Is $int_{0}^{infty} frac{sin^2 x }{x^2}dx$ equal to $int_{0}^{infty} frac{sin x }{x}dx$?











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I saw this in a solution to a problem and can't see why this would be the case. Tried substition and other techniques.










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  • It can be a simple coincidence. Does this appear as a step in a proof ? Provide more context.
    – Yves Daoust
    Nov 27 at 8:57

















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I saw this in a solution to a problem and can't see why this would be the case. Tried substition and other techniques.










share|cite|improve this question
























  • It can be a simple coincidence. Does this appear as a step in a proof ? Provide more context.
    – Yves Daoust
    Nov 27 at 8:57















up vote
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I saw this in a solution to a problem and can't see why this would be the case. Tried substition and other techniques.










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I saw this in a solution to a problem and can't see why this would be the case. Tried substition and other techniques.







integration improper-integrals






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edited Nov 27 at 9:04

























asked Nov 27 at 8:36









Nuntractatuses Amável

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57212












  • It can be a simple coincidence. Does this appear as a step in a proof ? Provide more context.
    – Yves Daoust
    Nov 27 at 8:57




















  • It can be a simple coincidence. Does this appear as a step in a proof ? Provide more context.
    – Yves Daoust
    Nov 27 at 8:57


















It can be a simple coincidence. Does this appear as a step in a proof ? Provide more context.
– Yves Daoust
Nov 27 at 8:57






It can be a simple coincidence. Does this appear as a step in a proof ? Provide more context.
– Yves Daoust
Nov 27 at 8:57












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$$
int_{mathbb{R}}frac{sin^{2}x}{x^{2}}dx = left[sin^{2}xleft(-frac{1}{x}right)right]^{infty}_{-infty} - int_{mathbb{R}} 2sin xcos x left(-frac{1}{x}right)dx \
=int_{mathbb{R}}frac{sin 2x}{x}dx = int_{mathbb{R}}frac{sin y}{y}dy
$$

Here we use integration by parts and the substitution $y = 2x$.






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    $$
    int_{mathbb{R}}frac{sin^{2}x}{x^{2}}dx = left[sin^{2}xleft(-frac{1}{x}right)right]^{infty}_{-infty} - int_{mathbb{R}} 2sin xcos x left(-frac{1}{x}right)dx \
    =int_{mathbb{R}}frac{sin 2x}{x}dx = int_{mathbb{R}}frac{sin y}{y}dy
    $$

    Here we use integration by parts and the substitution $y = 2x$.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      7
      down vote



      accepted










      $$
      int_{mathbb{R}}frac{sin^{2}x}{x^{2}}dx = left[sin^{2}xleft(-frac{1}{x}right)right]^{infty}_{-infty} - int_{mathbb{R}} 2sin xcos x left(-frac{1}{x}right)dx \
      =int_{mathbb{R}}frac{sin 2x}{x}dx = int_{mathbb{R}}frac{sin y}{y}dy
      $$

      Here we use integration by parts and the substitution $y = 2x$.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        7
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        7
        down vote



        accepted






        $$
        int_{mathbb{R}}frac{sin^{2}x}{x^{2}}dx = left[sin^{2}xleft(-frac{1}{x}right)right]^{infty}_{-infty} - int_{mathbb{R}} 2sin xcos x left(-frac{1}{x}right)dx \
        =int_{mathbb{R}}frac{sin 2x}{x}dx = int_{mathbb{R}}frac{sin y}{y}dy
        $$

        Here we use integration by parts and the substitution $y = 2x$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        $$
        int_{mathbb{R}}frac{sin^{2}x}{x^{2}}dx = left[sin^{2}xleft(-frac{1}{x}right)right]^{infty}_{-infty} - int_{mathbb{R}} 2sin xcos x left(-frac{1}{x}right)dx \
        =int_{mathbb{R}}frac{sin 2x}{x}dx = int_{mathbb{R}}frac{sin y}{y}dy
        $$

        Here we use integration by parts and the substitution $y = 2x$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 27 at 9:03









        Seewoo Lee

        6,110826




        6,110826






























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