be simply proved since any real non negative number is finite and for large enough $n$ (i.e. $n^2>x$) we have $xnotin A_n$ which means that $bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=emptyset$. Since the union of empty sets is still an empty set we finally obtain$$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset $$and the proof is complete.






                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      We first show that any positive number belongs to $bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$. Notice that any positive number lies always between two consecutive perfect squares i.e. $$forall x>0qquadexists Nqquad N^2le x<(N+1)^2$$therefore $$N^2le x<(N+1)^2le m^2+(N+1)^2$$which means that for all $min Bbb N^*$ we have $xin A_{n,m}$ for some $n$ therefore $xin B_m=bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ and this means that $xin bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} B_m=bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$. Also $0in bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ from which we obtain$$bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=Bbb R^{ge 0}$$



                      Second, we show that no non-negative real belongs to $bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$ for all $m$. This can be simply proved since any real non negative number is finite and for large enough $n$ (i.e. $n^2>x$) we have $xnotin A_n$ which means that $bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}=emptyset$. Since the union of empty sets is still an empty set we finally obtain$$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset $$and the proof is complete.







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                      answered Nov 29 at 10:27









                      Mostafa Ayaz

                      13.7k3836




                      13.7k3836























                          0














                          Let $xin mathbb R^{+}$ and $ mgeq 0$. Take $n=[sqrt x]$ and verify that $n^{2}leq x leq m^{2}+(n+1)^{2}$. This proves the first relation. Suppose the $y$ belongs to the second set. Then there exists $m$ such that $n^{2}leq x leq m^{2}+(n+1)^{2}$ for all $n$. But then $n^{2} leq x$ and $xleq m^{2}+(1+1)^{2}$, so $n^{2} leq m^{2}+(1+1)^{2}$ for any $n geq 0$ which is absurd. Hence the second set is empty.






                          share|cite|improve this answer


























                            0














                            Let $xin mathbb R^{+}$ and $ mgeq 0$. Take $n=[sqrt x]$ and verify that $n^{2}leq x leq m^{2}+(n+1)^{2}$. This proves the first relation. Suppose the $y$ belongs to the second set. Then there exists $m$ such that $n^{2}leq x leq m^{2}+(n+1)^{2}$ for all $n$. But then $n^{2} leq x$ and $xleq m^{2}+(1+1)^{2}$, so $n^{2} leq m^{2}+(1+1)^{2}$ for any $n geq 0$ which is absurd. Hence the second set is empty.






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                              0












                              0








                              0






                              Let $xin mathbb R^{+}$ and $ mgeq 0$. Take $n=[sqrt x]$ and verify that $n^{2}leq x leq m^{2}+(n+1)^{2}$. This proves the first relation. Suppose the $y$ belongs to the second set. Then there exists $m$ such that $n^{2}leq x leq m^{2}+(n+1)^{2}$ for all $n$. But then $n^{2} leq x$ and $xleq m^{2}+(1+1)^{2}$, so $n^{2} leq m^{2}+(1+1)^{2}$ for any $n geq 0$ which is absurd. Hence the second set is empty.






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                              Let $xin mathbb R^{+}$ and $ mgeq 0$. Take $n=[sqrt x]$ and verify that $n^{2}leq x leq m^{2}+(n+1)^{2}$. This proves the first relation. Suppose the $y$ belongs to the second set. Then there exists $m$ such that $n^{2}leq x leq m^{2}+(n+1)^{2}$ for all $n$. But then $n^{2} leq x$ and $xleq m^{2}+(1+1)^{2}$, so $n^{2} leq m^{2}+(1+1)^{2}$ for any $n geq 0$ which is absurd. Hence the second set is empty.







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                              answered Nov 29 at 10:06









                              Kavi Rama Murthy

                              48.9k31854




                              48.9k31854























                                  0














                                  $$B = bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$



                                  Since $A$ is never has a negative, you can reason that $B$ doesn't either. Proving the rest is equivalent to



                                  $$(forall x in mathbb R^{ge 0} ~forall m in mathbb N ~ exists n in mathbb N)~
                                  n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m$$



                                  So to prove it you need to give me a function $F$, of the form $n = F(x,m)$, such that if I tell you $x$ and $m$ your function tells me which $n$ it is in. $F$ is pretty direct nothing tricky about it.



                                  $$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset$$



                                  $$(forall x in mathbb R) lnot (exists m in mathbb N ~forall n in mathbb N)~
                                  n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m $$



                                  equivalently



                                  $$(forall x in mathbb R ~ forall m in mathbb N ~exists n in mathbb N)~
                                  lnot (n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m)$$



                                  So same thing again, your proof will be demonstrating a function $F$ such that $n = F(x, m)$, but in this case it is to give a contradiction of the inequality. If $x < 0$ it is easy,



                                  $$n = begin{cases} x < 0 &quad text{Anything} \
                                  x ge 0 &quad text{To be determined}
                                  end{cases}$$



                                  I suggest just pick an $n$ that is so big that $x$ can't be in range.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer


























                                    0














                                    $$B = bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$



                                    Since $A$ is never has a negative, you can reason that $B$ doesn't either. Proving the rest is equivalent to



                                    $$(forall x in mathbb R^{ge 0} ~forall m in mathbb N ~ exists n in mathbb N)~
                                    n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m$$



                                    So to prove it you need to give me a function $F$, of the form $n = F(x,m)$, such that if I tell you $x$ and $m$ your function tells me which $n$ it is in. $F$ is pretty direct nothing tricky about it.



                                    $$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset$$



                                    $$(forall x in mathbb R) lnot (exists m in mathbb N ~forall n in mathbb N)~
                                    n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m $$



                                    equivalently



                                    $$(forall x in mathbb R ~ forall m in mathbb N ~exists n in mathbb N)~
                                    lnot (n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m)$$



                                    So same thing again, your proof will be demonstrating a function $F$ such that $n = F(x, m)$, but in this case it is to give a contradiction of the inequality. If $x < 0$ it is easy,



                                    $$n = begin{cases} x < 0 &quad text{Anything} \
                                    x ge 0 &quad text{To be determined}
                                    end{cases}$$



                                    I suggest just pick an $n$ that is so big that $x$ can't be in range.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer
























                                      0












                                      0








                                      0






                                      $$B = bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$



                                      Since $A$ is never has a negative, you can reason that $B$ doesn't either. Proving the rest is equivalent to



                                      $$(forall x in mathbb R^{ge 0} ~forall m in mathbb N ~ exists n in mathbb N)~
                                      n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m$$



                                      So to prove it you need to give me a function $F$, of the form $n = F(x,m)$, such that if I tell you $x$ and $m$ your function tells me which $n$ it is in. $F$ is pretty direct nothing tricky about it.



                                      $$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset$$



                                      $$(forall x in mathbb R) lnot (exists m in mathbb N ~forall n in mathbb N)~
                                      n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m $$



                                      equivalently



                                      $$(forall x in mathbb R ~ forall m in mathbb N ~exists n in mathbb N)~
                                      lnot (n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m)$$



                                      So same thing again, your proof will be demonstrating a function $F$ such that $n = F(x, m)$, but in this case it is to give a contradiction of the inequality. If $x < 0$ it is easy,



                                      $$n = begin{cases} x < 0 &quad text{Anything} \
                                      x ge 0 &quad text{To be determined}
                                      end{cases}$$



                                      I suggest just pick an $n$ that is so big that $x$ can't be in range.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      $$B = bigcap_{m=0}^{infty} bigcup_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m}$$



                                      Since $A$ is never has a negative, you can reason that $B$ doesn't either. Proving the rest is equivalent to



                                      $$(forall x in mathbb R^{ge 0} ~forall m in mathbb N ~ exists n in mathbb N)~
                                      n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m$$



                                      So to prove it you need to give me a function $F$, of the form $n = F(x,m)$, such that if I tell you $x$ and $m$ your function tells me which $n$ it is in. $F$ is pretty direct nothing tricky about it.



                                      $$bigcup_{m=0}^{infty} bigcap_{n=0}^{infty} A_{n,m} = emptyset$$



                                      $$(forall x in mathbb R) lnot (exists m in mathbb N ~forall n in mathbb N)~
                                      n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m $$



                                      equivalently



                                      $$(forall x in mathbb R ~ forall m in mathbb N ~exists n in mathbb N)~
                                      lnot (n^2 le x < (n+1)^2 + m)$$



                                      So same thing again, your proof will be demonstrating a function $F$ such that $n = F(x, m)$, but in this case it is to give a contradiction of the inequality. If $x < 0$ it is easy,



                                      $$n = begin{cases} x < 0 &quad text{Anything} \
                                      x ge 0 &quad text{To be determined}
                                      end{cases}$$



                                      I suggest just pick an $n$ that is so big that $x$ can't be in range.







                                      share|cite|improve this answer












                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer










                                      answered Nov 29 at 10:26









                                      DanielV

                                      17.8k42754




                                      17.8k42754






























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