Matrix Eigenvalue formula $|lambda I-A |$ or $|A-lambda I|$?












0














my lecturer wrote a solution for our exam, and he wrote the eigenvalue formula as $|lambda I-A |$ instead of $|A-lambda I|$. What I understand is we use the latter to get the eigenvalue of a matrix.



Is this a typo or it doesn't matter whether it's $|A-lambda I|$ or $|lambda I-A |$?



Thanks



enter image description here










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  • 2




    That's the same equation, simply multiplied by $(-1)^n$, but solutions are just the same. It's like $$x+3=0$$ and $$-x-3=0$$ they are equivalent equations.
    – Crostul
    Nov 29 at 22:44












  • $|lambda I - A| = |A- lambda I|$.
    – amWhy
    Nov 29 at 22:46










  • okay thanks, just realized that
    – JIM BOY
    Nov 29 at 22:46










  • But if we have two 3x3 matrices, A & B, both have different values in their elements, the result of $|A-B|$ will not be the same as $|B-A|$ right? There's no such a thing as $|A-B|=|B-A|$, am I right?
    – JIM BOY
    Nov 29 at 22:49






  • 4




    @amWhy Not for odd-dimensional matrices. Those are determinants, not absolute values.
    – Arthur
    Nov 29 at 22:50


















0














my lecturer wrote a solution for our exam, and he wrote the eigenvalue formula as $|lambda I-A |$ instead of $|A-lambda I|$. What I understand is we use the latter to get the eigenvalue of a matrix.



Is this a typo or it doesn't matter whether it's $|A-lambda I|$ or $|lambda I-A |$?



Thanks



enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 2




    That's the same equation, simply multiplied by $(-1)^n$, but solutions are just the same. It's like $$x+3=0$$ and $$-x-3=0$$ they are equivalent equations.
    – Crostul
    Nov 29 at 22:44












  • $|lambda I - A| = |A- lambda I|$.
    – amWhy
    Nov 29 at 22:46










  • okay thanks, just realized that
    – JIM BOY
    Nov 29 at 22:46










  • But if we have two 3x3 matrices, A & B, both have different values in their elements, the result of $|A-B|$ will not be the same as $|B-A|$ right? There's no such a thing as $|A-B|=|B-A|$, am I right?
    – JIM BOY
    Nov 29 at 22:49






  • 4




    @amWhy Not for odd-dimensional matrices. Those are determinants, not absolute values.
    – Arthur
    Nov 29 at 22:50
















0












0








0







my lecturer wrote a solution for our exam, and he wrote the eigenvalue formula as $|lambda I-A |$ instead of $|A-lambda I|$. What I understand is we use the latter to get the eigenvalue of a matrix.



Is this a typo or it doesn't matter whether it's $|A-lambda I|$ or $|lambda I-A |$?



Thanks



enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question













my lecturer wrote a solution for our exam, and he wrote the eigenvalue formula as $|lambda I-A |$ instead of $|A-lambda I|$. What I understand is we use the latter to get the eigenvalue of a matrix.



Is this a typo or it doesn't matter whether it's $|A-lambda I|$ or $|lambda I-A |$?



Thanks



enter image description here







matrices eigenvalues-eigenvectors






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asked Nov 29 at 22:38









JIM BOY

356




356








  • 2




    That's the same equation, simply multiplied by $(-1)^n$, but solutions are just the same. It's like $$x+3=0$$ and $$-x-3=0$$ they are equivalent equations.
    – Crostul
    Nov 29 at 22:44












  • $|lambda I - A| = |A- lambda I|$.
    – amWhy
    Nov 29 at 22:46










  • okay thanks, just realized that
    – JIM BOY
    Nov 29 at 22:46










  • But if we have two 3x3 matrices, A & B, both have different values in their elements, the result of $|A-B|$ will not be the same as $|B-A|$ right? There's no such a thing as $|A-B|=|B-A|$, am I right?
    – JIM BOY
    Nov 29 at 22:49






  • 4




    @amWhy Not for odd-dimensional matrices. Those are determinants, not absolute values.
    – Arthur
    Nov 29 at 22:50
















  • 2




    That's the same equation, simply multiplied by $(-1)^n$, but solutions are just the same. It's like $$x+3=0$$ and $$-x-3=0$$ they are equivalent equations.
    – Crostul
    Nov 29 at 22:44












  • $|lambda I - A| = |A- lambda I|$.
    – amWhy
    Nov 29 at 22:46










  • okay thanks, just realized that
    – JIM BOY
    Nov 29 at 22:46










  • But if we have two 3x3 matrices, A & B, both have different values in their elements, the result of $|A-B|$ will not be the same as $|B-A|$ right? There's no such a thing as $|A-B|=|B-A|$, am I right?
    – JIM BOY
    Nov 29 at 22:49






  • 4




    @amWhy Not for odd-dimensional matrices. Those are determinants, not absolute values.
    – Arthur
    Nov 29 at 22:50










2




2




That's the same equation, simply multiplied by $(-1)^n$, but solutions are just the same. It's like $$x+3=0$$ and $$-x-3=0$$ they are equivalent equations.
– Crostul
Nov 29 at 22:44






That's the same equation, simply multiplied by $(-1)^n$, but solutions are just the same. It's like $$x+3=0$$ and $$-x-3=0$$ they are equivalent equations.
– Crostul
Nov 29 at 22:44














$|lambda I - A| = |A- lambda I|$.
– amWhy
Nov 29 at 22:46




$|lambda I - A| = |A- lambda I|$.
– amWhy
Nov 29 at 22:46












okay thanks, just realized that
– JIM BOY
Nov 29 at 22:46




okay thanks, just realized that
– JIM BOY
Nov 29 at 22:46












But if we have two 3x3 matrices, A & B, both have different values in their elements, the result of $|A-B|$ will not be the same as $|B-A|$ right? There's no such a thing as $|A-B|=|B-A|$, am I right?
– JIM BOY
Nov 29 at 22:49




But if we have two 3x3 matrices, A & B, both have different values in their elements, the result of $|A-B|$ will not be the same as $|B-A|$ right? There's no such a thing as $|A-B|=|B-A|$, am I right?
– JIM BOY
Nov 29 at 22:49




4




4




@amWhy Not for odd-dimensional matrices. Those are determinants, not absolute values.
– Arthur
Nov 29 at 22:50






@amWhy Not for odd-dimensional matrices. Those are determinants, not absolute values.
– Arthur
Nov 29 at 22:50












3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















1














Both are actually equivalent!



Let us recall how we derive the notion of eigenvalues and such. That is, for a square matrix $A$ and eigenvalues $lambda$ of $A$, we have:



$$Avec{x} = lambda vec{x}$$



Then,



$$Avec{x} - lambda vec{x} = 0 ;;; Rightarrow ;;; (A-lambda I) vec{x} = 0$$



Then we try to find $lambda$ such that $det(A - lambda I) = 0$.



But wait! We can do this a different way, as:



$$Avec{x} = lambda vec{x} ;;; Rightarrow ;;; 0 = lambda vec{x} - A vec{x} ;;; Rightarrow ;;; 0 = (lambda I - A) vec{x}$$



and thus we seek $lambda$ such that $det(lambda I - A) = 0$



Thus, as a result, you can use either equation - $det(lambda I - A) = 0$ or $det(A - lambda I) = 0$. Which you use is a matter of personal taste; I was actually taught the former but found the latter more intuitive.






share|cite|improve this answer





























    1














    If $A$ is a $ntimes n$ matrix, then the polynomials $det(A-lambdaoperatorname{Id})$ and $det(lambdaoperatorname{Id}-A)$ are equal if $n$ is even and symmetric otherwise. Therefore, they have the same zeros. So, as far as searching for eigenvalues is concerned, both provide the same information.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • But if we have two 3x3 matrices, A & B, both have different values in their elements, the result of $|A−B|$ will not be the same as $|B−A|$ right? There's no such a thing as $|A−B|=|B−A|$, am I right?
      – JIM BOY
      Nov 29 at 22:50










    • They are no equal, but they are symmetric: if $C$ is a $3times3$ matrix, $det(-C)=-det(C)$.
      – José Carlos Santos
      Nov 29 at 22:51










    • Technically, there is a property that is somewhat related. Note: $$det(A-B) = det(-1 cdot (B-A)) = (-1)^n det(B-A)$$ where $n$ is the size of the matrices (i.e. $A,B$ are $n times n$ matrices). Notice what happens if $n$ is even. Generally, this property is stated for any scalar $k$: $$det(kA) = k^n det(A)$$
      – Eevee Trainer
      Nov 29 at 22:52





















    0














    Just note that $det (A-lambda I) =(-1)^ndet (lambda I-A)$, so $lambda$ solves $ det (A-lambda I) =0$ if and only if it solves $det (lambda I-A)=0$, therefore you can calculate the eigenvalues of $A$ by solving $det (lambda I-A)=0$ or $det (A-lambda I)=0$. The solutions are the same.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      1














      Both are actually equivalent!



      Let us recall how we derive the notion of eigenvalues and such. That is, for a square matrix $A$ and eigenvalues $lambda$ of $A$, we have:



      $$Avec{x} = lambda vec{x}$$



      Then,



      $$Avec{x} - lambda vec{x} = 0 ;;; Rightarrow ;;; (A-lambda I) vec{x} = 0$$



      Then we try to find $lambda$ such that $det(A - lambda I) = 0$.



      But wait! We can do this a different way, as:



      $$Avec{x} = lambda vec{x} ;;; Rightarrow ;;; 0 = lambda vec{x} - A vec{x} ;;; Rightarrow ;;; 0 = (lambda I - A) vec{x}$$



      and thus we seek $lambda$ such that $det(lambda I - A) = 0$



      Thus, as a result, you can use either equation - $det(lambda I - A) = 0$ or $det(A - lambda I) = 0$. Which you use is a matter of personal taste; I was actually taught the former but found the latter more intuitive.






      share|cite|improve this answer


























        1














        Both are actually equivalent!



        Let us recall how we derive the notion of eigenvalues and such. That is, for a square matrix $A$ and eigenvalues $lambda$ of $A$, we have:



        $$Avec{x} = lambda vec{x}$$



        Then,



        $$Avec{x} - lambda vec{x} = 0 ;;; Rightarrow ;;; (A-lambda I) vec{x} = 0$$



        Then we try to find $lambda$ such that $det(A - lambda I) = 0$.



        But wait! We can do this a different way, as:



        $$Avec{x} = lambda vec{x} ;;; Rightarrow ;;; 0 = lambda vec{x} - A vec{x} ;;; Rightarrow ;;; 0 = (lambda I - A) vec{x}$$



        and thus we seek $lambda$ such that $det(lambda I - A) = 0$



        Thus, as a result, you can use either equation - $det(lambda I - A) = 0$ or $det(A - lambda I) = 0$. Which you use is a matter of personal taste; I was actually taught the former but found the latter more intuitive.






        share|cite|improve this answer
























          1












          1








          1






          Both are actually equivalent!



          Let us recall how we derive the notion of eigenvalues and such. That is, for a square matrix $A$ and eigenvalues $lambda$ of $A$, we have:



          $$Avec{x} = lambda vec{x}$$



          Then,



          $$Avec{x} - lambda vec{x} = 0 ;;; Rightarrow ;;; (A-lambda I) vec{x} = 0$$



          Then we try to find $lambda$ such that $det(A - lambda I) = 0$.



          But wait! We can do this a different way, as:



          $$Avec{x} = lambda vec{x} ;;; Rightarrow ;;; 0 = lambda vec{x} - A vec{x} ;;; Rightarrow ;;; 0 = (lambda I - A) vec{x}$$



          and thus we seek $lambda$ such that $det(lambda I - A) = 0$



          Thus, as a result, you can use either equation - $det(lambda I - A) = 0$ or $det(A - lambda I) = 0$. Which you use is a matter of personal taste; I was actually taught the former but found the latter more intuitive.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Both are actually equivalent!



          Let us recall how we derive the notion of eigenvalues and such. That is, for a square matrix $A$ and eigenvalues $lambda$ of $A$, we have:



          $$Avec{x} = lambda vec{x}$$



          Then,



          $$Avec{x} - lambda vec{x} = 0 ;;; Rightarrow ;;; (A-lambda I) vec{x} = 0$$



          Then we try to find $lambda$ such that $det(A - lambda I) = 0$.



          But wait! We can do this a different way, as:



          $$Avec{x} = lambda vec{x} ;;; Rightarrow ;;; 0 = lambda vec{x} - A vec{x} ;;; Rightarrow ;;; 0 = (lambda I - A) vec{x}$$



          and thus we seek $lambda$ such that $det(lambda I - A) = 0$



          Thus, as a result, you can use either equation - $det(lambda I - A) = 0$ or $det(A - lambda I) = 0$. Which you use is a matter of personal taste; I was actually taught the former but found the latter more intuitive.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 29 at 22:45









          Eevee Trainer

          3,638326




          3,638326























              1














              If $A$ is a $ntimes n$ matrix, then the polynomials $det(A-lambdaoperatorname{Id})$ and $det(lambdaoperatorname{Id}-A)$ are equal if $n$ is even and symmetric otherwise. Therefore, they have the same zeros. So, as far as searching for eigenvalues is concerned, both provide the same information.






              share|cite|improve this answer





















              • But if we have two 3x3 matrices, A & B, both have different values in their elements, the result of $|A−B|$ will not be the same as $|B−A|$ right? There's no such a thing as $|A−B|=|B−A|$, am I right?
                – JIM BOY
                Nov 29 at 22:50










              • They are no equal, but they are symmetric: if $C$ is a $3times3$ matrix, $det(-C)=-det(C)$.
                – José Carlos Santos
                Nov 29 at 22:51










              • Technically, there is a property that is somewhat related. Note: $$det(A-B) = det(-1 cdot (B-A)) = (-1)^n det(B-A)$$ where $n$ is the size of the matrices (i.e. $A,B$ are $n times n$ matrices). Notice what happens if $n$ is even. Generally, this property is stated for any scalar $k$: $$det(kA) = k^n det(A)$$
                – Eevee Trainer
                Nov 29 at 22:52


















              1














              If $A$ is a $ntimes n$ matrix, then the polynomials $det(A-lambdaoperatorname{Id})$ and $det(lambdaoperatorname{Id}-A)$ are equal if $n$ is even and symmetric otherwise. Therefore, they have the same zeros. So, as far as searching for eigenvalues is concerned, both provide the same information.






              share|cite|improve this answer





















              • But if we have two 3x3 matrices, A & B, both have different values in their elements, the result of $|A−B|$ will not be the same as $|B−A|$ right? There's no such a thing as $|A−B|=|B−A|$, am I right?
                – JIM BOY
                Nov 29 at 22:50










              • They are no equal, but they are symmetric: if $C$ is a $3times3$ matrix, $det(-C)=-det(C)$.
                – José Carlos Santos
                Nov 29 at 22:51










              • Technically, there is a property that is somewhat related. Note: $$det(A-B) = det(-1 cdot (B-A)) = (-1)^n det(B-A)$$ where $n$ is the size of the matrices (i.e. $A,B$ are $n times n$ matrices). Notice what happens if $n$ is even. Generally, this property is stated for any scalar $k$: $$det(kA) = k^n det(A)$$
                – Eevee Trainer
                Nov 29 at 22:52
















              1












              1








              1






              If $A$ is a $ntimes n$ matrix, then the polynomials $det(A-lambdaoperatorname{Id})$ and $det(lambdaoperatorname{Id}-A)$ are equal if $n$ is even and symmetric otherwise. Therefore, they have the same zeros. So, as far as searching for eigenvalues is concerned, both provide the same information.






              share|cite|improve this answer












              If $A$ is a $ntimes n$ matrix, then the polynomials $det(A-lambdaoperatorname{Id})$ and $det(lambdaoperatorname{Id}-A)$ are equal if $n$ is even and symmetric otherwise. Therefore, they have the same zeros. So, as far as searching for eigenvalues is concerned, both provide the same information.







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Nov 29 at 22:48









              José Carlos Santos

              149k22117219




              149k22117219












              • But if we have two 3x3 matrices, A & B, both have different values in their elements, the result of $|A−B|$ will not be the same as $|B−A|$ right? There's no such a thing as $|A−B|=|B−A|$, am I right?
                – JIM BOY
                Nov 29 at 22:50










              • They are no equal, but they are symmetric: if $C$ is a $3times3$ matrix, $det(-C)=-det(C)$.
                – José Carlos Santos
                Nov 29 at 22:51










              • Technically, there is a property that is somewhat related. Note: $$det(A-B) = det(-1 cdot (B-A)) = (-1)^n det(B-A)$$ where $n$ is the size of the matrices (i.e. $A,B$ are $n times n$ matrices). Notice what happens if $n$ is even. Generally, this property is stated for any scalar $k$: $$det(kA) = k^n det(A)$$
                – Eevee Trainer
                Nov 29 at 22:52




















              • But if we have two 3x3 matrices, A & B, both have different values in their elements, the result of $|A−B|$ will not be the same as $|B−A|$ right? There's no such a thing as $|A−B|=|B−A|$, am I right?
                – JIM BOY
                Nov 29 at 22:50










              • They are no equal, but they are symmetric: if $C$ is a $3times3$ matrix, $det(-C)=-det(C)$.
                – José Carlos Santos
                Nov 29 at 22:51










              • Technically, there is a property that is somewhat related. Note: $$det(A-B) = det(-1 cdot (B-A)) = (-1)^n det(B-A)$$ where $n$ is the size of the matrices (i.e. $A,B$ are $n times n$ matrices). Notice what happens if $n$ is even. Generally, this property is stated for any scalar $k$: $$det(kA) = k^n det(A)$$
                – Eevee Trainer
                Nov 29 at 22:52


















              But if we have two 3x3 matrices, A & B, both have different values in their elements, the result of $|A−B|$ will not be the same as $|B−A|$ right? There's no such a thing as $|A−B|=|B−A|$, am I right?
              – JIM BOY
              Nov 29 at 22:50




              But if we have two 3x3 matrices, A & B, both have different values in their elements, the result of $|A−B|$ will not be the same as $|B−A|$ right? There's no such a thing as $|A−B|=|B−A|$, am I right?
              – JIM BOY
              Nov 29 at 22:50












              They are no equal, but they are symmetric: if $C$ is a $3times3$ matrix, $det(-C)=-det(C)$.
              – José Carlos Santos
              Nov 29 at 22:51




              They are no equal, but they are symmetric: if $C$ is a $3times3$ matrix, $det(-C)=-det(C)$.
              – José Carlos Santos
              Nov 29 at 22:51












              Technically, there is a property that is somewhat related. Note: $$det(A-B) = det(-1 cdot (B-A)) = (-1)^n det(B-A)$$ where $n$ is the size of the matrices (i.e. $A,B$ are $n times n$ matrices). Notice what happens if $n$ is even. Generally, this property is stated for any scalar $k$: $$det(kA) = k^n det(A)$$
              – Eevee Trainer
              Nov 29 at 22:52






              Technically, there is a property that is somewhat related. Note: $$det(A-B) = det(-1 cdot (B-A)) = (-1)^n det(B-A)$$ where $n$ is the size of the matrices (i.e. $A,B$ are $n times n$ matrices). Notice what happens if $n$ is even. Generally, this property is stated for any scalar $k$: $$det(kA) = k^n det(A)$$
              – Eevee Trainer
              Nov 29 at 22:52













              0














              Just note that $det (A-lambda I) =(-1)^ndet (lambda I-A)$, so $lambda$ solves $ det (A-lambda I) =0$ if and only if it solves $det (lambda I-A)=0$, therefore you can calculate the eigenvalues of $A$ by solving $det (lambda I-A)=0$ or $det (A-lambda I)=0$. The solutions are the same.






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                0














                Just note that $det (A-lambda I) =(-1)^ndet (lambda I-A)$, so $lambda$ solves $ det (A-lambda I) =0$ if and only if it solves $det (lambda I-A)=0$, therefore you can calculate the eigenvalues of $A$ by solving $det (lambda I-A)=0$ or $det (A-lambda I)=0$. The solutions are the same.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  0












                  0








                  0






                  Just note that $det (A-lambda I) =(-1)^ndet (lambda I-A)$, so $lambda$ solves $ det (A-lambda I) =0$ if and only if it solves $det (lambda I-A)=0$, therefore you can calculate the eigenvalues of $A$ by solving $det (lambda I-A)=0$ or $det (A-lambda I)=0$. The solutions are the same.






                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  Just note that $det (A-lambda I) =(-1)^ndet (lambda I-A)$, so $lambda$ solves $ det (A-lambda I) =0$ if and only if it solves $det (lambda I-A)=0$, therefore you can calculate the eigenvalues of $A$ by solving $det (lambda I-A)=0$ or $det (A-lambda I)=0$. The solutions are the same.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Nov 29 at 22:54









                  FJ.marsan

                  444




                  444






























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