Are equivalent metrics on a Fréchet space strongly equivalent?












2












$begingroup$


Suppose $(p_n)_n$ and $(q_n)$ are two increasing sequences of seminorms on a Fréchet space $X$. Each sequence can be used to define a (complete) metric on $X$. For example,



$$d_p(x,y)=sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{2^n} min(1,p_n(x-y))$$
and
$$d_q(x,y)=sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{2^n} min(1,q_n(x-y))$$



Must these two metrics be strongly equivalent, meaning there exist positive numbers $a$ and $b$ such that
$$a d_p(x,y) leq d_q(x,y) leq b d_p(x,y) ?$$










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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The question that you can ask is whether a continues linear map between Frechet spaces is necesssarily bounded, here the linear map you would consider is the identity map.
    $endgroup$
    – pitariver
    Jan 6 at 7:36
















2












$begingroup$


Suppose $(p_n)_n$ and $(q_n)$ are two increasing sequences of seminorms on a Fréchet space $X$. Each sequence can be used to define a (complete) metric on $X$. For example,



$$d_p(x,y)=sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{2^n} min(1,p_n(x-y))$$
and
$$d_q(x,y)=sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{2^n} min(1,q_n(x-y))$$



Must these two metrics be strongly equivalent, meaning there exist positive numbers $a$ and $b$ such that
$$a d_p(x,y) leq d_q(x,y) leq b d_p(x,y) ?$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The question that you can ask is whether a continues linear map between Frechet spaces is necesssarily bounded, here the linear map you would consider is the identity map.
    $endgroup$
    – pitariver
    Jan 6 at 7:36














2












2








2





$begingroup$


Suppose $(p_n)_n$ and $(q_n)$ are two increasing sequences of seminorms on a Fréchet space $X$. Each sequence can be used to define a (complete) metric on $X$. For example,



$$d_p(x,y)=sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{2^n} min(1,p_n(x-y))$$
and
$$d_q(x,y)=sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{2^n} min(1,q_n(x-y))$$



Must these two metrics be strongly equivalent, meaning there exist positive numbers $a$ and $b$ such that
$$a d_p(x,y) leq d_q(x,y) leq b d_p(x,y) ?$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Suppose $(p_n)_n$ and $(q_n)$ are two increasing sequences of seminorms on a Fréchet space $X$. Each sequence can be used to define a (complete) metric on $X$. For example,



$$d_p(x,y)=sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{2^n} min(1,p_n(x-y))$$
and
$$d_q(x,y)=sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{2^n} min(1,q_n(x-y))$$



Must these two metrics be strongly equivalent, meaning there exist positive numbers $a$ and $b$ such that
$$a d_p(x,y) leq d_q(x,y) leq b d_p(x,y) ?$$







general-topology functional-analysis metric-spaces






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edited Jan 5 at 23:47









Bernard

124k741117




124k741117










asked Jan 5 at 23:34









user122916user122916

431315




431315








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The question that you can ask is whether a continues linear map between Frechet spaces is necesssarily bounded, here the linear map you would consider is the identity map.
    $endgroup$
    – pitariver
    Jan 6 at 7:36














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The question that you can ask is whether a continues linear map between Frechet spaces is necesssarily bounded, here the linear map you would consider is the identity map.
    $endgroup$
    – pitariver
    Jan 6 at 7:36








1




1




$begingroup$
The question that you can ask is whether a continues linear map between Frechet spaces is necesssarily bounded, here the linear map you would consider is the identity map.
$endgroup$
– pitariver
Jan 6 at 7:36




$begingroup$
The question that you can ask is whether a continues linear map between Frechet spaces is necesssarily bounded, here the linear map you would consider is the identity map.
$endgroup$
– pitariver
Jan 6 at 7:36










1 Answer
1






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oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

No. There are infinite-dimensional vector spaces $V$ carrying two non-equivalent norms $p$ and $q$ such that both $(V,p)$ and $(V,q)$ are Banach spaces. See
https://mathoverflow.net/q/184464.



Let $p_n = p, q_n = q$ for all $n$. Then $d_p(x,y) = min(1,p(x - y)), d_q(x,y) = min(1,q(x - y))$. These are not strongly equivalent.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I think the intended question (or the one I infer from the title) is whether two metrics that define Frechet spaces that have the exact same topology (same open sets) are necessarily strongly equivalent? (this is true for normed spaces) Do you have an answer or I should ask it as a separate questions?
    $endgroup$
    – pitariver
    Jan 6 at 18:35










  • $begingroup$
    @pitariver You are right, the title does not agree with the text of the question. So you should ask a new question.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Frost
    Jan 6 at 23:01














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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









0












$begingroup$

No. There are infinite-dimensional vector spaces $V$ carrying two non-equivalent norms $p$ and $q$ such that both $(V,p)$ and $(V,q)$ are Banach spaces. See
https://mathoverflow.net/q/184464.



Let $p_n = p, q_n = q$ for all $n$. Then $d_p(x,y) = min(1,p(x - y)), d_q(x,y) = min(1,q(x - y))$. These are not strongly equivalent.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I think the intended question (or the one I infer from the title) is whether two metrics that define Frechet spaces that have the exact same topology (same open sets) are necessarily strongly equivalent? (this is true for normed spaces) Do you have an answer or I should ask it as a separate questions?
    $endgroup$
    – pitariver
    Jan 6 at 18:35










  • $begingroup$
    @pitariver You are right, the title does not agree with the text of the question. So you should ask a new question.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Frost
    Jan 6 at 23:01


















0












$begingroup$

No. There are infinite-dimensional vector spaces $V$ carrying two non-equivalent norms $p$ and $q$ such that both $(V,p)$ and $(V,q)$ are Banach spaces. See
https://mathoverflow.net/q/184464.



Let $p_n = p, q_n = q$ for all $n$. Then $d_p(x,y) = min(1,p(x - y)), d_q(x,y) = min(1,q(x - y))$. These are not strongly equivalent.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I think the intended question (or the one I infer from the title) is whether two metrics that define Frechet spaces that have the exact same topology (same open sets) are necessarily strongly equivalent? (this is true for normed spaces) Do you have an answer or I should ask it as a separate questions?
    $endgroup$
    – pitariver
    Jan 6 at 18:35










  • $begingroup$
    @pitariver You are right, the title does not agree with the text of the question. So you should ask a new question.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Frost
    Jan 6 at 23:01
















0












0








0





$begingroup$

No. There are infinite-dimensional vector spaces $V$ carrying two non-equivalent norms $p$ and $q$ such that both $(V,p)$ and $(V,q)$ are Banach spaces. See
https://mathoverflow.net/q/184464.



Let $p_n = p, q_n = q$ for all $n$. Then $d_p(x,y) = min(1,p(x - y)), d_q(x,y) = min(1,q(x - y))$. These are not strongly equivalent.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



No. There are infinite-dimensional vector spaces $V$ carrying two non-equivalent norms $p$ and $q$ such that both $(V,p)$ and $(V,q)$ are Banach spaces. See
https://mathoverflow.net/q/184464.



Let $p_n = p, q_n = q$ for all $n$. Then $d_p(x,y) = min(1,p(x - y)), d_q(x,y) = min(1,q(x - y))$. These are not strongly equivalent.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 6 at 9:45









Paul FrostPaul Frost

12.5k31035




12.5k31035












  • $begingroup$
    I think the intended question (or the one I infer from the title) is whether two metrics that define Frechet spaces that have the exact same topology (same open sets) are necessarily strongly equivalent? (this is true for normed spaces) Do you have an answer or I should ask it as a separate questions?
    $endgroup$
    – pitariver
    Jan 6 at 18:35










  • $begingroup$
    @pitariver You are right, the title does not agree with the text of the question. So you should ask a new question.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Frost
    Jan 6 at 23:01




















  • $begingroup$
    I think the intended question (or the one I infer from the title) is whether two metrics that define Frechet spaces that have the exact same topology (same open sets) are necessarily strongly equivalent? (this is true for normed spaces) Do you have an answer or I should ask it as a separate questions?
    $endgroup$
    – pitariver
    Jan 6 at 18:35










  • $begingroup$
    @pitariver You are right, the title does not agree with the text of the question. So you should ask a new question.
    $endgroup$
    – Paul Frost
    Jan 6 at 23:01


















$begingroup$
I think the intended question (or the one I infer from the title) is whether two metrics that define Frechet spaces that have the exact same topology (same open sets) are necessarily strongly equivalent? (this is true for normed spaces) Do you have an answer or I should ask it as a separate questions?
$endgroup$
– pitariver
Jan 6 at 18:35




$begingroup$
I think the intended question (or the one I infer from the title) is whether two metrics that define Frechet spaces that have the exact same topology (same open sets) are necessarily strongly equivalent? (this is true for normed spaces) Do you have an answer or I should ask it as a separate questions?
$endgroup$
– pitariver
Jan 6 at 18:35












$begingroup$
@pitariver You are right, the title does not agree with the text of the question. So you should ask a new question.
$endgroup$
– Paul Frost
Jan 6 at 23:01






$begingroup$
@pitariver You are right, the title does not agree with the text of the question. So you should ask a new question.
$endgroup$
– Paul Frost
Jan 6 at 23:01




















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