On the completeness of topologically isomorphic spaces












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Let $(E_1,tau_1)$ be a locally convex space and let $(E_2,tau_2)$ be a complete locally convex space. Suppose that $T:(E_1,tau_1) longrightarrow (E_2,tau_2)$ is a topological isomorphism (that is, $T$ is linear, bijective, continuous and its inverse $T^{-1}$ is continuous, too).



Is it true that the space $(E_1,tau_1)$ is necessarily complete?



Thanks for any hints/comments.










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    Let $(E_1,tau_1)$ be a locally convex space and let $(E_2,tau_2)$ be a complete locally convex space. Suppose that $T:(E_1,tau_1) longrightarrow (E_2,tau_2)$ is a topological isomorphism (that is, $T$ is linear, bijective, continuous and its inverse $T^{-1}$ is continuous, too).



    Is it true that the space $(E_1,tau_1)$ is necessarily complete?



    Thanks for any hints/comments.










    share|cite|improve this question

























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      Let $(E_1,tau_1)$ be a locally convex space and let $(E_2,tau_2)$ be a complete locally convex space. Suppose that $T:(E_1,tau_1) longrightarrow (E_2,tau_2)$ is a topological isomorphism (that is, $T$ is linear, bijective, continuous and its inverse $T^{-1}$ is continuous, too).



      Is it true that the space $(E_1,tau_1)$ is necessarily complete?



      Thanks for any hints/comments.










      share|cite|improve this question













      Let $(E_1,tau_1)$ be a locally convex space and let $(E_2,tau_2)$ be a complete locally convex space. Suppose that $T:(E_1,tau_1) longrightarrow (E_2,tau_2)$ is a topological isomorphism (that is, $T$ is linear, bijective, continuous and its inverse $T^{-1}$ is continuous, too).



      Is it true that the space $(E_1,tau_1)$ is necessarily complete?



      Thanks for any hints/comments.







      functional-analysis locally-convex-spaces






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      asked Nov 28 at 7:29









      mathmax

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          Yes, of course (a property which is not stable under isomorphisms of a category is typically not very useful). The proof is as it should be: If $(x_i)_{iin I}$ is a Cauchy net in $E_1$ then $T(x_i)$ is a Cauchy net in $E_2$ because linear continuous maps are uniformly continuous. If $y$ is a limit of $T(x_i)$ then $x_i$ converges to $T^{-1}(y)$ because of the continuity of $T^{-1}$.






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          • Thanks for the answer. What I did not consider was the uniform continuity of $T$.
            – mathmax
            Nov 28 at 16:31











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          Yes, of course (a property which is not stable under isomorphisms of a category is typically not very useful). The proof is as it should be: If $(x_i)_{iin I}$ is a Cauchy net in $E_1$ then $T(x_i)$ is a Cauchy net in $E_2$ because linear continuous maps are uniformly continuous. If $y$ is a limit of $T(x_i)$ then $x_i$ converges to $T^{-1}(y)$ because of the continuity of $T^{-1}$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks for the answer. What I did not consider was the uniform continuity of $T$.
            – mathmax
            Nov 28 at 16:31
















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          Yes, of course (a property which is not stable under isomorphisms of a category is typically not very useful). The proof is as it should be: If $(x_i)_{iin I}$ is a Cauchy net in $E_1$ then $T(x_i)$ is a Cauchy net in $E_2$ because linear continuous maps are uniformly continuous. If $y$ is a limit of $T(x_i)$ then $x_i$ converges to $T^{-1}(y)$ because of the continuity of $T^{-1}$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks for the answer. What I did not consider was the uniform continuity of $T$.
            – mathmax
            Nov 28 at 16:31














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          Yes, of course (a property which is not stable under isomorphisms of a category is typically not very useful). The proof is as it should be: If $(x_i)_{iin I}$ is a Cauchy net in $E_1$ then $T(x_i)$ is a Cauchy net in $E_2$ because linear continuous maps are uniformly continuous. If $y$ is a limit of $T(x_i)$ then $x_i$ converges to $T^{-1}(y)$ because of the continuity of $T^{-1}$.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Yes, of course (a property which is not stable under isomorphisms of a category is typically not very useful). The proof is as it should be: If $(x_i)_{iin I}$ is a Cauchy net in $E_1$ then $T(x_i)$ is a Cauchy net in $E_2$ because linear continuous maps are uniformly continuous. If $y$ is a limit of $T(x_i)$ then $x_i$ converges to $T^{-1}(y)$ because of the continuity of $T^{-1}$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 28 at 14:32









          Jochen

          6,630922




          6,630922












          • Thanks for the answer. What I did not consider was the uniform continuity of $T$.
            – mathmax
            Nov 28 at 16:31


















          • Thanks for the answer. What I did not consider was the uniform continuity of $T$.
            – mathmax
            Nov 28 at 16:31
















          Thanks for the answer. What I did not consider was the uniform continuity of $T$.
          – mathmax
          Nov 28 at 16:31




          Thanks for the answer. What I did not consider was the uniform continuity of $T$.
          – mathmax
          Nov 28 at 16:31


















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