On the completeness of topologically isomorphic spaces
Let $(E_1,tau_1)$ be a locally convex space and let $(E_2,tau_2)$ be a complete locally convex space. Suppose that $T:(E_1,tau_1) longrightarrow (E_2,tau_2)$ is a topological isomorphism (that is, $T$ is linear, bijective, continuous and its inverse $T^{-1}$ is continuous, too).
Is it true that the space $(E_1,tau_1)$ is necessarily complete?
Thanks for any hints/comments.
functional-analysis locally-convex-spaces
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Let $(E_1,tau_1)$ be a locally convex space and let $(E_2,tau_2)$ be a complete locally convex space. Suppose that $T:(E_1,tau_1) longrightarrow (E_2,tau_2)$ is a topological isomorphism (that is, $T$ is linear, bijective, continuous and its inverse $T^{-1}$ is continuous, too).
Is it true that the space $(E_1,tau_1)$ is necessarily complete?
Thanks for any hints/comments.
functional-analysis locally-convex-spaces
add a comment |
Let $(E_1,tau_1)$ be a locally convex space and let $(E_2,tau_2)$ be a complete locally convex space. Suppose that $T:(E_1,tau_1) longrightarrow (E_2,tau_2)$ is a topological isomorphism (that is, $T$ is linear, bijective, continuous and its inverse $T^{-1}$ is continuous, too).
Is it true that the space $(E_1,tau_1)$ is necessarily complete?
Thanks for any hints/comments.
functional-analysis locally-convex-spaces
Let $(E_1,tau_1)$ be a locally convex space and let $(E_2,tau_2)$ be a complete locally convex space. Suppose that $T:(E_1,tau_1) longrightarrow (E_2,tau_2)$ is a topological isomorphism (that is, $T$ is linear, bijective, continuous and its inverse $T^{-1}$ is continuous, too).
Is it true that the space $(E_1,tau_1)$ is necessarily complete?
Thanks for any hints/comments.
functional-analysis locally-convex-spaces
functional-analysis locally-convex-spaces
asked Nov 28 at 7:29
mathmax
1896
1896
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Yes, of course (a property which is not stable under isomorphisms of a category is typically not very useful). The proof is as it should be: If $(x_i)_{iin I}$ is a Cauchy net in $E_1$ then $T(x_i)$ is a Cauchy net in $E_2$ because linear continuous maps are uniformly continuous. If $y$ is a limit of $T(x_i)$ then $x_i$ converges to $T^{-1}(y)$ because of the continuity of $T^{-1}$.
Thanks for the answer. What I did not consider was the uniform continuity of $T$.
– mathmax
Nov 28 at 16:31
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active
oldest
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active
oldest
votes
Yes, of course (a property which is not stable under isomorphisms of a category is typically not very useful). The proof is as it should be: If $(x_i)_{iin I}$ is a Cauchy net in $E_1$ then $T(x_i)$ is a Cauchy net in $E_2$ because linear continuous maps are uniformly continuous. If $y$ is a limit of $T(x_i)$ then $x_i$ converges to $T^{-1}(y)$ because of the continuity of $T^{-1}$.
Thanks for the answer. What I did not consider was the uniform continuity of $T$.
– mathmax
Nov 28 at 16:31
add a comment |
Yes, of course (a property which is not stable under isomorphisms of a category is typically not very useful). The proof is as it should be: If $(x_i)_{iin I}$ is a Cauchy net in $E_1$ then $T(x_i)$ is a Cauchy net in $E_2$ because linear continuous maps are uniformly continuous. If $y$ is a limit of $T(x_i)$ then $x_i$ converges to $T^{-1}(y)$ because of the continuity of $T^{-1}$.
Thanks for the answer. What I did not consider was the uniform continuity of $T$.
– mathmax
Nov 28 at 16:31
add a comment |
Yes, of course (a property which is not stable under isomorphisms of a category is typically not very useful). The proof is as it should be: If $(x_i)_{iin I}$ is a Cauchy net in $E_1$ then $T(x_i)$ is a Cauchy net in $E_2$ because linear continuous maps are uniformly continuous. If $y$ is a limit of $T(x_i)$ then $x_i$ converges to $T^{-1}(y)$ because of the continuity of $T^{-1}$.
Yes, of course (a property which is not stable under isomorphisms of a category is typically not very useful). The proof is as it should be: If $(x_i)_{iin I}$ is a Cauchy net in $E_1$ then $T(x_i)$ is a Cauchy net in $E_2$ because linear continuous maps are uniformly continuous. If $y$ is a limit of $T(x_i)$ then $x_i$ converges to $T^{-1}(y)$ because of the continuity of $T^{-1}$.
answered Nov 28 at 14:32
Jochen
6,630922
6,630922
Thanks for the answer. What I did not consider was the uniform continuity of $T$.
– mathmax
Nov 28 at 16:31
add a comment |
Thanks for the answer. What I did not consider was the uniform continuity of $T$.
– mathmax
Nov 28 at 16:31
Thanks for the answer. What I did not consider was the uniform continuity of $T$.
– mathmax
Nov 28 at 16:31
Thanks for the answer. What I did not consider was the uniform continuity of $T$.
– mathmax
Nov 28 at 16:31
add a comment |
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