If $sum_{n=1}^{infty} sum_{k=1}^{infty} f_{n}(k) = infty$ then $sum_{k=1}^{infty} sum_{n=1}^{infty} f_{n}(k)...












3












$begingroup$


Suppose ${f_{n}}_{n=1}^{infty}$ be functions such that $f_{n} : Bbb{N} rightarrow Bbb{R}^{+}$ for each $n$.



I was trying to prove -



If $sum_{n=1}^{infty} sum_{k=1}^{infty} f_{n}(k) = infty$ then $sum_{k=1}^{infty} sum_{n=1}^{infty} f_{n}(k) = infty$.



I can see that both the double summation series are equal by expanding the double summation.But I am trying to prove it ? any other thoughts?



Hm, as the order of summation are changed, is Uniform convergence likely to play any role here?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Values in $mathbb R^+$, yes. You should be able to prove it.
    $endgroup$
    – GEdgar
    Dec 31 '18 at 21:51










  • $begingroup$
    thank u for the hint!!
    $endgroup$
    – BAYMAX
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:19
















3












$begingroup$


Suppose ${f_{n}}_{n=1}^{infty}$ be functions such that $f_{n} : Bbb{N} rightarrow Bbb{R}^{+}$ for each $n$.



I was trying to prove -



If $sum_{n=1}^{infty} sum_{k=1}^{infty} f_{n}(k) = infty$ then $sum_{k=1}^{infty} sum_{n=1}^{infty} f_{n}(k) = infty$.



I can see that both the double summation series are equal by expanding the double summation.But I am trying to prove it ? any other thoughts?



Hm, as the order of summation are changed, is Uniform convergence likely to play any role here?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Values in $mathbb R^+$, yes. You should be able to prove it.
    $endgroup$
    – GEdgar
    Dec 31 '18 at 21:51










  • $begingroup$
    thank u for the hint!!
    $endgroup$
    – BAYMAX
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:19














3












3








3





$begingroup$


Suppose ${f_{n}}_{n=1}^{infty}$ be functions such that $f_{n} : Bbb{N} rightarrow Bbb{R}^{+}$ for each $n$.



I was trying to prove -



If $sum_{n=1}^{infty} sum_{k=1}^{infty} f_{n}(k) = infty$ then $sum_{k=1}^{infty} sum_{n=1}^{infty} f_{n}(k) = infty$.



I can see that both the double summation series are equal by expanding the double summation.But I am trying to prove it ? any other thoughts?



Hm, as the order of summation are changed, is Uniform convergence likely to play any role here?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Suppose ${f_{n}}_{n=1}^{infty}$ be functions such that $f_{n} : Bbb{N} rightarrow Bbb{R}^{+}$ for each $n$.



I was trying to prove -



If $sum_{n=1}^{infty} sum_{k=1}^{infty} f_{n}(k) = infty$ then $sum_{k=1}^{infty} sum_{n=1}^{infty} f_{n}(k) = infty$.



I can see that both the double summation series are equal by expanding the double summation.But I am trying to prove it ? any other thoughts?



Hm, as the order of summation are changed, is Uniform convergence likely to play any role here?







calculus functions convergence summation






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 31 '18 at 21:37









BAYMAXBAYMAX

2,93021225




2,93021225












  • $begingroup$
    Values in $mathbb R^+$, yes. You should be able to prove it.
    $endgroup$
    – GEdgar
    Dec 31 '18 at 21:51










  • $begingroup$
    thank u for the hint!!
    $endgroup$
    – BAYMAX
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:19


















  • $begingroup$
    Values in $mathbb R^+$, yes. You should be able to prove it.
    $endgroup$
    – GEdgar
    Dec 31 '18 at 21:51










  • $begingroup$
    thank u for the hint!!
    $endgroup$
    – BAYMAX
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:19
















$begingroup$
Values in $mathbb R^+$, yes. You should be able to prove it.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Dec 31 '18 at 21:51




$begingroup$
Values in $mathbb R^+$, yes. You should be able to prove it.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Dec 31 '18 at 21:51












$begingroup$
thank u for the hint!!
$endgroup$
– BAYMAX
Dec 31 '18 at 22:19




$begingroup$
thank u for the hint!!
$endgroup$
– BAYMAX
Dec 31 '18 at 22:19










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

With nonnegative summands we have regardless of convergence of the inner sum to a finite value or $infty$,



$$sum_{n=1}^N sum_{k=1}^infty f_{nk} = sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk}$$ and by the MCT



$$sum_{n=1}^infty sum_{k=1}^infty f_{nk} = sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^infty f_{nk}$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    By applying Monotone Convergence Theorem, it involves integrals and limit exchange right? here there are two summations?
    $endgroup$
    – BAYMAX
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:08






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @BAYMAX: There is a very general way by connecting sums to integrals with counting measure but it is not necessary. There is a monotone convergence theorem just for switching limits with sums.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:12






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $sum_{n=1}^Nf_{nk}$ is an increasing sequence with respect to $N$ because each term you add is nonnegative.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:13






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Here is the proof. Notice that $lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk} = lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty S_{Nk} = sum_{k = 1}^infty lim_{N to infty} S_{Nk}$ since the partial sums $S_{Nk}$ are monotone increasing for each $k$.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:24






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The key thing here is the first result -- finite sum of limits equals limit of finite sum -- when everything is nonnegative even if one of the limits is $+infty$.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:26











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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









2












$begingroup$

With nonnegative summands we have regardless of convergence of the inner sum to a finite value or $infty$,



$$sum_{n=1}^N sum_{k=1}^infty f_{nk} = sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk}$$ and by the MCT



$$sum_{n=1}^infty sum_{k=1}^infty f_{nk} = sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^infty f_{nk}$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    By applying Monotone Convergence Theorem, it involves integrals and limit exchange right? here there are two summations?
    $endgroup$
    – BAYMAX
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:08






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @BAYMAX: There is a very general way by connecting sums to integrals with counting measure but it is not necessary. There is a monotone convergence theorem just for switching limits with sums.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:12






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $sum_{n=1}^Nf_{nk}$ is an increasing sequence with respect to $N$ because each term you add is nonnegative.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:13






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Here is the proof. Notice that $lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk} = lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty S_{Nk} = sum_{k = 1}^infty lim_{N to infty} S_{Nk}$ since the partial sums $S_{Nk}$ are monotone increasing for each $k$.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:24






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The key thing here is the first result -- finite sum of limits equals limit of finite sum -- when everything is nonnegative even if one of the limits is $+infty$.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:26
















2












$begingroup$

With nonnegative summands we have regardless of convergence of the inner sum to a finite value or $infty$,



$$sum_{n=1}^N sum_{k=1}^infty f_{nk} = sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk}$$ and by the MCT



$$sum_{n=1}^infty sum_{k=1}^infty f_{nk} = sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^infty f_{nk}$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    By applying Monotone Convergence Theorem, it involves integrals and limit exchange right? here there are two summations?
    $endgroup$
    – BAYMAX
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:08






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @BAYMAX: There is a very general way by connecting sums to integrals with counting measure but it is not necessary. There is a monotone convergence theorem just for switching limits with sums.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:12






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $sum_{n=1}^Nf_{nk}$ is an increasing sequence with respect to $N$ because each term you add is nonnegative.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:13






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Here is the proof. Notice that $lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk} = lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty S_{Nk} = sum_{k = 1}^infty lim_{N to infty} S_{Nk}$ since the partial sums $S_{Nk}$ are monotone increasing for each $k$.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:24






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The key thing here is the first result -- finite sum of limits equals limit of finite sum -- when everything is nonnegative even if one of the limits is $+infty$.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:26














2












2








2





$begingroup$

With nonnegative summands we have regardless of convergence of the inner sum to a finite value or $infty$,



$$sum_{n=1}^N sum_{k=1}^infty f_{nk} = sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk}$$ and by the MCT



$$sum_{n=1}^infty sum_{k=1}^infty f_{nk} = sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^infty f_{nk}$$






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



With nonnegative summands we have regardless of convergence of the inner sum to a finite value or $infty$,



$$sum_{n=1}^N sum_{k=1}^infty f_{nk} = sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk}$$ and by the MCT



$$sum_{n=1}^infty sum_{k=1}^infty f_{nk} = sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^infty f_{nk}$$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 31 '18 at 21:54









RRLRRL

53k42573




53k42573












  • $begingroup$
    By applying Monotone Convergence Theorem, it involves integrals and limit exchange right? here there are two summations?
    $endgroup$
    – BAYMAX
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:08






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @BAYMAX: There is a very general way by connecting sums to integrals with counting measure but it is not necessary. There is a monotone convergence theorem just for switching limits with sums.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:12






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $sum_{n=1}^Nf_{nk}$ is an increasing sequence with respect to $N$ because each term you add is nonnegative.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:13






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Here is the proof. Notice that $lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk} = lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty S_{Nk} = sum_{k = 1}^infty lim_{N to infty} S_{Nk}$ since the partial sums $S_{Nk}$ are monotone increasing for each $k$.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:24






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The key thing here is the first result -- finite sum of limits equals limit of finite sum -- when everything is nonnegative even if one of the limits is $+infty$.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:26


















  • $begingroup$
    By applying Monotone Convergence Theorem, it involves integrals and limit exchange right? here there are two summations?
    $endgroup$
    – BAYMAX
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:08






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @BAYMAX: There is a very general way by connecting sums to integrals with counting measure but it is not necessary. There is a monotone convergence theorem just for switching limits with sums.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:12






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    $sum_{n=1}^Nf_{nk}$ is an increasing sequence with respect to $N$ because each term you add is nonnegative.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:13






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Here is the proof. Notice that $lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk} = lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty S_{Nk} = sum_{k = 1}^infty lim_{N to infty} S_{Nk}$ since the partial sums $S_{Nk}$ are monotone increasing for each $k$.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:24






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The key thing here is the first result -- finite sum of limits equals limit of finite sum -- when everything is nonnegative even if one of the limits is $+infty$.
    $endgroup$
    – RRL
    Dec 31 '18 at 22:26
















$begingroup$
By applying Monotone Convergence Theorem, it involves integrals and limit exchange right? here there are two summations?
$endgroup$
– BAYMAX
Dec 31 '18 at 22:08




$begingroup$
By applying Monotone Convergence Theorem, it involves integrals and limit exchange right? here there are two summations?
$endgroup$
– BAYMAX
Dec 31 '18 at 22:08




1




1




$begingroup$
@BAYMAX: There is a very general way by connecting sums to integrals with counting measure but it is not necessary. There is a monotone convergence theorem just for switching limits with sums.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:12




$begingroup$
@BAYMAX: There is a very general way by connecting sums to integrals with counting measure but it is not necessary. There is a monotone convergence theorem just for switching limits with sums.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:12




1




1




$begingroup$
$sum_{n=1}^Nf_{nk}$ is an increasing sequence with respect to $N$ because each term you add is nonnegative.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:13




$begingroup$
$sum_{n=1}^Nf_{nk}$ is an increasing sequence with respect to $N$ because each term you add is nonnegative.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:13




1




1




$begingroup$
Here is the proof. Notice that $lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk} = lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty S_{Nk} = sum_{k = 1}^infty lim_{N to infty} S_{Nk}$ since the partial sums $S_{Nk}$ are monotone increasing for each $k$.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:24




$begingroup$
Here is the proof. Notice that $lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk} = lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty S_{Nk} = sum_{k = 1}^infty lim_{N to infty} S_{Nk}$ since the partial sums $S_{Nk}$ are monotone increasing for each $k$.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:24




1




1




$begingroup$
The key thing here is the first result -- finite sum of limits equals limit of finite sum -- when everything is nonnegative even if one of the limits is $+infty$.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:26




$begingroup$
The key thing here is the first result -- finite sum of limits equals limit of finite sum -- when everything is nonnegative even if one of the limits is $+infty$.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:26


















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