If $sum_{n=1}^{infty} sum_{k=1}^{infty} f_{n}(k) = infty$ then $sum_{k=1}^{infty} sum_{n=1}^{infty} f_{n}(k)...
$begingroup$
Suppose ${f_{n}}_{n=1}^{infty}$ be functions such that $f_{n} : Bbb{N} rightarrow Bbb{R}^{+}$ for each $n$.
I was trying to prove -
If $sum_{n=1}^{infty} sum_{k=1}^{infty} f_{n}(k) = infty$ then $sum_{k=1}^{infty} sum_{n=1}^{infty} f_{n}(k) = infty$.
I can see that both the double summation series are equal by expanding the double summation.But I am trying to prove it ? any other thoughts?
Hm, as the order of summation are changed, is Uniform convergence likely to play any role here?
calculus functions convergence summation
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose ${f_{n}}_{n=1}^{infty}$ be functions such that $f_{n} : Bbb{N} rightarrow Bbb{R}^{+}$ for each $n$.
I was trying to prove -
If $sum_{n=1}^{infty} sum_{k=1}^{infty} f_{n}(k) = infty$ then $sum_{k=1}^{infty} sum_{n=1}^{infty} f_{n}(k) = infty$.
I can see that both the double summation series are equal by expanding the double summation.But I am trying to prove it ? any other thoughts?
Hm, as the order of summation are changed, is Uniform convergence likely to play any role here?
calculus functions convergence summation
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Values in $mathbb R^+$, yes. You should be able to prove it.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Dec 31 '18 at 21:51
$begingroup$
thank u for the hint!!
$endgroup$
– BAYMAX
Dec 31 '18 at 22:19
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Suppose ${f_{n}}_{n=1}^{infty}$ be functions such that $f_{n} : Bbb{N} rightarrow Bbb{R}^{+}$ for each $n$.
I was trying to prove -
If $sum_{n=1}^{infty} sum_{k=1}^{infty} f_{n}(k) = infty$ then $sum_{k=1}^{infty} sum_{n=1}^{infty} f_{n}(k) = infty$.
I can see that both the double summation series are equal by expanding the double summation.But I am trying to prove it ? any other thoughts?
Hm, as the order of summation are changed, is Uniform convergence likely to play any role here?
calculus functions convergence summation
$endgroup$
Suppose ${f_{n}}_{n=1}^{infty}$ be functions such that $f_{n} : Bbb{N} rightarrow Bbb{R}^{+}$ for each $n$.
I was trying to prove -
If $sum_{n=1}^{infty} sum_{k=1}^{infty} f_{n}(k) = infty$ then $sum_{k=1}^{infty} sum_{n=1}^{infty} f_{n}(k) = infty$.
I can see that both the double summation series are equal by expanding the double summation.But I am trying to prove it ? any other thoughts?
Hm, as the order of summation are changed, is Uniform convergence likely to play any role here?
calculus functions convergence summation
calculus functions convergence summation
asked Dec 31 '18 at 21:37
BAYMAXBAYMAX
2,93021225
2,93021225
$begingroup$
Values in $mathbb R^+$, yes. You should be able to prove it.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Dec 31 '18 at 21:51
$begingroup$
thank u for the hint!!
$endgroup$
– BAYMAX
Dec 31 '18 at 22:19
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Values in $mathbb R^+$, yes. You should be able to prove it.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Dec 31 '18 at 21:51
$begingroup$
thank u for the hint!!
$endgroup$
– BAYMAX
Dec 31 '18 at 22:19
$begingroup$
Values in $mathbb R^+$, yes. You should be able to prove it.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Dec 31 '18 at 21:51
$begingroup$
Values in $mathbb R^+$, yes. You should be able to prove it.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Dec 31 '18 at 21:51
$begingroup$
thank u for the hint!!
$endgroup$
– BAYMAX
Dec 31 '18 at 22:19
$begingroup$
thank u for the hint!!
$endgroup$
– BAYMAX
Dec 31 '18 at 22:19
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
With nonnegative summands we have regardless of convergence of the inner sum to a finite value or $infty$,
$$sum_{n=1}^N sum_{k=1}^infty f_{nk} = sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk}$$ and by the MCT
$$sum_{n=1}^infty sum_{k=1}^infty f_{nk} = sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^infty f_{nk}$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
By applying Monotone Convergence Theorem, it involves integrals and limit exchange right? here there are two summations?
$endgroup$
– BAYMAX
Dec 31 '18 at 22:08
1
$begingroup$
@BAYMAX: There is a very general way by connecting sums to integrals with counting measure but it is not necessary. There is a monotone convergence theorem just for switching limits with sums.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:12
1
$begingroup$
$sum_{n=1}^Nf_{nk}$ is an increasing sequence with respect to $N$ because each term you add is nonnegative.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:13
1
$begingroup$
Here is the proof. Notice that $lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk} = lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty S_{Nk} = sum_{k = 1}^infty lim_{N to infty} S_{Nk}$ since the partial sums $S_{Nk}$ are monotone increasing for each $k$.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:24
1
$begingroup$
The key thing here is the first result -- finite sum of limits equals limit of finite sum -- when everything is nonnegative even if one of the limits is $+infty$.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:26
|
show 5 more comments
Your Answer
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
With nonnegative summands we have regardless of convergence of the inner sum to a finite value or $infty$,
$$sum_{n=1}^N sum_{k=1}^infty f_{nk} = sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk}$$ and by the MCT
$$sum_{n=1}^infty sum_{k=1}^infty f_{nk} = sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^infty f_{nk}$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
By applying Monotone Convergence Theorem, it involves integrals and limit exchange right? here there are two summations?
$endgroup$
– BAYMAX
Dec 31 '18 at 22:08
1
$begingroup$
@BAYMAX: There is a very general way by connecting sums to integrals with counting measure but it is not necessary. There is a monotone convergence theorem just for switching limits with sums.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:12
1
$begingroup$
$sum_{n=1}^Nf_{nk}$ is an increasing sequence with respect to $N$ because each term you add is nonnegative.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:13
1
$begingroup$
Here is the proof. Notice that $lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk} = lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty S_{Nk} = sum_{k = 1}^infty lim_{N to infty} S_{Nk}$ since the partial sums $S_{Nk}$ are monotone increasing for each $k$.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:24
1
$begingroup$
The key thing here is the first result -- finite sum of limits equals limit of finite sum -- when everything is nonnegative even if one of the limits is $+infty$.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:26
|
show 5 more comments
$begingroup$
With nonnegative summands we have regardless of convergence of the inner sum to a finite value or $infty$,
$$sum_{n=1}^N sum_{k=1}^infty f_{nk} = sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk}$$ and by the MCT
$$sum_{n=1}^infty sum_{k=1}^infty f_{nk} = sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^infty f_{nk}$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
By applying Monotone Convergence Theorem, it involves integrals and limit exchange right? here there are two summations?
$endgroup$
– BAYMAX
Dec 31 '18 at 22:08
1
$begingroup$
@BAYMAX: There is a very general way by connecting sums to integrals with counting measure but it is not necessary. There is a monotone convergence theorem just for switching limits with sums.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:12
1
$begingroup$
$sum_{n=1}^Nf_{nk}$ is an increasing sequence with respect to $N$ because each term you add is nonnegative.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:13
1
$begingroup$
Here is the proof. Notice that $lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk} = lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty S_{Nk} = sum_{k = 1}^infty lim_{N to infty} S_{Nk}$ since the partial sums $S_{Nk}$ are monotone increasing for each $k$.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:24
1
$begingroup$
The key thing here is the first result -- finite sum of limits equals limit of finite sum -- when everything is nonnegative even if one of the limits is $+infty$.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:26
|
show 5 more comments
$begingroup$
With nonnegative summands we have regardless of convergence of the inner sum to a finite value or $infty$,
$$sum_{n=1}^N sum_{k=1}^infty f_{nk} = sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk}$$ and by the MCT
$$sum_{n=1}^infty sum_{k=1}^infty f_{nk} = sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^infty f_{nk}$$
$endgroup$
With nonnegative summands we have regardless of convergence of the inner sum to a finite value or $infty$,
$$sum_{n=1}^N sum_{k=1}^infty f_{nk} = sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk}$$ and by the MCT
$$sum_{n=1}^infty sum_{k=1}^infty f_{nk} = sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^infty f_{nk}$$
answered Dec 31 '18 at 21:54
RRLRRL
53k42573
53k42573
$begingroup$
By applying Monotone Convergence Theorem, it involves integrals and limit exchange right? here there are two summations?
$endgroup$
– BAYMAX
Dec 31 '18 at 22:08
1
$begingroup$
@BAYMAX: There is a very general way by connecting sums to integrals with counting measure but it is not necessary. There is a monotone convergence theorem just for switching limits with sums.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:12
1
$begingroup$
$sum_{n=1}^Nf_{nk}$ is an increasing sequence with respect to $N$ because each term you add is nonnegative.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:13
1
$begingroup$
Here is the proof. Notice that $lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk} = lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty S_{Nk} = sum_{k = 1}^infty lim_{N to infty} S_{Nk}$ since the partial sums $S_{Nk}$ are monotone increasing for each $k$.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:24
1
$begingroup$
The key thing here is the first result -- finite sum of limits equals limit of finite sum -- when everything is nonnegative even if one of the limits is $+infty$.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:26
|
show 5 more comments
$begingroup$
By applying Monotone Convergence Theorem, it involves integrals and limit exchange right? here there are two summations?
$endgroup$
– BAYMAX
Dec 31 '18 at 22:08
1
$begingroup$
@BAYMAX: There is a very general way by connecting sums to integrals with counting measure but it is not necessary. There is a monotone convergence theorem just for switching limits with sums.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:12
1
$begingroup$
$sum_{n=1}^Nf_{nk}$ is an increasing sequence with respect to $N$ because each term you add is nonnegative.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:13
1
$begingroup$
Here is the proof. Notice that $lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk} = lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty S_{Nk} = sum_{k = 1}^infty lim_{N to infty} S_{Nk}$ since the partial sums $S_{Nk}$ are monotone increasing for each $k$.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:24
1
$begingroup$
The key thing here is the first result -- finite sum of limits equals limit of finite sum -- when everything is nonnegative even if one of the limits is $+infty$.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:26
$begingroup$
By applying Monotone Convergence Theorem, it involves integrals and limit exchange right? here there are two summations?
$endgroup$
– BAYMAX
Dec 31 '18 at 22:08
$begingroup$
By applying Monotone Convergence Theorem, it involves integrals and limit exchange right? here there are two summations?
$endgroup$
– BAYMAX
Dec 31 '18 at 22:08
1
1
$begingroup$
@BAYMAX: There is a very general way by connecting sums to integrals with counting measure but it is not necessary. There is a monotone convergence theorem just for switching limits with sums.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:12
$begingroup$
@BAYMAX: There is a very general way by connecting sums to integrals with counting measure but it is not necessary. There is a monotone convergence theorem just for switching limits with sums.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:12
1
1
$begingroup$
$sum_{n=1}^Nf_{nk}$ is an increasing sequence with respect to $N$ because each term you add is nonnegative.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:13
$begingroup$
$sum_{n=1}^Nf_{nk}$ is an increasing sequence with respect to $N$ because each term you add is nonnegative.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:13
1
1
$begingroup$
Here is the proof. Notice that $lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk} = lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty S_{Nk} = sum_{k = 1}^infty lim_{N to infty} S_{Nk}$ since the partial sums $S_{Nk}$ are monotone increasing for each $k$.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:24
$begingroup$
Here is the proof. Notice that $lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty sum_{n=1}^N f_{nk} = lim_{N to infty} sum_{k=1}^infty S_{Nk} = sum_{k = 1}^infty lim_{N to infty} S_{Nk}$ since the partial sums $S_{Nk}$ are monotone increasing for each $k$.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:24
1
1
$begingroup$
The key thing here is the first result -- finite sum of limits equals limit of finite sum -- when everything is nonnegative even if one of the limits is $+infty$.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:26
$begingroup$
The key thing here is the first result -- finite sum of limits equals limit of finite sum -- when everything is nonnegative even if one of the limits is $+infty$.
$endgroup$
– RRL
Dec 31 '18 at 22:26
|
show 5 more comments
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$begingroup$
Values in $mathbb R^+$, yes. You should be able to prove it.
$endgroup$
– GEdgar
Dec 31 '18 at 21:51
$begingroup$
thank u for the hint!!
$endgroup$
– BAYMAX
Dec 31 '18 at 22:19