How to show a class of structures is not axiomatizable?












2














For example, let $F$ be a field and $L$ be the language of $F$-vector space.



(1) Prove that the class of finite dimensional $F$-vector space is not axiomatizable.



(2) Prove that if $F$ is infinite then the class of infinite dimensional $F$-vector space is not axiomatizable.



Or let $L$ be the language of rings.



(3) Prove that the class of algebraic extensions of $mathbb{Q}$ is not axiomatizable.



I think the common way to prove this type of statement would be: first suppose the class is axiomatizable. Then there is some $L$-theory axiomatizing the class. We make a new language $L'$ by adding new symbols to $L$ then construct a $L'$-theory $T'$ and show $T'$ is consistent by compactness then observe a contradiction.



However, this method requires a bit of algebra knowledge. Can anyone give some hints for the above problems I have listed?










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    2














    For example, let $F$ be a field and $L$ be the language of $F$-vector space.



    (1) Prove that the class of finite dimensional $F$-vector space is not axiomatizable.



    (2) Prove that if $F$ is infinite then the class of infinite dimensional $F$-vector space is not axiomatizable.



    Or let $L$ be the language of rings.



    (3) Prove that the class of algebraic extensions of $mathbb{Q}$ is not axiomatizable.



    I think the common way to prove this type of statement would be: first suppose the class is axiomatizable. Then there is some $L$-theory axiomatizing the class. We make a new language $L'$ by adding new symbols to $L$ then construct a $L'$-theory $T'$ and show $T'$ is consistent by compactness then observe a contradiction.



    However, this method requires a bit of algebra knowledge. Can anyone give some hints for the above problems I have listed?










    share|cite|improve this question

























      2












      2








      2







      For example, let $F$ be a field and $L$ be the language of $F$-vector space.



      (1) Prove that the class of finite dimensional $F$-vector space is not axiomatizable.



      (2) Prove that if $F$ is infinite then the class of infinite dimensional $F$-vector space is not axiomatizable.



      Or let $L$ be the language of rings.



      (3) Prove that the class of algebraic extensions of $mathbb{Q}$ is not axiomatizable.



      I think the common way to prove this type of statement would be: first suppose the class is axiomatizable. Then there is some $L$-theory axiomatizing the class. We make a new language $L'$ by adding new symbols to $L$ then construct a $L'$-theory $T'$ and show $T'$ is consistent by compactness then observe a contradiction.



      However, this method requires a bit of algebra knowledge. Can anyone give some hints for the above problems I have listed?










      share|cite|improve this question













      For example, let $F$ be a field and $L$ be the language of $F$-vector space.



      (1) Prove that the class of finite dimensional $F$-vector space is not axiomatizable.



      (2) Prove that if $F$ is infinite then the class of infinite dimensional $F$-vector space is not axiomatizable.



      Or let $L$ be the language of rings.



      (3) Prove that the class of algebraic extensions of $mathbb{Q}$ is not axiomatizable.



      I think the common way to prove this type of statement would be: first suppose the class is axiomatizable. Then there is some $L$-theory axiomatizing the class. We make a new language $L'$ by adding new symbols to $L$ then construct a $L'$-theory $T'$ and show $T'$ is consistent by compactness then observe a contradiction.



      However, this method requires a bit of algebra knowledge. Can anyone give some hints for the above problems I have listed?







      linear-algebra abstract-algebra logic model-theory






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      share|cite|improve this question











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      asked Nov 28 at 7:32









      bbw

      47038




      47038






















          1 Answer
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          1














          Hint : for all these questions, you can use the ascending Löwenheim-Skolem theorem.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Yes, I solved (1) by showing that if it is axiomatizable then it would contradict the LS theorem. However, for (2), I tried to play the same trick but I found it is totally consistent with LS theorem. For (3), no idea what to do.
            – bbw
            Nov 28 at 20:58










          • Actually you can use LS for (2) as well by using this : prove that there is a infinite dimensional vector space that is elementarily equivalent to $F$. For (3), notice that an algebraic extension of $mathbb{Q}$ must be countable
            – Max
            Nov 28 at 21:33










          • For (2), since $F$ is infinite, then any vector spaces with the same cardinality bigger than $F$ are isomorphic. So if it is axiomatizable then the theory is complete. So any two models are elementarily equivalent. But F itself is not a model since it is one dimensional over itself. How I can show $F$ is equivalent to an infinite dimensional vector space?
            – bbw
            Nov 28 at 22:19












          • By using Löwenheim-Skolem !
            – Max
            Nov 28 at 22:20










          • I still don't get it... the LS theorem requires an infinite $L$-structure in the hypothesis. If $F$ an infinite dimensional $F$-vector space then there will be a elementary extension of $F$ of cardinality at least $|F|$ hence they are elementary equivalent. However, the thing is, $F$ is not infinite dimensional.
            – bbw
            Nov 28 at 22:34











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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          1














          Hint : for all these questions, you can use the ascending Löwenheim-Skolem theorem.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Yes, I solved (1) by showing that if it is axiomatizable then it would contradict the LS theorem. However, for (2), I tried to play the same trick but I found it is totally consistent with LS theorem. For (3), no idea what to do.
            – bbw
            Nov 28 at 20:58










          • Actually you can use LS for (2) as well by using this : prove that there is a infinite dimensional vector space that is elementarily equivalent to $F$. For (3), notice that an algebraic extension of $mathbb{Q}$ must be countable
            – Max
            Nov 28 at 21:33










          • For (2), since $F$ is infinite, then any vector spaces with the same cardinality bigger than $F$ are isomorphic. So if it is axiomatizable then the theory is complete. So any two models are elementarily equivalent. But F itself is not a model since it is one dimensional over itself. How I can show $F$ is equivalent to an infinite dimensional vector space?
            – bbw
            Nov 28 at 22:19












          • By using Löwenheim-Skolem !
            – Max
            Nov 28 at 22:20










          • I still don't get it... the LS theorem requires an infinite $L$-structure in the hypothesis. If $F$ an infinite dimensional $F$-vector space then there will be a elementary extension of $F$ of cardinality at least $|F|$ hence they are elementary equivalent. However, the thing is, $F$ is not infinite dimensional.
            – bbw
            Nov 28 at 22:34
















          1














          Hint : for all these questions, you can use the ascending Löwenheim-Skolem theorem.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Yes, I solved (1) by showing that if it is axiomatizable then it would contradict the LS theorem. However, for (2), I tried to play the same trick but I found it is totally consistent with LS theorem. For (3), no idea what to do.
            – bbw
            Nov 28 at 20:58










          • Actually you can use LS for (2) as well by using this : prove that there is a infinite dimensional vector space that is elementarily equivalent to $F$. For (3), notice that an algebraic extension of $mathbb{Q}$ must be countable
            – Max
            Nov 28 at 21:33










          • For (2), since $F$ is infinite, then any vector spaces with the same cardinality bigger than $F$ are isomorphic. So if it is axiomatizable then the theory is complete. So any two models are elementarily equivalent. But F itself is not a model since it is one dimensional over itself. How I can show $F$ is equivalent to an infinite dimensional vector space?
            – bbw
            Nov 28 at 22:19












          • By using Löwenheim-Skolem !
            – Max
            Nov 28 at 22:20










          • I still don't get it... the LS theorem requires an infinite $L$-structure in the hypothesis. If $F$ an infinite dimensional $F$-vector space then there will be a elementary extension of $F$ of cardinality at least $|F|$ hence they are elementary equivalent. However, the thing is, $F$ is not infinite dimensional.
            – bbw
            Nov 28 at 22:34














          1












          1








          1






          Hint : for all these questions, you can use the ascending Löwenheim-Skolem theorem.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Hint : for all these questions, you can use the ascending Löwenheim-Skolem theorem.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 28 at 14:08









          Max

          12.6k11040




          12.6k11040












          • Yes, I solved (1) by showing that if it is axiomatizable then it would contradict the LS theorem. However, for (2), I tried to play the same trick but I found it is totally consistent with LS theorem. For (3), no idea what to do.
            – bbw
            Nov 28 at 20:58










          • Actually you can use LS for (2) as well by using this : prove that there is a infinite dimensional vector space that is elementarily equivalent to $F$. For (3), notice that an algebraic extension of $mathbb{Q}$ must be countable
            – Max
            Nov 28 at 21:33










          • For (2), since $F$ is infinite, then any vector spaces with the same cardinality bigger than $F$ are isomorphic. So if it is axiomatizable then the theory is complete. So any two models are elementarily equivalent. But F itself is not a model since it is one dimensional over itself. How I can show $F$ is equivalent to an infinite dimensional vector space?
            – bbw
            Nov 28 at 22:19












          • By using Löwenheim-Skolem !
            – Max
            Nov 28 at 22:20










          • I still don't get it... the LS theorem requires an infinite $L$-structure in the hypothesis. If $F$ an infinite dimensional $F$-vector space then there will be a elementary extension of $F$ of cardinality at least $|F|$ hence they are elementary equivalent. However, the thing is, $F$ is not infinite dimensional.
            – bbw
            Nov 28 at 22:34


















          • Yes, I solved (1) by showing that if it is axiomatizable then it would contradict the LS theorem. However, for (2), I tried to play the same trick but I found it is totally consistent with LS theorem. For (3), no idea what to do.
            – bbw
            Nov 28 at 20:58










          • Actually you can use LS for (2) as well by using this : prove that there is a infinite dimensional vector space that is elementarily equivalent to $F$. For (3), notice that an algebraic extension of $mathbb{Q}$ must be countable
            – Max
            Nov 28 at 21:33










          • For (2), since $F$ is infinite, then any vector spaces with the same cardinality bigger than $F$ are isomorphic. So if it is axiomatizable then the theory is complete. So any two models are elementarily equivalent. But F itself is not a model since it is one dimensional over itself. How I can show $F$ is equivalent to an infinite dimensional vector space?
            – bbw
            Nov 28 at 22:19












          • By using Löwenheim-Skolem !
            – Max
            Nov 28 at 22:20










          • I still don't get it... the LS theorem requires an infinite $L$-structure in the hypothesis. If $F$ an infinite dimensional $F$-vector space then there will be a elementary extension of $F$ of cardinality at least $|F|$ hence they are elementary equivalent. However, the thing is, $F$ is not infinite dimensional.
            – bbw
            Nov 28 at 22:34
















          Yes, I solved (1) by showing that if it is axiomatizable then it would contradict the LS theorem. However, for (2), I tried to play the same trick but I found it is totally consistent with LS theorem. For (3), no idea what to do.
          – bbw
          Nov 28 at 20:58




          Yes, I solved (1) by showing that if it is axiomatizable then it would contradict the LS theorem. However, for (2), I tried to play the same trick but I found it is totally consistent with LS theorem. For (3), no idea what to do.
          – bbw
          Nov 28 at 20:58












          Actually you can use LS for (2) as well by using this : prove that there is a infinite dimensional vector space that is elementarily equivalent to $F$. For (3), notice that an algebraic extension of $mathbb{Q}$ must be countable
          – Max
          Nov 28 at 21:33




          Actually you can use LS for (2) as well by using this : prove that there is a infinite dimensional vector space that is elementarily equivalent to $F$. For (3), notice that an algebraic extension of $mathbb{Q}$ must be countable
          – Max
          Nov 28 at 21:33












          For (2), since $F$ is infinite, then any vector spaces with the same cardinality bigger than $F$ are isomorphic. So if it is axiomatizable then the theory is complete. So any two models are elementarily equivalent. But F itself is not a model since it is one dimensional over itself. How I can show $F$ is equivalent to an infinite dimensional vector space?
          – bbw
          Nov 28 at 22:19






          For (2), since $F$ is infinite, then any vector spaces with the same cardinality bigger than $F$ are isomorphic. So if it is axiomatizable then the theory is complete. So any two models are elementarily equivalent. But F itself is not a model since it is one dimensional over itself. How I can show $F$ is equivalent to an infinite dimensional vector space?
          – bbw
          Nov 28 at 22:19














          By using Löwenheim-Skolem !
          – Max
          Nov 28 at 22:20




          By using Löwenheim-Skolem !
          – Max
          Nov 28 at 22:20












          I still don't get it... the LS theorem requires an infinite $L$-structure in the hypothesis. If $F$ an infinite dimensional $F$-vector space then there will be a elementary extension of $F$ of cardinality at least $|F|$ hence they are elementary equivalent. However, the thing is, $F$ is not infinite dimensional.
          – bbw
          Nov 28 at 22:34




          I still don't get it... the LS theorem requires an infinite $L$-structure in the hypothesis. If $F$ an infinite dimensional $F$-vector space then there will be a elementary extension of $F$ of cardinality at least $|F|$ hence they are elementary equivalent. However, the thing is, $F$ is not infinite dimensional.
          – bbw
          Nov 28 at 22:34


















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