Show that $sumlimits_{n=1}^{infty}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)$ converges.












0












$begingroup$


$(a_n)$ is a sequence of strictly increasing positive numbers and has a lower as well as an upper bound. The question is, if the partial sum:



begin{align*}sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)&=left(frac{a_{1+1}}{a_1}-1right)+left(frac{a_{2+1}}{a_2}-1right)+cdots +left(frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}-1right)\&=frac{a_2}{a_1}+frac{a_3}{a_2}+cdots +frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}-k.end{align*}



converges? Because $(a_n)$ is a sequence of strictly increasing positive numbers, we have $a_{n+1}>a_n$ for all $n$. Because $(a_n)$ is bounded, we have an upper bound, e.g. $a$, and a lower bound, e.g. $b$, such that $b leq a_n leq a$ for all $n$. This means that $b leq a_n < a_{n+1} leq a$...



The problem with that is: if $k rightarrow infty$, then the series diverges, because of the $-k$ at the end of the expression?! Is there some kind of trick or something to use here?!



Thanks for your help in advance.



Best Regards,



Ahmed Hossam










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Note that the sequence $(a_n)$ converges since it is increasing and bounded above. Hence, the fractions $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}$ tend to $1$ so that your summands $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1$ tend to $0$. Hence, the "$-k$" is not a problem. Of course summands tending to zero is just a necessary, not a sufficient condition for the series to converge.
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Dec 13 '18 at 12:08












  • $begingroup$
    You mean $limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right) = limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} 1 = frac{limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} a_{n+1}}{limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} a_n} - 1 = frac{a}{a} - 1 = 1 - 1 = 0 $ ? Is this the same as $limlimits_{k rightarrow infty} sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)$?
    $endgroup$
    – Ahmed Hossam
    Dec 13 '18 at 12:32












  • $begingroup$
    $$sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)=underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{1+1}}{a_1}}^{>1}-1right)}_{>0}+underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{2+1}}{a_2}}^{>1}- 1right)}_{>0}+cdots +underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}}^{rightarrow 1} -1 right)}_{rightarrow 0}$$ if the terms in the sum converge to $0$, does this mean that, the partial sum converges to something???
    $endgroup$
    – Ahmed Hossam
    Dec 13 '18 at 14:27












  • $begingroup$
    The partial sums are increasing and bounded from above... $$sum_{n=1}^k left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} -1 right) = sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1}-a_n}{a_n} le sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1}-a_n}{a_1} = frac{a_{k+1}-a_1}{a_1}$$
    $endgroup$
    – achille hui
    Dec 13 '18 at 14:38










  • $begingroup$
    The last equality is not clear...
    $endgroup$
    – Ahmed Hossam
    Dec 13 '18 at 18:28
















0












$begingroup$


$(a_n)$ is a sequence of strictly increasing positive numbers and has a lower as well as an upper bound. The question is, if the partial sum:



begin{align*}sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)&=left(frac{a_{1+1}}{a_1}-1right)+left(frac{a_{2+1}}{a_2}-1right)+cdots +left(frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}-1right)\&=frac{a_2}{a_1}+frac{a_3}{a_2}+cdots +frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}-k.end{align*}



converges? Because $(a_n)$ is a sequence of strictly increasing positive numbers, we have $a_{n+1}>a_n$ for all $n$. Because $(a_n)$ is bounded, we have an upper bound, e.g. $a$, and a lower bound, e.g. $b$, such that $b leq a_n leq a$ for all $n$. This means that $b leq a_n < a_{n+1} leq a$...



The problem with that is: if $k rightarrow infty$, then the series diverges, because of the $-k$ at the end of the expression?! Is there some kind of trick or something to use here?!



Thanks for your help in advance.



Best Regards,



Ahmed Hossam










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Note that the sequence $(a_n)$ converges since it is increasing and bounded above. Hence, the fractions $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}$ tend to $1$ so that your summands $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1$ tend to $0$. Hence, the "$-k$" is not a problem. Of course summands tending to zero is just a necessary, not a sufficient condition for the series to converge.
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Dec 13 '18 at 12:08












  • $begingroup$
    You mean $limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right) = limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} 1 = frac{limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} a_{n+1}}{limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} a_n} - 1 = frac{a}{a} - 1 = 1 - 1 = 0 $ ? Is this the same as $limlimits_{k rightarrow infty} sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)$?
    $endgroup$
    – Ahmed Hossam
    Dec 13 '18 at 12:32












  • $begingroup$
    $$sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)=underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{1+1}}{a_1}}^{>1}-1right)}_{>0}+underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{2+1}}{a_2}}^{>1}- 1right)}_{>0}+cdots +underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}}^{rightarrow 1} -1 right)}_{rightarrow 0}$$ if the terms in the sum converge to $0$, does this mean that, the partial sum converges to something???
    $endgroup$
    – Ahmed Hossam
    Dec 13 '18 at 14:27












  • $begingroup$
    The partial sums are increasing and bounded from above... $$sum_{n=1}^k left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} -1 right) = sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1}-a_n}{a_n} le sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1}-a_n}{a_1} = frac{a_{k+1}-a_1}{a_1}$$
    $endgroup$
    – achille hui
    Dec 13 '18 at 14:38










  • $begingroup$
    The last equality is not clear...
    $endgroup$
    – Ahmed Hossam
    Dec 13 '18 at 18:28














0












0








0





$begingroup$


$(a_n)$ is a sequence of strictly increasing positive numbers and has a lower as well as an upper bound. The question is, if the partial sum:



begin{align*}sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)&=left(frac{a_{1+1}}{a_1}-1right)+left(frac{a_{2+1}}{a_2}-1right)+cdots +left(frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}-1right)\&=frac{a_2}{a_1}+frac{a_3}{a_2}+cdots +frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}-k.end{align*}



converges? Because $(a_n)$ is a sequence of strictly increasing positive numbers, we have $a_{n+1}>a_n$ for all $n$. Because $(a_n)$ is bounded, we have an upper bound, e.g. $a$, and a lower bound, e.g. $b$, such that $b leq a_n leq a$ for all $n$. This means that $b leq a_n < a_{n+1} leq a$...



The problem with that is: if $k rightarrow infty$, then the series diverges, because of the $-k$ at the end of the expression?! Is there some kind of trick or something to use here?!



Thanks for your help in advance.



Best Regards,



Ahmed Hossam










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




$(a_n)$ is a sequence of strictly increasing positive numbers and has a lower as well as an upper bound. The question is, if the partial sum:



begin{align*}sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)&=left(frac{a_{1+1}}{a_1}-1right)+left(frac{a_{2+1}}{a_2}-1right)+cdots +left(frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}-1right)\&=frac{a_2}{a_1}+frac{a_3}{a_2}+cdots +frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}-k.end{align*}



converges? Because $(a_n)$ is a sequence of strictly increasing positive numbers, we have $a_{n+1}>a_n$ for all $n$. Because $(a_n)$ is bounded, we have an upper bound, e.g. $a$, and a lower bound, e.g. $b$, such that $b leq a_n leq a$ for all $n$. This means that $b leq a_n < a_{n+1} leq a$...



The problem with that is: if $k rightarrow infty$, then the series diverges, because of the $-k$ at the end of the expression?! Is there some kind of trick or something to use here?!



Thanks for your help in advance.



Best Regards,



Ahmed Hossam







real-analysis calculus sequences-and-series real-numbers






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 13 '18 at 12:24







Ahmed Hossam

















asked Dec 13 '18 at 11:53









Ahmed HossamAhmed Hossam

126




126












  • $begingroup$
    Note that the sequence $(a_n)$ converges since it is increasing and bounded above. Hence, the fractions $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}$ tend to $1$ so that your summands $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1$ tend to $0$. Hence, the "$-k$" is not a problem. Of course summands tending to zero is just a necessary, not a sufficient condition for the series to converge.
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Dec 13 '18 at 12:08












  • $begingroup$
    You mean $limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right) = limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} 1 = frac{limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} a_{n+1}}{limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} a_n} - 1 = frac{a}{a} - 1 = 1 - 1 = 0 $ ? Is this the same as $limlimits_{k rightarrow infty} sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)$?
    $endgroup$
    – Ahmed Hossam
    Dec 13 '18 at 12:32












  • $begingroup$
    $$sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)=underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{1+1}}{a_1}}^{>1}-1right)}_{>0}+underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{2+1}}{a_2}}^{>1}- 1right)}_{>0}+cdots +underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}}^{rightarrow 1} -1 right)}_{rightarrow 0}$$ if the terms in the sum converge to $0$, does this mean that, the partial sum converges to something???
    $endgroup$
    – Ahmed Hossam
    Dec 13 '18 at 14:27












  • $begingroup$
    The partial sums are increasing and bounded from above... $$sum_{n=1}^k left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} -1 right) = sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1}-a_n}{a_n} le sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1}-a_n}{a_1} = frac{a_{k+1}-a_1}{a_1}$$
    $endgroup$
    – achille hui
    Dec 13 '18 at 14:38










  • $begingroup$
    The last equality is not clear...
    $endgroup$
    – Ahmed Hossam
    Dec 13 '18 at 18:28


















  • $begingroup$
    Note that the sequence $(a_n)$ converges since it is increasing and bounded above. Hence, the fractions $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}$ tend to $1$ so that your summands $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1$ tend to $0$. Hence, the "$-k$" is not a problem. Of course summands tending to zero is just a necessary, not a sufficient condition for the series to converge.
    $endgroup$
    – Christoph
    Dec 13 '18 at 12:08












  • $begingroup$
    You mean $limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right) = limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} 1 = frac{limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} a_{n+1}}{limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} a_n} - 1 = frac{a}{a} - 1 = 1 - 1 = 0 $ ? Is this the same as $limlimits_{k rightarrow infty} sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)$?
    $endgroup$
    – Ahmed Hossam
    Dec 13 '18 at 12:32












  • $begingroup$
    $$sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)=underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{1+1}}{a_1}}^{>1}-1right)}_{>0}+underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{2+1}}{a_2}}^{>1}- 1right)}_{>0}+cdots +underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}}^{rightarrow 1} -1 right)}_{rightarrow 0}$$ if the terms in the sum converge to $0$, does this mean that, the partial sum converges to something???
    $endgroup$
    – Ahmed Hossam
    Dec 13 '18 at 14:27












  • $begingroup$
    The partial sums are increasing and bounded from above... $$sum_{n=1}^k left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} -1 right) = sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1}-a_n}{a_n} le sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1}-a_n}{a_1} = frac{a_{k+1}-a_1}{a_1}$$
    $endgroup$
    – achille hui
    Dec 13 '18 at 14:38










  • $begingroup$
    The last equality is not clear...
    $endgroup$
    – Ahmed Hossam
    Dec 13 '18 at 18:28
















$begingroup$
Note that the sequence $(a_n)$ converges since it is increasing and bounded above. Hence, the fractions $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}$ tend to $1$ so that your summands $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1$ tend to $0$. Hence, the "$-k$" is not a problem. Of course summands tending to zero is just a necessary, not a sufficient condition for the series to converge.
$endgroup$
– Christoph
Dec 13 '18 at 12:08






$begingroup$
Note that the sequence $(a_n)$ converges since it is increasing and bounded above. Hence, the fractions $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}$ tend to $1$ so that your summands $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1$ tend to $0$. Hence, the "$-k$" is not a problem. Of course summands tending to zero is just a necessary, not a sufficient condition for the series to converge.
$endgroup$
– Christoph
Dec 13 '18 at 12:08














$begingroup$
You mean $limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right) = limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} 1 = frac{limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} a_{n+1}}{limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} a_n} - 1 = frac{a}{a} - 1 = 1 - 1 = 0 $ ? Is this the same as $limlimits_{k rightarrow infty} sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)$?
$endgroup$
– Ahmed Hossam
Dec 13 '18 at 12:32






$begingroup$
You mean $limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right) = limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} 1 = frac{limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} a_{n+1}}{limlimits_{n rightarrow infty} a_n} - 1 = frac{a}{a} - 1 = 1 - 1 = 0 $ ? Is this the same as $limlimits_{k rightarrow infty} sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)$?
$endgroup$
– Ahmed Hossam
Dec 13 '18 at 12:32














$begingroup$
$$sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)=underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{1+1}}{a_1}}^{>1}-1right)}_{>0}+underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{2+1}}{a_2}}^{>1}- 1right)}_{>0}+cdots +underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}}^{rightarrow 1} -1 right)}_{rightarrow 0}$$ if the terms in the sum converge to $0$, does this mean that, the partial sum converges to something???
$endgroup$
– Ahmed Hossam
Dec 13 '18 at 14:27






$begingroup$
$$sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)=underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{1+1}}{a_1}}^{>1}-1right)}_{>0}+underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{2+1}}{a_2}}^{>1}- 1right)}_{>0}+cdots +underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}}^{rightarrow 1} -1 right)}_{rightarrow 0}$$ if the terms in the sum converge to $0$, does this mean that, the partial sum converges to something???
$endgroup$
– Ahmed Hossam
Dec 13 '18 at 14:27














$begingroup$
The partial sums are increasing and bounded from above... $$sum_{n=1}^k left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} -1 right) = sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1}-a_n}{a_n} le sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1}-a_n}{a_1} = frac{a_{k+1}-a_1}{a_1}$$
$endgroup$
– achille hui
Dec 13 '18 at 14:38




$begingroup$
The partial sums are increasing and bounded from above... $$sum_{n=1}^k left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} -1 right) = sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1}-a_n}{a_n} le sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1}-a_n}{a_1} = frac{a_{k+1}-a_1}{a_1}$$
$endgroup$
– achille hui
Dec 13 '18 at 14:38












$begingroup$
The last equality is not clear...
$endgroup$
– Ahmed Hossam
Dec 13 '18 at 18:28




$begingroup$
The last equality is not clear...
$endgroup$
– Ahmed Hossam
Dec 13 '18 at 18:28










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

We are given





  1. $(a_n)$ is a strictly increasing sequence

  2. of positive terms

  3. bounded from above.


Let's say $M$ is an upper bound. (*1) and (*2) implies for all $n$,



$$a_{n+1} > a_n > 0 implies frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} > 1 iff frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1 > 0$$



As a sequence indexed by $k$, the partial sums $s_k stackrel{def}{=}sumlimits_{n=1}^k left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right)$ is a sum of positive terms, so it is strictly increasing. More precisely, we have



$$
s_{k+1} - s_{k} =
sumlimits_{n=1}^{k+1} left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right)
-
sumlimits_{n=1}^{k} left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right)
= frac{a_{k+2}}{a_{k+1}} - 1 > 0
implies s_{k+1} > s_{k}
$$



By (*1) and (*2) again, we have $a_{n+1} > a_n ge a_1 > 0$. This implies
$$s_k = sum_{n=1}^k left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1 right)
= sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1} - a_{n}}{a_n}
le sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1} - a_{n}}{a_1}
= frac{1}{a_1}sum_{n=1}^k (a_{n+1} - a_n)
$$

The last sum is a telescoping sum. Together with (*3), we obtain
$$s_k le frac{1}{a_1}(a_{k+1} - a_1) le frac{M-1}{a_1}$$
This means as a sequence, the partial sums is bounded from above too. Being increasing and bounded from above, the sequence $s_k$ converges. By definition, so does the series
$sumlimits_{n=1}^infty left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right)$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    4












    $begingroup$

    You can check that it is equivalent to determine whether the series of $logleft(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right)$ converges, because $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} rightarrow 1$.



    Edit: to be more clear:



    $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1 sim logleft(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right) > 0$ as $n$ goes to infinity.



    Thus, the series $sum_n{frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1}$ is convergent iff the series $sum_n{logleft(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right)}$ is convergent.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      You mean $limlimits_{krightarrow infty}sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right) Leftrightarrow limlimits_{krightarrow infty}sumlimits_{n=1}^{k} log left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right)$?
      $endgroup$
      – Ahmed Hossam
      Dec 13 '18 at 12:38












    • $begingroup$
      No. I mean that one series grows to $infty$ iff the other does.
      $endgroup$
      – Mindlack
      Dec 13 '18 at 12:41










    • $begingroup$
      Ok, which series is that one series and which is the other?
      $endgroup$
      – Ahmed Hossam
      Dec 13 '18 at 12:43












    • $begingroup$
      $frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k} rightarrow 1$ as $k rightarrow infty$, because the sequence $(a_n)$ has an upper bound. But this is only one term in $displaystylefrac{a_{2}}{a_1} + frac{a_{3}}{a_2} +cdots + frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}-k$. All other fractions are $>1$, because $a_{n+1}>a_n$ ...
      $endgroup$
      – Ahmed Hossam
      Dec 13 '18 at 14:17












    • $begingroup$
      $$sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)=underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{1+1}}{a_1}}^{>1}-1right)}_{>0}+underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{2+1}}{a_2}}^{>1}- 1right)}_{>0}+cdots +underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}}^{rightarrow 1} -1 right)}_{rightarrow 0}$$ if the terms in the sum converge to $0$, does this mean that, the partial sum converges to something???
      $endgroup$
      – Ahmed Hossam
      Dec 13 '18 at 14:28













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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    0












    $begingroup$

    We are given





    1. $(a_n)$ is a strictly increasing sequence

    2. of positive terms

    3. bounded from above.


    Let's say $M$ is an upper bound. (*1) and (*2) implies for all $n$,



    $$a_{n+1} > a_n > 0 implies frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} > 1 iff frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1 > 0$$



    As a sequence indexed by $k$, the partial sums $s_k stackrel{def}{=}sumlimits_{n=1}^k left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right)$ is a sum of positive terms, so it is strictly increasing. More precisely, we have



    $$
    s_{k+1} - s_{k} =
    sumlimits_{n=1}^{k+1} left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right)
    -
    sumlimits_{n=1}^{k} left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right)
    = frac{a_{k+2}}{a_{k+1}} - 1 > 0
    implies s_{k+1} > s_{k}
    $$



    By (*1) and (*2) again, we have $a_{n+1} > a_n ge a_1 > 0$. This implies
    $$s_k = sum_{n=1}^k left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1 right)
    = sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1} - a_{n}}{a_n}
    le sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1} - a_{n}}{a_1}
    = frac{1}{a_1}sum_{n=1}^k (a_{n+1} - a_n)
    $$

    The last sum is a telescoping sum. Together with (*3), we obtain
    $$s_k le frac{1}{a_1}(a_{k+1} - a_1) le frac{M-1}{a_1}$$
    This means as a sequence, the partial sums is bounded from above too. Being increasing and bounded from above, the sequence $s_k$ converges. By definition, so does the series
    $sumlimits_{n=1}^infty left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      We are given





      1. $(a_n)$ is a strictly increasing sequence

      2. of positive terms

      3. bounded from above.


      Let's say $M$ is an upper bound. (*1) and (*2) implies for all $n$,



      $$a_{n+1} > a_n > 0 implies frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} > 1 iff frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1 > 0$$



      As a sequence indexed by $k$, the partial sums $s_k stackrel{def}{=}sumlimits_{n=1}^k left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right)$ is a sum of positive terms, so it is strictly increasing. More precisely, we have



      $$
      s_{k+1} - s_{k} =
      sumlimits_{n=1}^{k+1} left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right)
      -
      sumlimits_{n=1}^{k} left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right)
      = frac{a_{k+2}}{a_{k+1}} - 1 > 0
      implies s_{k+1} > s_{k}
      $$



      By (*1) and (*2) again, we have $a_{n+1} > a_n ge a_1 > 0$. This implies
      $$s_k = sum_{n=1}^k left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1 right)
      = sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1} - a_{n}}{a_n}
      le sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1} - a_{n}}{a_1}
      = frac{1}{a_1}sum_{n=1}^k (a_{n+1} - a_n)
      $$

      The last sum is a telescoping sum. Together with (*3), we obtain
      $$s_k le frac{1}{a_1}(a_{k+1} - a_1) le frac{M-1}{a_1}$$
      This means as a sequence, the partial sums is bounded from above too. Being increasing and bounded from above, the sequence $s_k$ converges. By definition, so does the series
      $sumlimits_{n=1}^infty left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right)$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        We are given





        1. $(a_n)$ is a strictly increasing sequence

        2. of positive terms

        3. bounded from above.


        Let's say $M$ is an upper bound. (*1) and (*2) implies for all $n$,



        $$a_{n+1} > a_n > 0 implies frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} > 1 iff frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1 > 0$$



        As a sequence indexed by $k$, the partial sums $s_k stackrel{def}{=}sumlimits_{n=1}^k left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right)$ is a sum of positive terms, so it is strictly increasing. More precisely, we have



        $$
        s_{k+1} - s_{k} =
        sumlimits_{n=1}^{k+1} left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right)
        -
        sumlimits_{n=1}^{k} left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right)
        = frac{a_{k+2}}{a_{k+1}} - 1 > 0
        implies s_{k+1} > s_{k}
        $$



        By (*1) and (*2) again, we have $a_{n+1} > a_n ge a_1 > 0$. This implies
        $$s_k = sum_{n=1}^k left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1 right)
        = sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1} - a_{n}}{a_n}
        le sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1} - a_{n}}{a_1}
        = frac{1}{a_1}sum_{n=1}^k (a_{n+1} - a_n)
        $$

        The last sum is a telescoping sum. Together with (*3), we obtain
        $$s_k le frac{1}{a_1}(a_{k+1} - a_1) le frac{M-1}{a_1}$$
        This means as a sequence, the partial sums is bounded from above too. Being increasing and bounded from above, the sequence $s_k$ converges. By definition, so does the series
        $sumlimits_{n=1}^infty left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right)$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        We are given





        1. $(a_n)$ is a strictly increasing sequence

        2. of positive terms

        3. bounded from above.


        Let's say $M$ is an upper bound. (*1) and (*2) implies for all $n$,



        $$a_{n+1} > a_n > 0 implies frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} > 1 iff frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1 > 0$$



        As a sequence indexed by $k$, the partial sums $s_k stackrel{def}{=}sumlimits_{n=1}^k left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right)$ is a sum of positive terms, so it is strictly increasing. More precisely, we have



        $$
        s_{k+1} - s_{k} =
        sumlimits_{n=1}^{k+1} left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right)
        -
        sumlimits_{n=1}^{k} left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right)
        = frac{a_{k+2}}{a_{k+1}} - 1 > 0
        implies s_{k+1} > s_{k}
        $$



        By (*1) and (*2) again, we have $a_{n+1} > a_n ge a_1 > 0$. This implies
        $$s_k = sum_{n=1}^k left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1 right)
        = sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1} - a_{n}}{a_n}
        le sum_{n=1}^k frac{a_{n+1} - a_{n}}{a_1}
        = frac{1}{a_1}sum_{n=1}^k (a_{n+1} - a_n)
        $$

        The last sum is a telescoping sum. Together with (*3), we obtain
        $$s_k le frac{1}{a_1}(a_{k+1} - a_1) le frac{M-1}{a_1}$$
        This means as a sequence, the partial sums is bounded from above too. Being increasing and bounded from above, the sequence $s_k$ converges. By definition, so does the series
        $sumlimits_{n=1}^infty left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} - 1right)$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 14 '18 at 3:58









        achille huiachille hui

        95.9k5132258




        95.9k5132258























            4












            $begingroup$

            You can check that it is equivalent to determine whether the series of $logleft(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right)$ converges, because $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} rightarrow 1$.



            Edit: to be more clear:



            $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1 sim logleft(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right) > 0$ as $n$ goes to infinity.



            Thus, the series $sum_n{frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1}$ is convergent iff the series $sum_n{logleft(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right)}$ is convergent.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              You mean $limlimits_{krightarrow infty}sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right) Leftrightarrow limlimits_{krightarrow infty}sumlimits_{n=1}^{k} log left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right)$?
              $endgroup$
              – Ahmed Hossam
              Dec 13 '18 at 12:38












            • $begingroup$
              No. I mean that one series grows to $infty$ iff the other does.
              $endgroup$
              – Mindlack
              Dec 13 '18 at 12:41










            • $begingroup$
              Ok, which series is that one series and which is the other?
              $endgroup$
              – Ahmed Hossam
              Dec 13 '18 at 12:43












            • $begingroup$
              $frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k} rightarrow 1$ as $k rightarrow infty$, because the sequence $(a_n)$ has an upper bound. But this is only one term in $displaystylefrac{a_{2}}{a_1} + frac{a_{3}}{a_2} +cdots + frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}-k$. All other fractions are $>1$, because $a_{n+1}>a_n$ ...
              $endgroup$
              – Ahmed Hossam
              Dec 13 '18 at 14:17












            • $begingroup$
              $$sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)=underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{1+1}}{a_1}}^{>1}-1right)}_{>0}+underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{2+1}}{a_2}}^{>1}- 1right)}_{>0}+cdots +underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}}^{rightarrow 1} -1 right)}_{rightarrow 0}$$ if the terms in the sum converge to $0$, does this mean that, the partial sum converges to something???
              $endgroup$
              – Ahmed Hossam
              Dec 13 '18 at 14:28


















            4












            $begingroup$

            You can check that it is equivalent to determine whether the series of $logleft(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right)$ converges, because $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} rightarrow 1$.



            Edit: to be more clear:



            $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1 sim logleft(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right) > 0$ as $n$ goes to infinity.



            Thus, the series $sum_n{frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1}$ is convergent iff the series $sum_n{logleft(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right)}$ is convergent.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              You mean $limlimits_{krightarrow infty}sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right) Leftrightarrow limlimits_{krightarrow infty}sumlimits_{n=1}^{k} log left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right)$?
              $endgroup$
              – Ahmed Hossam
              Dec 13 '18 at 12:38












            • $begingroup$
              No. I mean that one series grows to $infty$ iff the other does.
              $endgroup$
              – Mindlack
              Dec 13 '18 at 12:41










            • $begingroup$
              Ok, which series is that one series and which is the other?
              $endgroup$
              – Ahmed Hossam
              Dec 13 '18 at 12:43












            • $begingroup$
              $frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k} rightarrow 1$ as $k rightarrow infty$, because the sequence $(a_n)$ has an upper bound. But this is only one term in $displaystylefrac{a_{2}}{a_1} + frac{a_{3}}{a_2} +cdots + frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}-k$. All other fractions are $>1$, because $a_{n+1}>a_n$ ...
              $endgroup$
              – Ahmed Hossam
              Dec 13 '18 at 14:17












            • $begingroup$
              $$sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)=underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{1+1}}{a_1}}^{>1}-1right)}_{>0}+underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{2+1}}{a_2}}^{>1}- 1right)}_{>0}+cdots +underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}}^{rightarrow 1} -1 right)}_{rightarrow 0}$$ if the terms in the sum converge to $0$, does this mean that, the partial sum converges to something???
              $endgroup$
              – Ahmed Hossam
              Dec 13 '18 at 14:28
















            4












            4








            4





            $begingroup$

            You can check that it is equivalent to determine whether the series of $logleft(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right)$ converges, because $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} rightarrow 1$.



            Edit: to be more clear:



            $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1 sim logleft(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right) > 0$ as $n$ goes to infinity.



            Thus, the series $sum_n{frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1}$ is convergent iff the series $sum_n{logleft(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right)}$ is convergent.






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            You can check that it is equivalent to determine whether the series of $logleft(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right)$ converges, because $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n} rightarrow 1$.



            Edit: to be more clear:



            $frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1 sim logleft(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right) > 0$ as $n$ goes to infinity.



            Thus, the series $sum_n{frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1}$ is convergent iff the series $sum_n{logleft(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right)}$ is convergent.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Dec 13 '18 at 14:27

























            answered Dec 13 '18 at 11:59









            MindlackMindlack

            3,85518




            3,85518












            • $begingroup$
              You mean $limlimits_{krightarrow infty}sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right) Leftrightarrow limlimits_{krightarrow infty}sumlimits_{n=1}^{k} log left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right)$?
              $endgroup$
              – Ahmed Hossam
              Dec 13 '18 at 12:38












            • $begingroup$
              No. I mean that one series grows to $infty$ iff the other does.
              $endgroup$
              – Mindlack
              Dec 13 '18 at 12:41










            • $begingroup$
              Ok, which series is that one series and which is the other?
              $endgroup$
              – Ahmed Hossam
              Dec 13 '18 at 12:43












            • $begingroup$
              $frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k} rightarrow 1$ as $k rightarrow infty$, because the sequence $(a_n)$ has an upper bound. But this is only one term in $displaystylefrac{a_{2}}{a_1} + frac{a_{3}}{a_2} +cdots + frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}-k$. All other fractions are $>1$, because $a_{n+1}>a_n$ ...
              $endgroup$
              – Ahmed Hossam
              Dec 13 '18 at 14:17












            • $begingroup$
              $$sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)=underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{1+1}}{a_1}}^{>1}-1right)}_{>0}+underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{2+1}}{a_2}}^{>1}- 1right)}_{>0}+cdots +underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}}^{rightarrow 1} -1 right)}_{rightarrow 0}$$ if the terms in the sum converge to $0$, does this mean that, the partial sum converges to something???
              $endgroup$
              – Ahmed Hossam
              Dec 13 '18 at 14:28




















            • $begingroup$
              You mean $limlimits_{krightarrow infty}sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right) Leftrightarrow limlimits_{krightarrow infty}sumlimits_{n=1}^{k} log left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right)$?
              $endgroup$
              – Ahmed Hossam
              Dec 13 '18 at 12:38












            • $begingroup$
              No. I mean that one series grows to $infty$ iff the other does.
              $endgroup$
              – Mindlack
              Dec 13 '18 at 12:41










            • $begingroup$
              Ok, which series is that one series and which is the other?
              $endgroup$
              – Ahmed Hossam
              Dec 13 '18 at 12:43












            • $begingroup$
              $frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k} rightarrow 1$ as $k rightarrow infty$, because the sequence $(a_n)$ has an upper bound. But this is only one term in $displaystylefrac{a_{2}}{a_1} + frac{a_{3}}{a_2} +cdots + frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}-k$. All other fractions are $>1$, because $a_{n+1}>a_n$ ...
              $endgroup$
              – Ahmed Hossam
              Dec 13 '18 at 14:17












            • $begingroup$
              $$sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)=underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{1+1}}{a_1}}^{>1}-1right)}_{>0}+underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{2+1}}{a_2}}^{>1}- 1right)}_{>0}+cdots +underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}}^{rightarrow 1} -1 right)}_{rightarrow 0}$$ if the terms in the sum converge to $0$, does this mean that, the partial sum converges to something???
              $endgroup$
              – Ahmed Hossam
              Dec 13 '18 at 14:28


















            $begingroup$
            You mean $limlimits_{krightarrow infty}sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right) Leftrightarrow limlimits_{krightarrow infty}sumlimits_{n=1}^{k} log left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right)$?
            $endgroup$
            – Ahmed Hossam
            Dec 13 '18 at 12:38






            $begingroup$
            You mean $limlimits_{krightarrow infty}sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right) Leftrightarrow limlimits_{krightarrow infty}sumlimits_{n=1}^{k} log left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}right)$?
            $endgroup$
            – Ahmed Hossam
            Dec 13 '18 at 12:38














            $begingroup$
            No. I mean that one series grows to $infty$ iff the other does.
            $endgroup$
            – Mindlack
            Dec 13 '18 at 12:41




            $begingroup$
            No. I mean that one series grows to $infty$ iff the other does.
            $endgroup$
            – Mindlack
            Dec 13 '18 at 12:41












            $begingroup$
            Ok, which series is that one series and which is the other?
            $endgroup$
            – Ahmed Hossam
            Dec 13 '18 at 12:43






            $begingroup$
            Ok, which series is that one series and which is the other?
            $endgroup$
            – Ahmed Hossam
            Dec 13 '18 at 12:43














            $begingroup$
            $frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k} rightarrow 1$ as $k rightarrow infty$, because the sequence $(a_n)$ has an upper bound. But this is only one term in $displaystylefrac{a_{2}}{a_1} + frac{a_{3}}{a_2} +cdots + frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}-k$. All other fractions are $>1$, because $a_{n+1}>a_n$ ...
            $endgroup$
            – Ahmed Hossam
            Dec 13 '18 at 14:17






            $begingroup$
            $frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k} rightarrow 1$ as $k rightarrow infty$, because the sequence $(a_n)$ has an upper bound. But this is only one term in $displaystylefrac{a_{2}}{a_1} + frac{a_{3}}{a_2} +cdots + frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}-k$. All other fractions are $>1$, because $a_{n+1}>a_n$ ...
            $endgroup$
            – Ahmed Hossam
            Dec 13 '18 at 14:17














            $begingroup$
            $$sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)=underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{1+1}}{a_1}}^{>1}-1right)}_{>0}+underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{2+1}}{a_2}}^{>1}- 1right)}_{>0}+cdots +underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}}^{rightarrow 1} -1 right)}_{rightarrow 0}$$ if the terms in the sum converge to $0$, does this mean that, the partial sum converges to something???
            $endgroup$
            – Ahmed Hossam
            Dec 13 '18 at 14:28






            $begingroup$
            $$sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}left(frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}-1right)=underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{1+1}}{a_1}}^{>1}-1right)}_{>0}+underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{2+1}}{a_2}}^{>1}- 1right)}_{>0}+cdots +underbrace{left(overbrace{frac{a_{k+1}}{a_k}}^{rightarrow 1} -1 right)}_{rightarrow 0}$$ if the terms in the sum converge to $0$, does this mean that, the partial sum converges to something???
            $endgroup$
            – Ahmed Hossam
            Dec 13 '18 at 14:28




















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