I need help proving $operatorname{Im}(ie^{-2t}(cos(2t)+isin(2t))=e^{-2t}cos(2t)$












1














This is an example from my textbook.



$$operatorname{Im}(ie^{-2t}(cos(2t)+isin(2t))=e^{-2t}cos(2t)$$



I don't understand why the imaginary part of this expression equals $e^{-2t}cos(2t)$



Can anyone clarify this?










share|cite|improve this question





























    1














    This is an example from my textbook.



    $$operatorname{Im}(ie^{-2t}(cos(2t)+isin(2t))=e^{-2t}cos(2t)$$



    I don't understand why the imaginary part of this expression equals $e^{-2t}cos(2t)$



    Can anyone clarify this?










    share|cite|improve this question



























      1












      1








      1







      This is an example from my textbook.



      $$operatorname{Im}(ie^{-2t}(cos(2t)+isin(2t))=e^{-2t}cos(2t)$$



      I don't understand why the imaginary part of this expression equals $e^{-2t}cos(2t)$



      Can anyone clarify this?










      share|cite|improve this question















      This is an example from my textbook.



      $$operatorname{Im}(ie^{-2t}(cos(2t)+isin(2t))=e^{-2t}cos(2t)$$



      I don't understand why the imaginary part of this expression equals $e^{-2t}cos(2t)$



      Can anyone clarify this?







      complex-numbers






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      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Nov 29 at 9:42









      Bernard

      118k638111




      118k638111










      asked Nov 29 at 9:10









      Boris Grunwald

      1487




      1487






















          1 Answer
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          0














          Recall that for a complex number $z=a+ib$, where $a,binmathbb{R}$, the number $a$ is said to be the real part and $b$ the imaginary part. In your case,
          $$ ie^{-2t}(cos(2t)+isin(2t)) = ie^{-2t}cos(2t) + i^2e^{-2t}sin(2t) = underbrace{-e^{-2t}sin(2t)}_{text{real part}}+icdotunderbrace{e^{-2t}cos(2t)}_{text{imaginary part}}. $$






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • But on the RHS the $i$ is gone. Why is that?
            – Boris Grunwald
            Nov 29 at 9:14










          • @BorisGrunwald Recall that $i^2 = -1$.
            – MisterRiemann
            Nov 29 at 9:15










          • Thanks, I get it now :)
            – Boris Grunwald
            Nov 29 at 9:17











          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
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          active

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          active

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          active

          oldest

          votes









          0














          Recall that for a complex number $z=a+ib$, where $a,binmathbb{R}$, the number $a$ is said to be the real part and $b$ the imaginary part. In your case,
          $$ ie^{-2t}(cos(2t)+isin(2t)) = ie^{-2t}cos(2t) + i^2e^{-2t}sin(2t) = underbrace{-e^{-2t}sin(2t)}_{text{real part}}+icdotunderbrace{e^{-2t}cos(2t)}_{text{imaginary part}}. $$






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • But on the RHS the $i$ is gone. Why is that?
            – Boris Grunwald
            Nov 29 at 9:14










          • @BorisGrunwald Recall that $i^2 = -1$.
            – MisterRiemann
            Nov 29 at 9:15










          • Thanks, I get it now :)
            – Boris Grunwald
            Nov 29 at 9:17
















          0














          Recall that for a complex number $z=a+ib$, where $a,binmathbb{R}$, the number $a$ is said to be the real part and $b$ the imaginary part. In your case,
          $$ ie^{-2t}(cos(2t)+isin(2t)) = ie^{-2t}cos(2t) + i^2e^{-2t}sin(2t) = underbrace{-e^{-2t}sin(2t)}_{text{real part}}+icdotunderbrace{e^{-2t}cos(2t)}_{text{imaginary part}}. $$






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • But on the RHS the $i$ is gone. Why is that?
            – Boris Grunwald
            Nov 29 at 9:14










          • @BorisGrunwald Recall that $i^2 = -1$.
            – MisterRiemann
            Nov 29 at 9:15










          • Thanks, I get it now :)
            – Boris Grunwald
            Nov 29 at 9:17














          0












          0








          0






          Recall that for a complex number $z=a+ib$, where $a,binmathbb{R}$, the number $a$ is said to be the real part and $b$ the imaginary part. In your case,
          $$ ie^{-2t}(cos(2t)+isin(2t)) = ie^{-2t}cos(2t) + i^2e^{-2t}sin(2t) = underbrace{-e^{-2t}sin(2t)}_{text{real part}}+icdotunderbrace{e^{-2t}cos(2t)}_{text{imaginary part}}. $$






          share|cite|improve this answer














          Recall that for a complex number $z=a+ib$, where $a,binmathbb{R}$, the number $a$ is said to be the real part and $b$ the imaginary part. In your case,
          $$ ie^{-2t}(cos(2t)+isin(2t)) = ie^{-2t}cos(2t) + i^2e^{-2t}sin(2t) = underbrace{-e^{-2t}sin(2t)}_{text{real part}}+icdotunderbrace{e^{-2t}cos(2t)}_{text{imaginary part}}. $$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Nov 29 at 9:14

























          answered Nov 29 at 9:13









          MisterRiemann

          5,7291624




          5,7291624












          • But on the RHS the $i$ is gone. Why is that?
            – Boris Grunwald
            Nov 29 at 9:14










          • @BorisGrunwald Recall that $i^2 = -1$.
            – MisterRiemann
            Nov 29 at 9:15










          • Thanks, I get it now :)
            – Boris Grunwald
            Nov 29 at 9:17


















          • But on the RHS the $i$ is gone. Why is that?
            – Boris Grunwald
            Nov 29 at 9:14










          • @BorisGrunwald Recall that $i^2 = -1$.
            – MisterRiemann
            Nov 29 at 9:15










          • Thanks, I get it now :)
            – Boris Grunwald
            Nov 29 at 9:17
















          But on the RHS the $i$ is gone. Why is that?
          – Boris Grunwald
          Nov 29 at 9:14




          But on the RHS the $i$ is gone. Why is that?
          – Boris Grunwald
          Nov 29 at 9:14












          @BorisGrunwald Recall that $i^2 = -1$.
          – MisterRiemann
          Nov 29 at 9:15




          @BorisGrunwald Recall that $i^2 = -1$.
          – MisterRiemann
          Nov 29 at 9:15












          Thanks, I get it now :)
          – Boris Grunwald
          Nov 29 at 9:17




          Thanks, I get it now :)
          – Boris Grunwald
          Nov 29 at 9:17


















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