Cauchy´s convergence test for Series
$begingroup$
Show whith the cauchy's convergence test for series, that the sequence :
$$ b_n = frac{1}{n+1} + frac{1}{n+2} + cdots + frac{1}{2n} $$
converges.
I think it would be not so difficult to use the comparison test, but using the cauchy's test I find it more tricky. Also somehow I used a similar proof to the one used on the harmonic serie and showed that the serie diverges, but there must be an error there. I did:
$$left|sum_{k=2n+1}^{4n} frac{1}{k} right| = frac{1}{2n+1}+frac{1}{2n+2}+cdots+frac{1}{4n}geq 2nfrac{1}{4n}=frac{1}{2}>epsilon $$
Do you find the error in that proof? And how do I show correctly that the cauchy's test actually smaller than every positive real number is?
Thank you for your help!
sequences-and-series cauchy-sequences
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Show whith the cauchy's convergence test for series, that the sequence :
$$ b_n = frac{1}{n+1} + frac{1}{n+2} + cdots + frac{1}{2n} $$
converges.
I think it would be not so difficult to use the comparison test, but using the cauchy's test I find it more tricky. Also somehow I used a similar proof to the one used on the harmonic serie and showed that the serie diverges, but there must be an error there. I did:
$$left|sum_{k=2n+1}^{4n} frac{1}{k} right| = frac{1}{2n+1}+frac{1}{2n+2}+cdots+frac{1}{4n}geq 2nfrac{1}{4n}=frac{1}{2}>epsilon $$
Do you find the error in that proof? And how do I show correctly that the cauchy's test actually smaller than every positive real number is?
Thank you for your help!
sequences-and-series cauchy-sequences
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Show whith the cauchy's convergence test for series, that the sequence :
$$ b_n = frac{1}{n+1} + frac{1}{n+2} + cdots + frac{1}{2n} $$
converges.
I think it would be not so difficult to use the comparison test, but using the cauchy's test I find it more tricky. Also somehow I used a similar proof to the one used on the harmonic serie and showed that the serie diverges, but there must be an error there. I did:
$$left|sum_{k=2n+1}^{4n} frac{1}{k} right| = frac{1}{2n+1}+frac{1}{2n+2}+cdots+frac{1}{4n}geq 2nfrac{1}{4n}=frac{1}{2}>epsilon $$
Do you find the error in that proof? And how do I show correctly that the cauchy's test actually smaller than every positive real number is?
Thank you for your help!
sequences-and-series cauchy-sequences
$endgroup$
Show whith the cauchy's convergence test for series, that the sequence :
$$ b_n = frac{1}{n+1} + frac{1}{n+2} + cdots + frac{1}{2n} $$
converges.
I think it would be not so difficult to use the comparison test, but using the cauchy's test I find it more tricky. Also somehow I used a similar proof to the one used on the harmonic serie and showed that the serie diverges, but there must be an error there. I did:
$$left|sum_{k=2n+1}^{4n} frac{1}{k} right| = frac{1}{2n+1}+frac{1}{2n+2}+cdots+frac{1}{4n}geq 2nfrac{1}{4n}=frac{1}{2}>epsilon $$
Do you find the error in that proof? And how do I show correctly that the cauchy's test actually smaller than every positive real number is?
Thank you for your help!
sequences-and-series cauchy-sequences
sequences-and-series cauchy-sequences
asked Dec 10 '18 at 23:20
M-S-RM-S-R
525
525
add a comment |
add a comment |
2 Answers
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oldest
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$begingroup$
The statement
$$
left|sum_{k=2n+1}^{4n} frac{1}{k} right| = frac{1}{2n+1}+frac{1}{2n+2}+cdots+frac{1}{4n}geq 2nfrac{1}{4n}=frac{1}{2}>epsilon
$$ does not imply that $b_{2n}$ diverges (i.e. does not converge to $textbf{any}$ value), but imply that $b_{2n}$ does not converge to $0$. This is the error in your proof.
In fact Cauchy's test can be done in this way. Observe that
$$
0leq b_{n+1}-b_n = frac{1}{2n+1}+frac{1}{2n+2}-frac{1}{n+1} = frac{1}{2n+1}-frac{1}{2n+2}leq frac{1}{4n(n+1)},
$$ and hence for $m>ngeq N$,
$$0leq b_m-b_n= sum_{k=n}^{m-1}(b_{k+1}-b_k)leq sum_{k=n}^{m-1}frac{1}{4}(frac{1}{k}-frac{1}{k+1})leq frac{1}{4}(frac{1}{m}-frac{1}{n+1})leq frac{1}{4N}.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
what I tried to do was to show that the sequence does not have the cauchy attribute, hence it cannot converge in $mathbb{R}$. So I started with $$ |b_{2n} - b_n | = left|sum_{k=2n+1}^{4n} frac{1}{k} right | = cdots $$
$endgroup$
– M-S-R
Dec 10 '18 at 23:47
$begingroup$
So what you are missing is that Cauchy attribute means $|b_m-b_n|to 0$ as $m,ntoinfty$. It means their 'difference' goes to zero so that the whole sequence is 'shrinking' to some point.
$endgroup$
– Song
Dec 10 '18 at 23:53
1
$begingroup$
Oops, then look carefully at how $b_{2n}-b_n$ looks like. What you gave on the RHS is just $b_{2n}$.
$endgroup$
– Song
Dec 10 '18 at 23:56
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If you know some asymptotic approximation for $H_n$ it is no wonder that $b_n=H_{2n}-H_n$ converges to $log 2$. Anyway, let us try to outline some interesting facts here. For instance, $b_n$ is a Riemann sum for $int_{0}^{1}frac{dx}{1+x}$: since $frac{1}{1+x}$ is a convex function on $[0,1]$, Karamata's inequality ensures that ${b_n}_{ngeq 1}$ is increasing. This can be also checked with elementary manipulations:
$$ b_{n+1}-b_n = frac{1}{2n+2}+frac{1}{2n+1}-frac{1}{n+1} = frac{1}{(2n+1)(2n+2)}>0.$$
This identity also gives
$$ lim_{nto +infty}b_n = lim_{nto +infty}sum_{m=0}^nfrac{1}{(2m+1)(2m+2)}=sum_{mgeq 0}frac{1}{(2n+1)(2m+2)}. $$
$b_n$ has a simple integral representation: since $frac{1}{b+1}=int_{0}^{1}x^{b},dx$,
$$begin{eqnarray*} b_n = H_{2n}-H_n &=& sum_{m=0}^{n}int_{0}^{1}left(x^{2m}-x^{2m+1}right),dx=int_{0}^{1}frac{1-x^{2m+2}}{1+x},dx\&=&log(2)-int_{0}^{1}x^{2n}frac{x^2 dx}{1+x}.end{eqnarray*}$$
The error term $log(2)-b_n=int_{0}^{1}x^{2n}frac{x^2,dx}{1+x}$ is trivially non-negative and decreasing to zero (by the dominated convergence theorem), bounded between $frac{1}{4n+6}$ and $frac{1}{2n+3}$, log-convex (and so convex) since it is a moment: the function $f(s)=int_{0}^{1} x^s frac{x^2,dx}{1+x}$ is clearly continuous on $[-1,+infty)$ and the midpoint-log-convexity of $f(s)$ is ensured by the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality:
$$left[int_{0}^{1}x^{frac{s+t}{2}}frac{x^2,dx}{1+x}right]^2 leq int_{0}^{1}x^sfrac{x^2,dx}{1+x}int_{0}^{1}x^tfrac{x^2,dx}{1+x} $$
is equivalent to $log fleft(frac{s+t}{2}right)leq frac{log f(s)+log f(t)}{2}.$
$endgroup$
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
The statement
$$
left|sum_{k=2n+1}^{4n} frac{1}{k} right| = frac{1}{2n+1}+frac{1}{2n+2}+cdots+frac{1}{4n}geq 2nfrac{1}{4n}=frac{1}{2}>epsilon
$$ does not imply that $b_{2n}$ diverges (i.e. does not converge to $textbf{any}$ value), but imply that $b_{2n}$ does not converge to $0$. This is the error in your proof.
In fact Cauchy's test can be done in this way. Observe that
$$
0leq b_{n+1}-b_n = frac{1}{2n+1}+frac{1}{2n+2}-frac{1}{n+1} = frac{1}{2n+1}-frac{1}{2n+2}leq frac{1}{4n(n+1)},
$$ and hence for $m>ngeq N$,
$$0leq b_m-b_n= sum_{k=n}^{m-1}(b_{k+1}-b_k)leq sum_{k=n}^{m-1}frac{1}{4}(frac{1}{k}-frac{1}{k+1})leq frac{1}{4}(frac{1}{m}-frac{1}{n+1})leq frac{1}{4N}.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
what I tried to do was to show that the sequence does not have the cauchy attribute, hence it cannot converge in $mathbb{R}$. So I started with $$ |b_{2n} - b_n | = left|sum_{k=2n+1}^{4n} frac{1}{k} right | = cdots $$
$endgroup$
– M-S-R
Dec 10 '18 at 23:47
$begingroup$
So what you are missing is that Cauchy attribute means $|b_m-b_n|to 0$ as $m,ntoinfty$. It means their 'difference' goes to zero so that the whole sequence is 'shrinking' to some point.
$endgroup$
– Song
Dec 10 '18 at 23:53
1
$begingroup$
Oops, then look carefully at how $b_{2n}-b_n$ looks like. What you gave on the RHS is just $b_{2n}$.
$endgroup$
– Song
Dec 10 '18 at 23:56
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The statement
$$
left|sum_{k=2n+1}^{4n} frac{1}{k} right| = frac{1}{2n+1}+frac{1}{2n+2}+cdots+frac{1}{4n}geq 2nfrac{1}{4n}=frac{1}{2}>epsilon
$$ does not imply that $b_{2n}$ diverges (i.e. does not converge to $textbf{any}$ value), but imply that $b_{2n}$ does not converge to $0$. This is the error in your proof.
In fact Cauchy's test can be done in this way. Observe that
$$
0leq b_{n+1}-b_n = frac{1}{2n+1}+frac{1}{2n+2}-frac{1}{n+1} = frac{1}{2n+1}-frac{1}{2n+2}leq frac{1}{4n(n+1)},
$$ and hence for $m>ngeq N$,
$$0leq b_m-b_n= sum_{k=n}^{m-1}(b_{k+1}-b_k)leq sum_{k=n}^{m-1}frac{1}{4}(frac{1}{k}-frac{1}{k+1})leq frac{1}{4}(frac{1}{m}-frac{1}{n+1})leq frac{1}{4N}.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
what I tried to do was to show that the sequence does not have the cauchy attribute, hence it cannot converge in $mathbb{R}$. So I started with $$ |b_{2n} - b_n | = left|sum_{k=2n+1}^{4n} frac{1}{k} right | = cdots $$
$endgroup$
– M-S-R
Dec 10 '18 at 23:47
$begingroup$
So what you are missing is that Cauchy attribute means $|b_m-b_n|to 0$ as $m,ntoinfty$. It means their 'difference' goes to zero so that the whole sequence is 'shrinking' to some point.
$endgroup$
– Song
Dec 10 '18 at 23:53
1
$begingroup$
Oops, then look carefully at how $b_{2n}-b_n$ looks like. What you gave on the RHS is just $b_{2n}$.
$endgroup$
– Song
Dec 10 '18 at 23:56
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The statement
$$
left|sum_{k=2n+1}^{4n} frac{1}{k} right| = frac{1}{2n+1}+frac{1}{2n+2}+cdots+frac{1}{4n}geq 2nfrac{1}{4n}=frac{1}{2}>epsilon
$$ does not imply that $b_{2n}$ diverges (i.e. does not converge to $textbf{any}$ value), but imply that $b_{2n}$ does not converge to $0$. This is the error in your proof.
In fact Cauchy's test can be done in this way. Observe that
$$
0leq b_{n+1}-b_n = frac{1}{2n+1}+frac{1}{2n+2}-frac{1}{n+1} = frac{1}{2n+1}-frac{1}{2n+2}leq frac{1}{4n(n+1)},
$$ and hence for $m>ngeq N$,
$$0leq b_m-b_n= sum_{k=n}^{m-1}(b_{k+1}-b_k)leq sum_{k=n}^{m-1}frac{1}{4}(frac{1}{k}-frac{1}{k+1})leq frac{1}{4}(frac{1}{m}-frac{1}{n+1})leq frac{1}{4N}.$$
$endgroup$
The statement
$$
left|sum_{k=2n+1}^{4n} frac{1}{k} right| = frac{1}{2n+1}+frac{1}{2n+2}+cdots+frac{1}{4n}geq 2nfrac{1}{4n}=frac{1}{2}>epsilon
$$ does not imply that $b_{2n}$ diverges (i.e. does not converge to $textbf{any}$ value), but imply that $b_{2n}$ does not converge to $0$. This is the error in your proof.
In fact Cauchy's test can be done in this way. Observe that
$$
0leq b_{n+1}-b_n = frac{1}{2n+1}+frac{1}{2n+2}-frac{1}{n+1} = frac{1}{2n+1}-frac{1}{2n+2}leq frac{1}{4n(n+1)},
$$ and hence for $m>ngeq N$,
$$0leq b_m-b_n= sum_{k=n}^{m-1}(b_{k+1}-b_k)leq sum_{k=n}^{m-1}frac{1}{4}(frac{1}{k}-frac{1}{k+1})leq frac{1}{4}(frac{1}{m}-frac{1}{n+1})leq frac{1}{4N}.$$
answered Dec 10 '18 at 23:40
SongSong
11.1k628
11.1k628
$begingroup$
what I tried to do was to show that the sequence does not have the cauchy attribute, hence it cannot converge in $mathbb{R}$. So I started with $$ |b_{2n} - b_n | = left|sum_{k=2n+1}^{4n} frac{1}{k} right | = cdots $$
$endgroup$
– M-S-R
Dec 10 '18 at 23:47
$begingroup$
So what you are missing is that Cauchy attribute means $|b_m-b_n|to 0$ as $m,ntoinfty$. It means their 'difference' goes to zero so that the whole sequence is 'shrinking' to some point.
$endgroup$
– Song
Dec 10 '18 at 23:53
1
$begingroup$
Oops, then look carefully at how $b_{2n}-b_n$ looks like. What you gave on the RHS is just $b_{2n}$.
$endgroup$
– Song
Dec 10 '18 at 23:56
add a comment |
$begingroup$
what I tried to do was to show that the sequence does not have the cauchy attribute, hence it cannot converge in $mathbb{R}$. So I started with $$ |b_{2n} - b_n | = left|sum_{k=2n+1}^{4n} frac{1}{k} right | = cdots $$
$endgroup$
– M-S-R
Dec 10 '18 at 23:47
$begingroup$
So what you are missing is that Cauchy attribute means $|b_m-b_n|to 0$ as $m,ntoinfty$. It means their 'difference' goes to zero so that the whole sequence is 'shrinking' to some point.
$endgroup$
– Song
Dec 10 '18 at 23:53
1
$begingroup$
Oops, then look carefully at how $b_{2n}-b_n$ looks like. What you gave on the RHS is just $b_{2n}$.
$endgroup$
– Song
Dec 10 '18 at 23:56
$begingroup$
what I tried to do was to show that the sequence does not have the cauchy attribute, hence it cannot converge in $mathbb{R}$. So I started with $$ |b_{2n} - b_n | = left|sum_{k=2n+1}^{4n} frac{1}{k} right | = cdots $$
$endgroup$
– M-S-R
Dec 10 '18 at 23:47
$begingroup$
what I tried to do was to show that the sequence does not have the cauchy attribute, hence it cannot converge in $mathbb{R}$. So I started with $$ |b_{2n} - b_n | = left|sum_{k=2n+1}^{4n} frac{1}{k} right | = cdots $$
$endgroup$
– M-S-R
Dec 10 '18 at 23:47
$begingroup$
So what you are missing is that Cauchy attribute means $|b_m-b_n|to 0$ as $m,ntoinfty$. It means their 'difference' goes to zero so that the whole sequence is 'shrinking' to some point.
$endgroup$
– Song
Dec 10 '18 at 23:53
$begingroup$
So what you are missing is that Cauchy attribute means $|b_m-b_n|to 0$ as $m,ntoinfty$. It means their 'difference' goes to zero so that the whole sequence is 'shrinking' to some point.
$endgroup$
– Song
Dec 10 '18 at 23:53
1
1
$begingroup$
Oops, then look carefully at how $b_{2n}-b_n$ looks like. What you gave on the RHS is just $b_{2n}$.
$endgroup$
– Song
Dec 10 '18 at 23:56
$begingroup$
Oops, then look carefully at how $b_{2n}-b_n$ looks like. What you gave on the RHS is just $b_{2n}$.
$endgroup$
– Song
Dec 10 '18 at 23:56
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If you know some asymptotic approximation for $H_n$ it is no wonder that $b_n=H_{2n}-H_n$ converges to $log 2$. Anyway, let us try to outline some interesting facts here. For instance, $b_n$ is a Riemann sum for $int_{0}^{1}frac{dx}{1+x}$: since $frac{1}{1+x}$ is a convex function on $[0,1]$, Karamata's inequality ensures that ${b_n}_{ngeq 1}$ is increasing. This can be also checked with elementary manipulations:
$$ b_{n+1}-b_n = frac{1}{2n+2}+frac{1}{2n+1}-frac{1}{n+1} = frac{1}{(2n+1)(2n+2)}>0.$$
This identity also gives
$$ lim_{nto +infty}b_n = lim_{nto +infty}sum_{m=0}^nfrac{1}{(2m+1)(2m+2)}=sum_{mgeq 0}frac{1}{(2n+1)(2m+2)}. $$
$b_n$ has a simple integral representation: since $frac{1}{b+1}=int_{0}^{1}x^{b},dx$,
$$begin{eqnarray*} b_n = H_{2n}-H_n &=& sum_{m=0}^{n}int_{0}^{1}left(x^{2m}-x^{2m+1}right),dx=int_{0}^{1}frac{1-x^{2m+2}}{1+x},dx\&=&log(2)-int_{0}^{1}x^{2n}frac{x^2 dx}{1+x}.end{eqnarray*}$$
The error term $log(2)-b_n=int_{0}^{1}x^{2n}frac{x^2,dx}{1+x}$ is trivially non-negative and decreasing to zero (by the dominated convergence theorem), bounded between $frac{1}{4n+6}$ and $frac{1}{2n+3}$, log-convex (and so convex) since it is a moment: the function $f(s)=int_{0}^{1} x^s frac{x^2,dx}{1+x}$ is clearly continuous on $[-1,+infty)$ and the midpoint-log-convexity of $f(s)$ is ensured by the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality:
$$left[int_{0}^{1}x^{frac{s+t}{2}}frac{x^2,dx}{1+x}right]^2 leq int_{0}^{1}x^sfrac{x^2,dx}{1+x}int_{0}^{1}x^tfrac{x^2,dx}{1+x} $$
is equivalent to $log fleft(frac{s+t}{2}right)leq frac{log f(s)+log f(t)}{2}.$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If you know some asymptotic approximation for $H_n$ it is no wonder that $b_n=H_{2n}-H_n$ converges to $log 2$. Anyway, let us try to outline some interesting facts here. For instance, $b_n$ is a Riemann sum for $int_{0}^{1}frac{dx}{1+x}$: since $frac{1}{1+x}$ is a convex function on $[0,1]$, Karamata's inequality ensures that ${b_n}_{ngeq 1}$ is increasing. This can be also checked with elementary manipulations:
$$ b_{n+1}-b_n = frac{1}{2n+2}+frac{1}{2n+1}-frac{1}{n+1} = frac{1}{(2n+1)(2n+2)}>0.$$
This identity also gives
$$ lim_{nto +infty}b_n = lim_{nto +infty}sum_{m=0}^nfrac{1}{(2m+1)(2m+2)}=sum_{mgeq 0}frac{1}{(2n+1)(2m+2)}. $$
$b_n$ has a simple integral representation: since $frac{1}{b+1}=int_{0}^{1}x^{b},dx$,
$$begin{eqnarray*} b_n = H_{2n}-H_n &=& sum_{m=0}^{n}int_{0}^{1}left(x^{2m}-x^{2m+1}right),dx=int_{0}^{1}frac{1-x^{2m+2}}{1+x},dx\&=&log(2)-int_{0}^{1}x^{2n}frac{x^2 dx}{1+x}.end{eqnarray*}$$
The error term $log(2)-b_n=int_{0}^{1}x^{2n}frac{x^2,dx}{1+x}$ is trivially non-negative and decreasing to zero (by the dominated convergence theorem), bounded between $frac{1}{4n+6}$ and $frac{1}{2n+3}$, log-convex (and so convex) since it is a moment: the function $f(s)=int_{0}^{1} x^s frac{x^2,dx}{1+x}$ is clearly continuous on $[-1,+infty)$ and the midpoint-log-convexity of $f(s)$ is ensured by the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality:
$$left[int_{0}^{1}x^{frac{s+t}{2}}frac{x^2,dx}{1+x}right]^2 leq int_{0}^{1}x^sfrac{x^2,dx}{1+x}int_{0}^{1}x^tfrac{x^2,dx}{1+x} $$
is equivalent to $log fleft(frac{s+t}{2}right)leq frac{log f(s)+log f(t)}{2}.$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If you know some asymptotic approximation for $H_n$ it is no wonder that $b_n=H_{2n}-H_n$ converges to $log 2$. Anyway, let us try to outline some interesting facts here. For instance, $b_n$ is a Riemann sum for $int_{0}^{1}frac{dx}{1+x}$: since $frac{1}{1+x}$ is a convex function on $[0,1]$, Karamata's inequality ensures that ${b_n}_{ngeq 1}$ is increasing. This can be also checked with elementary manipulations:
$$ b_{n+1}-b_n = frac{1}{2n+2}+frac{1}{2n+1}-frac{1}{n+1} = frac{1}{(2n+1)(2n+2)}>0.$$
This identity also gives
$$ lim_{nto +infty}b_n = lim_{nto +infty}sum_{m=0}^nfrac{1}{(2m+1)(2m+2)}=sum_{mgeq 0}frac{1}{(2n+1)(2m+2)}. $$
$b_n$ has a simple integral representation: since $frac{1}{b+1}=int_{0}^{1}x^{b},dx$,
$$begin{eqnarray*} b_n = H_{2n}-H_n &=& sum_{m=0}^{n}int_{0}^{1}left(x^{2m}-x^{2m+1}right),dx=int_{0}^{1}frac{1-x^{2m+2}}{1+x},dx\&=&log(2)-int_{0}^{1}x^{2n}frac{x^2 dx}{1+x}.end{eqnarray*}$$
The error term $log(2)-b_n=int_{0}^{1}x^{2n}frac{x^2,dx}{1+x}$ is trivially non-negative and decreasing to zero (by the dominated convergence theorem), bounded between $frac{1}{4n+6}$ and $frac{1}{2n+3}$, log-convex (and so convex) since it is a moment: the function $f(s)=int_{0}^{1} x^s frac{x^2,dx}{1+x}$ is clearly continuous on $[-1,+infty)$ and the midpoint-log-convexity of $f(s)$ is ensured by the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality:
$$left[int_{0}^{1}x^{frac{s+t}{2}}frac{x^2,dx}{1+x}right]^2 leq int_{0}^{1}x^sfrac{x^2,dx}{1+x}int_{0}^{1}x^tfrac{x^2,dx}{1+x} $$
is equivalent to $log fleft(frac{s+t}{2}right)leq frac{log f(s)+log f(t)}{2}.$
$endgroup$
If you know some asymptotic approximation for $H_n$ it is no wonder that $b_n=H_{2n}-H_n$ converges to $log 2$. Anyway, let us try to outline some interesting facts here. For instance, $b_n$ is a Riemann sum for $int_{0}^{1}frac{dx}{1+x}$: since $frac{1}{1+x}$ is a convex function on $[0,1]$, Karamata's inequality ensures that ${b_n}_{ngeq 1}$ is increasing. This can be also checked with elementary manipulations:
$$ b_{n+1}-b_n = frac{1}{2n+2}+frac{1}{2n+1}-frac{1}{n+1} = frac{1}{(2n+1)(2n+2)}>0.$$
This identity also gives
$$ lim_{nto +infty}b_n = lim_{nto +infty}sum_{m=0}^nfrac{1}{(2m+1)(2m+2)}=sum_{mgeq 0}frac{1}{(2n+1)(2m+2)}. $$
$b_n$ has a simple integral representation: since $frac{1}{b+1}=int_{0}^{1}x^{b},dx$,
$$begin{eqnarray*} b_n = H_{2n}-H_n &=& sum_{m=0}^{n}int_{0}^{1}left(x^{2m}-x^{2m+1}right),dx=int_{0}^{1}frac{1-x^{2m+2}}{1+x},dx\&=&log(2)-int_{0}^{1}x^{2n}frac{x^2 dx}{1+x}.end{eqnarray*}$$
The error term $log(2)-b_n=int_{0}^{1}x^{2n}frac{x^2,dx}{1+x}$ is trivially non-negative and decreasing to zero (by the dominated convergence theorem), bounded between $frac{1}{4n+6}$ and $frac{1}{2n+3}$, log-convex (and so convex) since it is a moment: the function $f(s)=int_{0}^{1} x^s frac{x^2,dx}{1+x}$ is clearly continuous on $[-1,+infty)$ and the midpoint-log-convexity of $f(s)$ is ensured by the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality:
$$left[int_{0}^{1}x^{frac{s+t}{2}}frac{x^2,dx}{1+x}right]^2 leq int_{0}^{1}x^sfrac{x^2,dx}{1+x}int_{0}^{1}x^tfrac{x^2,dx}{1+x} $$
is equivalent to $log fleft(frac{s+t}{2}right)leq frac{log f(s)+log f(t)}{2}.$
answered Dec 11 '18 at 0:45
Jack D'AurizioJack D'Aurizio
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