An example of neither open nor closed set











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I need a very simple example of a set of real numbers (if there is any) that is neither closed nor open, along with an explanation of why it is so.










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    I need a very simple example of a set of real numbers (if there is any) that is neither closed nor open, along with an explanation of why it is so.










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      up vote
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      favorite
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      5





      I need a very simple example of a set of real numbers (if there is any) that is neither closed nor open, along with an explanation of why it is so.










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      I need a very simple example of a set of real numbers (if there is any) that is neither closed nor open, along with an explanation of why it is so.







      general-topology






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      edited Sep 2 at 9:39









      Gaurang Tandon

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      3,50022147










      asked Aug 24 '12 at 0:27









      Monkey D. Luffy

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          $[0,1)$



          It is not open because there is no $epsilon > 0$ such that $(0-epsilon,0+epsilon) subseteq [0,1)$.



          It is not closed because $1$ is a limit point of the set which is not contained in it.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • One last Question, does the set has be connected? for example:- [1,2]U[3,4] ... what can we say about this set?
            – Monkey D. Luffy
            Aug 24 '12 at 0:36






          • 2




            @MonkeyD.Luffy A finite union of closed sets is closed, an arbitrary intersection of closed sets is closed. DeMorgan's Law gives you the analogous statements for open sets.
            – Eugene Shvarts
            Aug 24 '12 at 0:37


















          up vote
          19
          down vote













          For a slightly more exotic example, the rationals, $mathbb{Q}$.



          They are not open because any interval about a rational point $r$, $(r-epsilon,r+epsilon)$, contains an irrational point.



          They are not closed because every irrational point is the limit of a sequence of rational points. If $s$ is irrational, consider the sequence $left{ dfrac{lfloor10^n srfloor}{10^n} right}.$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • $mathbb Q$ is exotic?
            – celtschk
            Sep 2 at 10:28


















          up vote
          13
          down vote













          Let $A = {frac{1}{n} : n in mathbb{N}}$.



          $A$ is not closed since $0$ is a limit point of $A$, but $0 notin A$.



          $A$ is not open since every ball around any point contains a point in $mathbb{R} - A$.






          share|cite|improve this answer




























            up vote
            5
            down vote













            Take $mathbb{R}$ with the finite complement topology - that is, the open sets are exactly those with finite complement. Then $[0,1]$ is neither open nor closed. It is not open since $mathbb{R}setminus [0,1]=(-infty,0) cup (1,infty)$ is not finite, and it is not closed since its complement, $(-infty,0) cup (1,infty)$, is not open, as just demonstrated.






            share|cite|improve this answer




























              up vote
              2
              down vote













              The interval $left ( 0,1 right )$ as a subset of $mathbb{R}^{2}$, that is $left { left ( x,0 right ) in mathbb{R}^{2}: x in left ( 0,1 right )right }$ is neither open nor closed because none of its points are interior points and $left ( 1,0 right )$ is a limit point not in the set.






              share|cite|improve this answer






























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                0
                down vote













                The rational numbers $mathbb{Q}$ are neither open nor closed. Recall a subset S of a metric space X space is open if every point x in S has an $epsilon$-neighborhood $N_{epsilon}(x)$ that is a proper subset of S. And a set is closed if(and only if) its complement is open. So $forall (q in mathbb{Q},r in [mathbb{R} setminus mathbb{Q}], epsilon > 0, lambda > 0)$ , $N_{epsilon}(q) cap [mathbb{R} setminusmathbb{Q}]neq emptyset$ and $N_{lambda}(r) cap mathbb{Q} neq emptyset$. So $mathbb{Q}$ is not open since every $epsilon$-neighborhood or a rational number contains irrationals. But its complement $ [mathbb{R} setminusmathbb{Q}]$, the set of irrational numbers, is also not open since no $epsilon$-neighborhoods or irrationals contain exclusively irrationals. But the complement of the rationals is not open, so $mathbb{Q}$ cannot be closed either. Therefore, the set of rationals is neither open nor closed.



                Might I add: most of the previous examples are of sets that are both open and closed(like the half-open intervals of the real line [0,1) for example).






                share|cite|improve this answer























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                  6 Answers
                  6






                  active

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                  6 Answers
                  6






                  active

                  oldest

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                  active

                  oldest

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                  up vote
                  32
                  down vote



                  accepted










                  $[0,1)$



                  It is not open because there is no $epsilon > 0$ such that $(0-epsilon,0+epsilon) subseteq [0,1)$.



                  It is not closed because $1$ is a limit point of the set which is not contained in it.






                  share|cite|improve this answer





















                  • One last Question, does the set has be connected? for example:- [1,2]U[3,4] ... what can we say about this set?
                    – Monkey D. Luffy
                    Aug 24 '12 at 0:36






                  • 2




                    @MonkeyD.Luffy A finite union of closed sets is closed, an arbitrary intersection of closed sets is closed. DeMorgan's Law gives you the analogous statements for open sets.
                    – Eugene Shvarts
                    Aug 24 '12 at 0:37















                  up vote
                  32
                  down vote



                  accepted










                  $[0,1)$



                  It is not open because there is no $epsilon > 0$ such that $(0-epsilon,0+epsilon) subseteq [0,1)$.



                  It is not closed because $1$ is a limit point of the set which is not contained in it.






                  share|cite|improve this answer





















                  • One last Question, does the set has be connected? for example:- [1,2]U[3,4] ... what can we say about this set?
                    – Monkey D. Luffy
                    Aug 24 '12 at 0:36






                  • 2




                    @MonkeyD.Luffy A finite union of closed sets is closed, an arbitrary intersection of closed sets is closed. DeMorgan's Law gives you the analogous statements for open sets.
                    – Eugene Shvarts
                    Aug 24 '12 at 0:37













                  up vote
                  32
                  down vote



                  accepted







                  up vote
                  32
                  down vote



                  accepted






                  $[0,1)$



                  It is not open because there is no $epsilon > 0$ such that $(0-epsilon,0+epsilon) subseteq [0,1)$.



                  It is not closed because $1$ is a limit point of the set which is not contained in it.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  $[0,1)$



                  It is not open because there is no $epsilon > 0$ such that $(0-epsilon,0+epsilon) subseteq [0,1)$.



                  It is not closed because $1$ is a limit point of the set which is not contained in it.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Aug 24 '12 at 0:28









                  user642796

                  44.4k558115




                  44.4k558115












                  • One last Question, does the set has be connected? for example:- [1,2]U[3,4] ... what can we say about this set?
                    – Monkey D. Luffy
                    Aug 24 '12 at 0:36






                  • 2




                    @MonkeyD.Luffy A finite union of closed sets is closed, an arbitrary intersection of closed sets is closed. DeMorgan's Law gives you the analogous statements for open sets.
                    – Eugene Shvarts
                    Aug 24 '12 at 0:37


















                  • One last Question, does the set has be connected? for example:- [1,2]U[3,4] ... what can we say about this set?
                    – Monkey D. Luffy
                    Aug 24 '12 at 0:36






                  • 2




                    @MonkeyD.Luffy A finite union of closed sets is closed, an arbitrary intersection of closed sets is closed. DeMorgan's Law gives you the analogous statements for open sets.
                    – Eugene Shvarts
                    Aug 24 '12 at 0:37
















                  One last Question, does the set has be connected? for example:- [1,2]U[3,4] ... what can we say about this set?
                  – Monkey D. Luffy
                  Aug 24 '12 at 0:36




                  One last Question, does the set has be connected? for example:- [1,2]U[3,4] ... what can we say about this set?
                  – Monkey D. Luffy
                  Aug 24 '12 at 0:36




                  2




                  2




                  @MonkeyD.Luffy A finite union of closed sets is closed, an arbitrary intersection of closed sets is closed. DeMorgan's Law gives you the analogous statements for open sets.
                  – Eugene Shvarts
                  Aug 24 '12 at 0:37




                  @MonkeyD.Luffy A finite union of closed sets is closed, an arbitrary intersection of closed sets is closed. DeMorgan's Law gives you the analogous statements for open sets.
                  – Eugene Shvarts
                  Aug 24 '12 at 0:37










                  up vote
                  19
                  down vote













                  For a slightly more exotic example, the rationals, $mathbb{Q}$.



                  They are not open because any interval about a rational point $r$, $(r-epsilon,r+epsilon)$, contains an irrational point.



                  They are not closed because every irrational point is the limit of a sequence of rational points. If $s$ is irrational, consider the sequence $left{ dfrac{lfloor10^n srfloor}{10^n} right}.$






                  share|cite|improve this answer





















                  • $mathbb Q$ is exotic?
                    – celtschk
                    Sep 2 at 10:28















                  up vote
                  19
                  down vote













                  For a slightly more exotic example, the rationals, $mathbb{Q}$.



                  They are not open because any interval about a rational point $r$, $(r-epsilon,r+epsilon)$, contains an irrational point.



                  They are not closed because every irrational point is the limit of a sequence of rational points. If $s$ is irrational, consider the sequence $left{ dfrac{lfloor10^n srfloor}{10^n} right}.$






                  share|cite|improve this answer





















                  • $mathbb Q$ is exotic?
                    – celtschk
                    Sep 2 at 10:28













                  up vote
                  19
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  19
                  down vote









                  For a slightly more exotic example, the rationals, $mathbb{Q}$.



                  They are not open because any interval about a rational point $r$, $(r-epsilon,r+epsilon)$, contains an irrational point.



                  They are not closed because every irrational point is the limit of a sequence of rational points. If $s$ is irrational, consider the sequence $left{ dfrac{lfloor10^n srfloor}{10^n} right}.$






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  For a slightly more exotic example, the rationals, $mathbb{Q}$.



                  They are not open because any interval about a rational point $r$, $(r-epsilon,r+epsilon)$, contains an irrational point.



                  They are not closed because every irrational point is the limit of a sequence of rational points. If $s$ is irrational, consider the sequence $left{ dfrac{lfloor10^n srfloor}{10^n} right}.$







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Aug 24 '12 at 0:32









                  Eugene Shvarts

                  1,2371014




                  1,2371014












                  • $mathbb Q$ is exotic?
                    – celtschk
                    Sep 2 at 10:28


















                  • $mathbb Q$ is exotic?
                    – celtschk
                    Sep 2 at 10:28
















                  $mathbb Q$ is exotic?
                  – celtschk
                  Sep 2 at 10:28




                  $mathbb Q$ is exotic?
                  – celtschk
                  Sep 2 at 10:28










                  up vote
                  13
                  down vote













                  Let $A = {frac{1}{n} : n in mathbb{N}}$.



                  $A$ is not closed since $0$ is a limit point of $A$, but $0 notin A$.



                  $A$ is not open since every ball around any point contains a point in $mathbb{R} - A$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer

























                    up vote
                    13
                    down vote













                    Let $A = {frac{1}{n} : n in mathbb{N}}$.



                    $A$ is not closed since $0$ is a limit point of $A$, but $0 notin A$.



                    $A$ is not open since every ball around any point contains a point in $mathbb{R} - A$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer























                      up vote
                      13
                      down vote










                      up vote
                      13
                      down vote









                      Let $A = {frac{1}{n} : n in mathbb{N}}$.



                      $A$ is not closed since $0$ is a limit point of $A$, but $0 notin A$.



                      $A$ is not open since every ball around any point contains a point in $mathbb{R} - A$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      Let $A = {frac{1}{n} : n in mathbb{N}}$.



                      $A$ is not closed since $0$ is a limit point of $A$, but $0 notin A$.



                      $A$ is not open since every ball around any point contains a point in $mathbb{R} - A$.







                      share|cite|improve this answer












                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer










                      answered Aug 24 '12 at 0:38









                      user898033

                      44128




                      44128






















                          up vote
                          5
                          down vote













                          Take $mathbb{R}$ with the finite complement topology - that is, the open sets are exactly those with finite complement. Then $[0,1]$ is neither open nor closed. It is not open since $mathbb{R}setminus [0,1]=(-infty,0) cup (1,infty)$ is not finite, and it is not closed since its complement, $(-infty,0) cup (1,infty)$, is not open, as just demonstrated.






                          share|cite|improve this answer

























                            up vote
                            5
                            down vote













                            Take $mathbb{R}$ with the finite complement topology - that is, the open sets are exactly those with finite complement. Then $[0,1]$ is neither open nor closed. It is not open since $mathbb{R}setminus [0,1]=(-infty,0) cup (1,infty)$ is not finite, and it is not closed since its complement, $(-infty,0) cup (1,infty)$, is not open, as just demonstrated.






                            share|cite|improve this answer























                              up vote
                              5
                              down vote










                              up vote
                              5
                              down vote









                              Take $mathbb{R}$ with the finite complement topology - that is, the open sets are exactly those with finite complement. Then $[0,1]$ is neither open nor closed. It is not open since $mathbb{R}setminus [0,1]=(-infty,0) cup (1,infty)$ is not finite, and it is not closed since its complement, $(-infty,0) cup (1,infty)$, is not open, as just demonstrated.






                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              Take $mathbb{R}$ with the finite complement topology - that is, the open sets are exactly those with finite complement. Then $[0,1]$ is neither open nor closed. It is not open since $mathbb{R}setminus [0,1]=(-infty,0) cup (1,infty)$ is not finite, and it is not closed since its complement, $(-infty,0) cup (1,infty)$, is not open, as just demonstrated.







                              share|cite|improve this answer












                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer










                              answered Aug 24 '12 at 0:33









                              Alex Petzke

                              3,95923569




                              3,95923569






















                                  up vote
                                  2
                                  down vote













                                  The interval $left ( 0,1 right )$ as a subset of $mathbb{R}^{2}$, that is $left { left ( x,0 right ) in mathbb{R}^{2}: x in left ( 0,1 right )right }$ is neither open nor closed because none of its points are interior points and $left ( 1,0 right )$ is a limit point not in the set.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer



























                                    up vote
                                    2
                                    down vote













                                    The interval $left ( 0,1 right )$ as a subset of $mathbb{R}^{2}$, that is $left { left ( x,0 right ) in mathbb{R}^{2}: x in left ( 0,1 right )right }$ is neither open nor closed because none of its points are interior points and $left ( 1,0 right )$ is a limit point not in the set.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer

























                                      up vote
                                      2
                                      down vote










                                      up vote
                                      2
                                      down vote









                                      The interval $left ( 0,1 right )$ as a subset of $mathbb{R}^{2}$, that is $left { left ( x,0 right ) in mathbb{R}^{2}: x in left ( 0,1 right )right }$ is neither open nor closed because none of its points are interior points and $left ( 1,0 right )$ is a limit point not in the set.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer














                                      The interval $left ( 0,1 right )$ as a subset of $mathbb{R}^{2}$, that is $left { left ( x,0 right ) in mathbb{R}^{2}: x in left ( 0,1 right )right }$ is neither open nor closed because none of its points are interior points and $left ( 1,0 right )$ is a limit point not in the set.







                                      share|cite|improve this answer














                                      share|cite|improve this answer



                                      share|cite|improve this answer








                                      edited Aug 3 '15 at 13:21

























                                      answered Aug 3 '15 at 9:19









                                      OGC

                                      1,41921228




                                      1,41921228






















                                          up vote
                                          0
                                          down vote













                                          The rational numbers $mathbb{Q}$ are neither open nor closed. Recall a subset S of a metric space X space is open if every point x in S has an $epsilon$-neighborhood $N_{epsilon}(x)$ that is a proper subset of S. And a set is closed if(and only if) its complement is open. So $forall (q in mathbb{Q},r in [mathbb{R} setminus mathbb{Q}], epsilon > 0, lambda > 0)$ , $N_{epsilon}(q) cap [mathbb{R} setminusmathbb{Q}]neq emptyset$ and $N_{lambda}(r) cap mathbb{Q} neq emptyset$. So $mathbb{Q}$ is not open since every $epsilon$-neighborhood or a rational number contains irrationals. But its complement $ [mathbb{R} setminusmathbb{Q}]$, the set of irrational numbers, is also not open since no $epsilon$-neighborhoods or irrationals contain exclusively irrationals. But the complement of the rationals is not open, so $mathbb{Q}$ cannot be closed either. Therefore, the set of rationals is neither open nor closed.



                                          Might I add: most of the previous examples are of sets that are both open and closed(like the half-open intervals of the real line [0,1) for example).






                                          share|cite|improve this answer



























                                            up vote
                                            0
                                            down vote













                                            The rational numbers $mathbb{Q}$ are neither open nor closed. Recall a subset S of a metric space X space is open if every point x in S has an $epsilon$-neighborhood $N_{epsilon}(x)$ that is a proper subset of S. And a set is closed if(and only if) its complement is open. So $forall (q in mathbb{Q},r in [mathbb{R} setminus mathbb{Q}], epsilon > 0, lambda > 0)$ , $N_{epsilon}(q) cap [mathbb{R} setminusmathbb{Q}]neq emptyset$ and $N_{lambda}(r) cap mathbb{Q} neq emptyset$. So $mathbb{Q}$ is not open since every $epsilon$-neighborhood or a rational number contains irrationals. But its complement $ [mathbb{R} setminusmathbb{Q}]$, the set of irrational numbers, is also not open since no $epsilon$-neighborhoods or irrationals contain exclusively irrationals. But the complement of the rationals is not open, so $mathbb{Q}$ cannot be closed either. Therefore, the set of rationals is neither open nor closed.



                                            Might I add: most of the previous examples are of sets that are both open and closed(like the half-open intervals of the real line [0,1) for example).






                                            share|cite|improve this answer

























                                              up vote
                                              0
                                              down vote










                                              up vote
                                              0
                                              down vote









                                              The rational numbers $mathbb{Q}$ are neither open nor closed. Recall a subset S of a metric space X space is open if every point x in S has an $epsilon$-neighborhood $N_{epsilon}(x)$ that is a proper subset of S. And a set is closed if(and only if) its complement is open. So $forall (q in mathbb{Q},r in [mathbb{R} setminus mathbb{Q}], epsilon > 0, lambda > 0)$ , $N_{epsilon}(q) cap [mathbb{R} setminusmathbb{Q}]neq emptyset$ and $N_{lambda}(r) cap mathbb{Q} neq emptyset$. So $mathbb{Q}$ is not open since every $epsilon$-neighborhood or a rational number contains irrationals. But its complement $ [mathbb{R} setminusmathbb{Q}]$, the set of irrational numbers, is also not open since no $epsilon$-neighborhoods or irrationals contain exclusively irrationals. But the complement of the rationals is not open, so $mathbb{Q}$ cannot be closed either. Therefore, the set of rationals is neither open nor closed.



                                              Might I add: most of the previous examples are of sets that are both open and closed(like the half-open intervals of the real line [0,1) for example).






                                              share|cite|improve this answer














                                              The rational numbers $mathbb{Q}$ are neither open nor closed. Recall a subset S of a metric space X space is open if every point x in S has an $epsilon$-neighborhood $N_{epsilon}(x)$ that is a proper subset of S. And a set is closed if(and only if) its complement is open. So $forall (q in mathbb{Q},r in [mathbb{R} setminus mathbb{Q}], epsilon > 0, lambda > 0)$ , $N_{epsilon}(q) cap [mathbb{R} setminusmathbb{Q}]neq emptyset$ and $N_{lambda}(r) cap mathbb{Q} neq emptyset$. So $mathbb{Q}$ is not open since every $epsilon$-neighborhood or a rational number contains irrationals. But its complement $ [mathbb{R} setminusmathbb{Q}]$, the set of irrational numbers, is also not open since no $epsilon$-neighborhoods or irrationals contain exclusively irrationals. But the complement of the rationals is not open, so $mathbb{Q}$ cannot be closed either. Therefore, the set of rationals is neither open nor closed.



                                              Might I add: most of the previous examples are of sets that are both open and closed(like the half-open intervals of the real line [0,1) for example).







                                              share|cite|improve this answer














                                              share|cite|improve this answer



                                              share|cite|improve this answer








                                              edited Nov 27 at 4:55

























                                              answered Nov 26 at 21:46









                                              Mr X

                                              19311




                                              19311






























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