Dirac delta distribution and fourier transform












1














Dirac delta distribution is defined as



$f(t_{0})=int_{-infty }^{infty } ! f(t)delta(t-t_{0}) , dt $ where $f(t)$ is smooth function. Then my question is:



:Calculate Fourier transform $hat delta(omega)$ from $delta (t-t_{0})$



Solution:



$$hat delta(omega)=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi} }int_{-infty }^{infty } ! delta (t-t_{0}) e^{-j omega t}, dt $$




$$hat delta(omega)=frac {1}{sqrt{2 pi}}e^{-j omega t_{0}}$$




Can someone explain me how they got this solution and write what are the steps between? On internet I always find some general formulas and I don't know how to use them.










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  • 1




    Just follow the given definition...
    – Ian
    Oct 24 '16 at 21:12
















1














Dirac delta distribution is defined as



$f(t_{0})=int_{-infty }^{infty } ! f(t)delta(t-t_{0}) , dt $ where $f(t)$ is smooth function. Then my question is:



:Calculate Fourier transform $hat delta(omega)$ from $delta (t-t_{0})$



Solution:



$$hat delta(omega)=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi} }int_{-infty }^{infty } ! delta (t-t_{0}) e^{-j omega t}, dt $$




$$hat delta(omega)=frac {1}{sqrt{2 pi}}e^{-j omega t_{0}}$$




Can someone explain me how they got this solution and write what are the steps between? On internet I always find some general formulas and I don't know how to use them.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    Just follow the given definition...
    – Ian
    Oct 24 '16 at 21:12














1












1








1







Dirac delta distribution is defined as



$f(t_{0})=int_{-infty }^{infty } ! f(t)delta(t-t_{0}) , dt $ where $f(t)$ is smooth function. Then my question is:



:Calculate Fourier transform $hat delta(omega)$ from $delta (t-t_{0})$



Solution:



$$hat delta(omega)=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi} }int_{-infty }^{infty } ! delta (t-t_{0}) e^{-j omega t}, dt $$




$$hat delta(omega)=frac {1}{sqrt{2 pi}}e^{-j omega t_{0}}$$




Can someone explain me how they got this solution and write what are the steps between? On internet I always find some general formulas and I don't know how to use them.










share|cite|improve this question















Dirac delta distribution is defined as



$f(t_{0})=int_{-infty }^{infty } ! f(t)delta(t-t_{0}) , dt $ where $f(t)$ is smooth function. Then my question is:



:Calculate Fourier transform $hat delta(omega)$ from $delta (t-t_{0})$



Solution:



$$hat delta(omega)=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi} }int_{-infty }^{infty } ! delta (t-t_{0}) e^{-j omega t}, dt $$




$$hat delta(omega)=frac {1}{sqrt{2 pi}}e^{-j omega t_{0}}$$




Can someone explain me how they got this solution and write what are the steps between? On internet I always find some general formulas and I don't know how to use them.







dirac-delta fourier-transform






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edited Feb 23 '17 at 19:54









Rafael Wagner

1,8052923




1,8052923










asked Oct 24 '16 at 20:39









Ana Matijanovic

662411




662411








  • 1




    Just follow the given definition...
    – Ian
    Oct 24 '16 at 21:12














  • 1




    Just follow the given definition...
    – Ian
    Oct 24 '16 at 21:12








1




1




Just follow the given definition...
– Ian
Oct 24 '16 at 21:12




Just follow the given definition...
– Ian
Oct 24 '16 at 21:12










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

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0














Let $f$ be a smooth integrable function as you commented. Then we can define the Fourier Transform as



$$mathcal{F}[f](y) := frac{1}{sqrt{2pi}}int_{mathbb{R}}f(x)e^{-iyx}mathrm{d}x$$



We can also derive the inverse of Fourier Transform as:



$$mathcal{F}^c[f](y):=frac{1}{sqrt{2pi}}int_{mathbb{R}}f(x)e^{+iyx}mathrm{d}x$$



Now lets see what happen wen we apply both to a function



$$f(y) = mathcal{F}^c[mathcal{F}[f]](y) = frac{1}{2pi}int_mathbb{R}left(int_{mathbb{R}} f(omega)e^{-iomega x}mathrm{d}omega right)e^{+iyx}mathrm{d}x = int_{mathbb{R}}f(omega)left(int_{mathbb{R}}frac{1}{2pi}e^{-i(omega-y)x}mathrm{d}xright)mathrm{d}omega$$



We can see in this last equality that the function in brakets acts as a Dirac Delta. So we can relate this as de Dirac as a notation (because the Dirac Delta just have formal sense in distribution theory)



$$delta(omega-y) = frac{1}{2pi}int_{-infty}^{+infty}e^{-i(omega-y)x}mathrm{d}x$$



This is an intuitive constructive way of seen that the Dirac is related to Fourier Transforms. Now for your question we can use the definition on how an Dirac Delta acts



$hat{delta}(omega) = frac{1}{(2pi)^{1/2}}int delta(t-t_0)e^{-iomega t}mathrm{d}t = frac{1}{(2pi)^{1/2}}e^{-omega t_0}$



Where we just used the above



$$f(y) = int f (omega)delta(omega-y)mathrm{d}omega$$



For $f(t):=e^{-iomega t}/sqrt{2pi}$






share|cite|improve this answer





























    0














    We have begin{align}f(t_{0})=:int_{-infty }^{infty } ! f(t)delta(t-t_{0}) , text{d}t &&(1) \ hat g(omega):=widehat{g(cdot)}(omega):=int_{-infty }^{infty }e^{-j omega t}g(t) text{d}t &&(2) end{align}
    and therefore we get:
    $$widehat{delta(cdot-t_0)}(omega) stackrel{(2)}{=} frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi} }int_{-infty }^{infty } underbrace{e^{-j omega t}}_{=:f(t)} delta (t-t_{0}) text{d}tstackrel{(1)}{=}frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}f(t_0)=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}e^{-j omega t_{0}}$$



    To be precise this is the Fourier transform of $delta(cdot-t_0)$ and not $delta$. For $delta=delta(cdot)$ we'd have to set $t_0=0$ in above formula and we get $hatdelta(omega)=(2pi)^{-1/2}.$






    share|cite|improve this answer





























      0














      You indeed have to start with the definition. The action of the Fourier transform of the distribution $f$ on a test function $phi$ is defined as
      $$(mathcal F[f], phi) = (f, mathcal F[phi]),$$
      which is valid because if $phi$ is a test function of rapid decay, then so is $mathcal F[phi]$, and the functional defined in this way is linear and continuous. From this we obtain
      $$(mathcal F[delta], phi) =
      (delta, mathcal F[phi]) =
      mathcal F[phi](0) =
      frac 1 {sqrt {2 pi}} int_{-infty}^infty phi(t) dt,$$
      which means that $mathcal F[delta]$ is the same functional as $1/sqrt {2 pi}$.



      The transform of $delta(t - t_0)$ can be found either in the same way directly or by applying the translation property, which is valid for singular distributions because a linear transformation is defined so as to be consistent with a linear transformation of a regular distribution.






      share|cite|improve this answer





















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        3 Answers
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        3 Answers
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        0














        Let $f$ be a smooth integrable function as you commented. Then we can define the Fourier Transform as



        $$mathcal{F}[f](y) := frac{1}{sqrt{2pi}}int_{mathbb{R}}f(x)e^{-iyx}mathrm{d}x$$



        We can also derive the inverse of Fourier Transform as:



        $$mathcal{F}^c[f](y):=frac{1}{sqrt{2pi}}int_{mathbb{R}}f(x)e^{+iyx}mathrm{d}x$$



        Now lets see what happen wen we apply both to a function



        $$f(y) = mathcal{F}^c[mathcal{F}[f]](y) = frac{1}{2pi}int_mathbb{R}left(int_{mathbb{R}} f(omega)e^{-iomega x}mathrm{d}omega right)e^{+iyx}mathrm{d}x = int_{mathbb{R}}f(omega)left(int_{mathbb{R}}frac{1}{2pi}e^{-i(omega-y)x}mathrm{d}xright)mathrm{d}omega$$



        We can see in this last equality that the function in brakets acts as a Dirac Delta. So we can relate this as de Dirac as a notation (because the Dirac Delta just have formal sense in distribution theory)



        $$delta(omega-y) = frac{1}{2pi}int_{-infty}^{+infty}e^{-i(omega-y)x}mathrm{d}x$$



        This is an intuitive constructive way of seen that the Dirac is related to Fourier Transforms. Now for your question we can use the definition on how an Dirac Delta acts



        $hat{delta}(omega) = frac{1}{(2pi)^{1/2}}int delta(t-t_0)e^{-iomega t}mathrm{d}t = frac{1}{(2pi)^{1/2}}e^{-omega t_0}$



        Where we just used the above



        $$f(y) = int f (omega)delta(omega-y)mathrm{d}omega$$



        For $f(t):=e^{-iomega t}/sqrt{2pi}$






        share|cite|improve this answer


























          0














          Let $f$ be a smooth integrable function as you commented. Then we can define the Fourier Transform as



          $$mathcal{F}[f](y) := frac{1}{sqrt{2pi}}int_{mathbb{R}}f(x)e^{-iyx}mathrm{d}x$$



          We can also derive the inverse of Fourier Transform as:



          $$mathcal{F}^c[f](y):=frac{1}{sqrt{2pi}}int_{mathbb{R}}f(x)e^{+iyx}mathrm{d}x$$



          Now lets see what happen wen we apply both to a function



          $$f(y) = mathcal{F}^c[mathcal{F}[f]](y) = frac{1}{2pi}int_mathbb{R}left(int_{mathbb{R}} f(omega)e^{-iomega x}mathrm{d}omega right)e^{+iyx}mathrm{d}x = int_{mathbb{R}}f(omega)left(int_{mathbb{R}}frac{1}{2pi}e^{-i(omega-y)x}mathrm{d}xright)mathrm{d}omega$$



          We can see in this last equality that the function in brakets acts as a Dirac Delta. So we can relate this as de Dirac as a notation (because the Dirac Delta just have formal sense in distribution theory)



          $$delta(omega-y) = frac{1}{2pi}int_{-infty}^{+infty}e^{-i(omega-y)x}mathrm{d}x$$



          This is an intuitive constructive way of seen that the Dirac is related to Fourier Transforms. Now for your question we can use the definition on how an Dirac Delta acts



          $hat{delta}(omega) = frac{1}{(2pi)^{1/2}}int delta(t-t_0)e^{-iomega t}mathrm{d}t = frac{1}{(2pi)^{1/2}}e^{-omega t_0}$



          Where we just used the above



          $$f(y) = int f (omega)delta(omega-y)mathrm{d}omega$$



          For $f(t):=e^{-iomega t}/sqrt{2pi}$






          share|cite|improve this answer
























            0












            0








            0






            Let $f$ be a smooth integrable function as you commented. Then we can define the Fourier Transform as



            $$mathcal{F}[f](y) := frac{1}{sqrt{2pi}}int_{mathbb{R}}f(x)e^{-iyx}mathrm{d}x$$



            We can also derive the inverse of Fourier Transform as:



            $$mathcal{F}^c[f](y):=frac{1}{sqrt{2pi}}int_{mathbb{R}}f(x)e^{+iyx}mathrm{d}x$$



            Now lets see what happen wen we apply both to a function



            $$f(y) = mathcal{F}^c[mathcal{F}[f]](y) = frac{1}{2pi}int_mathbb{R}left(int_{mathbb{R}} f(omega)e^{-iomega x}mathrm{d}omega right)e^{+iyx}mathrm{d}x = int_{mathbb{R}}f(omega)left(int_{mathbb{R}}frac{1}{2pi}e^{-i(omega-y)x}mathrm{d}xright)mathrm{d}omega$$



            We can see in this last equality that the function in brakets acts as a Dirac Delta. So we can relate this as de Dirac as a notation (because the Dirac Delta just have formal sense in distribution theory)



            $$delta(omega-y) = frac{1}{2pi}int_{-infty}^{+infty}e^{-i(omega-y)x}mathrm{d}x$$



            This is an intuitive constructive way of seen that the Dirac is related to Fourier Transforms. Now for your question we can use the definition on how an Dirac Delta acts



            $hat{delta}(omega) = frac{1}{(2pi)^{1/2}}int delta(t-t_0)e^{-iomega t}mathrm{d}t = frac{1}{(2pi)^{1/2}}e^{-omega t_0}$



            Where we just used the above



            $$f(y) = int f (omega)delta(omega-y)mathrm{d}omega$$



            For $f(t):=e^{-iomega t}/sqrt{2pi}$






            share|cite|improve this answer












            Let $f$ be a smooth integrable function as you commented. Then we can define the Fourier Transform as



            $$mathcal{F}[f](y) := frac{1}{sqrt{2pi}}int_{mathbb{R}}f(x)e^{-iyx}mathrm{d}x$$



            We can also derive the inverse of Fourier Transform as:



            $$mathcal{F}^c[f](y):=frac{1}{sqrt{2pi}}int_{mathbb{R}}f(x)e^{+iyx}mathrm{d}x$$



            Now lets see what happen wen we apply both to a function



            $$f(y) = mathcal{F}^c[mathcal{F}[f]](y) = frac{1}{2pi}int_mathbb{R}left(int_{mathbb{R}} f(omega)e^{-iomega x}mathrm{d}omega right)e^{+iyx}mathrm{d}x = int_{mathbb{R}}f(omega)left(int_{mathbb{R}}frac{1}{2pi}e^{-i(omega-y)x}mathrm{d}xright)mathrm{d}omega$$



            We can see in this last equality that the function in brakets acts as a Dirac Delta. So we can relate this as de Dirac as a notation (because the Dirac Delta just have formal sense in distribution theory)



            $$delta(omega-y) = frac{1}{2pi}int_{-infty}^{+infty}e^{-i(omega-y)x}mathrm{d}x$$



            This is an intuitive constructive way of seen that the Dirac is related to Fourier Transforms. Now for your question we can use the definition on how an Dirac Delta acts



            $hat{delta}(omega) = frac{1}{(2pi)^{1/2}}int delta(t-t_0)e^{-iomega t}mathrm{d}t = frac{1}{(2pi)^{1/2}}e^{-omega t_0}$



            Where we just used the above



            $$f(y) = int f (omega)delta(omega-y)mathrm{d}omega$$



            For $f(t):=e^{-iomega t}/sqrt{2pi}$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Feb 23 '17 at 19:43









            Rafael Wagner

            1,8052923




            1,8052923























                0














                We have begin{align}f(t_{0})=:int_{-infty }^{infty } ! f(t)delta(t-t_{0}) , text{d}t &&(1) \ hat g(omega):=widehat{g(cdot)}(omega):=int_{-infty }^{infty }e^{-j omega t}g(t) text{d}t &&(2) end{align}
                and therefore we get:
                $$widehat{delta(cdot-t_0)}(omega) stackrel{(2)}{=} frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi} }int_{-infty }^{infty } underbrace{e^{-j omega t}}_{=:f(t)} delta (t-t_{0}) text{d}tstackrel{(1)}{=}frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}f(t_0)=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}e^{-j omega t_{0}}$$



                To be precise this is the Fourier transform of $delta(cdot-t_0)$ and not $delta$. For $delta=delta(cdot)$ we'd have to set $t_0=0$ in above formula and we get $hatdelta(omega)=(2pi)^{-1/2}.$






                share|cite|improve this answer


























                  0














                  We have begin{align}f(t_{0})=:int_{-infty }^{infty } ! f(t)delta(t-t_{0}) , text{d}t &&(1) \ hat g(omega):=widehat{g(cdot)}(omega):=int_{-infty }^{infty }e^{-j omega t}g(t) text{d}t &&(2) end{align}
                  and therefore we get:
                  $$widehat{delta(cdot-t_0)}(omega) stackrel{(2)}{=} frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi} }int_{-infty }^{infty } underbrace{e^{-j omega t}}_{=:f(t)} delta (t-t_{0}) text{d}tstackrel{(1)}{=}frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}f(t_0)=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}e^{-j omega t_{0}}$$



                  To be precise this is the Fourier transform of $delta(cdot-t_0)$ and not $delta$. For $delta=delta(cdot)$ we'd have to set $t_0=0$ in above formula and we get $hatdelta(omega)=(2pi)^{-1/2}.$






                  share|cite|improve this answer
























                    0












                    0








                    0






                    We have begin{align}f(t_{0})=:int_{-infty }^{infty } ! f(t)delta(t-t_{0}) , text{d}t &&(1) \ hat g(omega):=widehat{g(cdot)}(omega):=int_{-infty }^{infty }e^{-j omega t}g(t) text{d}t &&(2) end{align}
                    and therefore we get:
                    $$widehat{delta(cdot-t_0)}(omega) stackrel{(2)}{=} frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi} }int_{-infty }^{infty } underbrace{e^{-j omega t}}_{=:f(t)} delta (t-t_{0}) text{d}tstackrel{(1)}{=}frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}f(t_0)=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}e^{-j omega t_{0}}$$



                    To be precise this is the Fourier transform of $delta(cdot-t_0)$ and not $delta$. For $delta=delta(cdot)$ we'd have to set $t_0=0$ in above formula and we get $hatdelta(omega)=(2pi)^{-1/2}.$






                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    We have begin{align}f(t_{0})=:int_{-infty }^{infty } ! f(t)delta(t-t_{0}) , text{d}t &&(1) \ hat g(omega):=widehat{g(cdot)}(omega):=int_{-infty }^{infty }e^{-j omega t}g(t) text{d}t &&(2) end{align}
                    and therefore we get:
                    $$widehat{delta(cdot-t_0)}(omega) stackrel{(2)}{=} frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi} }int_{-infty }^{infty } underbrace{e^{-j omega t}}_{=:f(t)} delta (t-t_{0}) text{d}tstackrel{(1)}{=}frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}f(t_0)=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}e^{-j omega t_{0}}$$



                    To be precise this is the Fourier transform of $delta(cdot-t_0)$ and not $delta$. For $delta=delta(cdot)$ we'd have to set $t_0=0$ in above formula and we get $hatdelta(omega)=(2pi)^{-1/2}.$







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Feb 23 '17 at 20:19









                    Marvin

                    2,5013920




                    2,5013920























                        0














                        You indeed have to start with the definition. The action of the Fourier transform of the distribution $f$ on a test function $phi$ is defined as
                        $$(mathcal F[f], phi) = (f, mathcal F[phi]),$$
                        which is valid because if $phi$ is a test function of rapid decay, then so is $mathcal F[phi]$, and the functional defined in this way is linear and continuous. From this we obtain
                        $$(mathcal F[delta], phi) =
                        (delta, mathcal F[phi]) =
                        mathcal F[phi](0) =
                        frac 1 {sqrt {2 pi}} int_{-infty}^infty phi(t) dt,$$
                        which means that $mathcal F[delta]$ is the same functional as $1/sqrt {2 pi}$.



                        The transform of $delta(t - t_0)$ can be found either in the same way directly or by applying the translation property, which is valid for singular distributions because a linear transformation is defined so as to be consistent with a linear transformation of a regular distribution.






                        share|cite|improve this answer


























                          0














                          You indeed have to start with the definition. The action of the Fourier transform of the distribution $f$ on a test function $phi$ is defined as
                          $$(mathcal F[f], phi) = (f, mathcal F[phi]),$$
                          which is valid because if $phi$ is a test function of rapid decay, then so is $mathcal F[phi]$, and the functional defined in this way is linear and continuous. From this we obtain
                          $$(mathcal F[delta], phi) =
                          (delta, mathcal F[phi]) =
                          mathcal F[phi](0) =
                          frac 1 {sqrt {2 pi}} int_{-infty}^infty phi(t) dt,$$
                          which means that $mathcal F[delta]$ is the same functional as $1/sqrt {2 pi}$.



                          The transform of $delta(t - t_0)$ can be found either in the same way directly or by applying the translation property, which is valid for singular distributions because a linear transformation is defined so as to be consistent with a linear transformation of a regular distribution.






                          share|cite|improve this answer
























                            0












                            0








                            0






                            You indeed have to start with the definition. The action of the Fourier transform of the distribution $f$ on a test function $phi$ is defined as
                            $$(mathcal F[f], phi) = (f, mathcal F[phi]),$$
                            which is valid because if $phi$ is a test function of rapid decay, then so is $mathcal F[phi]$, and the functional defined in this way is linear and continuous. From this we obtain
                            $$(mathcal F[delta], phi) =
                            (delta, mathcal F[phi]) =
                            mathcal F[phi](0) =
                            frac 1 {sqrt {2 pi}} int_{-infty}^infty phi(t) dt,$$
                            which means that $mathcal F[delta]$ is the same functional as $1/sqrt {2 pi}$.



                            The transform of $delta(t - t_0)$ can be found either in the same way directly or by applying the translation property, which is valid for singular distributions because a linear transformation is defined so as to be consistent with a linear transformation of a regular distribution.






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            You indeed have to start with the definition. The action of the Fourier transform of the distribution $f$ on a test function $phi$ is defined as
                            $$(mathcal F[f], phi) = (f, mathcal F[phi]),$$
                            which is valid because if $phi$ is a test function of rapid decay, then so is $mathcal F[phi]$, and the functional defined in this way is linear and continuous. From this we obtain
                            $$(mathcal F[delta], phi) =
                            (delta, mathcal F[phi]) =
                            mathcal F[phi](0) =
                            frac 1 {sqrt {2 pi}} int_{-infty}^infty phi(t) dt,$$
                            which means that $mathcal F[delta]$ is the same functional as $1/sqrt {2 pi}$.



                            The transform of $delta(t - t_0)$ can be found either in the same way directly or by applying the translation property, which is valid for singular distributions because a linear transformation is defined so as to be consistent with a linear transformation of a regular distribution.







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Aug 1 at 3:53









                            Maxim

                            4,433219




                            4,433219






























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