Prove $exists xi, eta in (0,1)$, such that $f(xi)+f'(eta)=xi+eta$.












3















Suppose $f(x)$ is continuous in $[0,1]$, derivable in $(0,1)$, $f(0)=0, f(1)=frac 12$, prove
$exists xi, eta in (0,1)$, such that
$$
f(xi)+f'(eta)=xi+eta.
$$




I have tried Cauchy mean value theorem:



let $F(x)=int_0^x f(t)-t ,dt, G(x)=frac{1}{2}x^2-f(x)$, then $exists xi in (0,1), eta in (0,1)$, such that



$$
frac{F(1)-F(0)}{1-0} = F'(xi)
Leftrightarrow f(xi)-xi = int_0^1 f(t) ,dt - frac 12.
$$

$$
frac{G(1)-G(0)}{1-0} = G'(eta)
Leftrightarrow eta-f'(eta) = frac 12 - f(1) = 0.
$$



but failed.



Any hints are appreciated, thanks for your help.





The conditions of this question are wrong, but if i rectify them, the question will contradict the anwser of Mr. Robert Z to some extent, so please be sure to see the anwser after skimming this question. I am sorry for the inconvenience.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    It feels like a place where we want to use Rolle's somehow...
    – Mason
    Nov 29 at 6:23










  • @gcfsjfcus Do you mind to write something about the origin of this problem? I am curious about it!
    – Robert Z
    Nov 29 at 12:51










  • @RobertZ This is a postgraduate examination question of the Chinese Academy of Sciences.
    – gcfsjfcus
    Nov 30 at 4:05












  • @RobertZ May be recalled by candidates.
    – gcfsjfcus
    Nov 30 at 4:14










  • @gcfsjfcus Thanks!
    – Robert Z
    Nov 30 at 5:12
















3















Suppose $f(x)$ is continuous in $[0,1]$, derivable in $(0,1)$, $f(0)=0, f(1)=frac 12$, prove
$exists xi, eta in (0,1)$, such that
$$
f(xi)+f'(eta)=xi+eta.
$$




I have tried Cauchy mean value theorem:



let $F(x)=int_0^x f(t)-t ,dt, G(x)=frac{1}{2}x^2-f(x)$, then $exists xi in (0,1), eta in (0,1)$, such that



$$
frac{F(1)-F(0)}{1-0} = F'(xi)
Leftrightarrow f(xi)-xi = int_0^1 f(t) ,dt - frac 12.
$$

$$
frac{G(1)-G(0)}{1-0} = G'(eta)
Leftrightarrow eta-f'(eta) = frac 12 - f(1) = 0.
$$



but failed.



Any hints are appreciated, thanks for your help.





The conditions of this question are wrong, but if i rectify them, the question will contradict the anwser of Mr. Robert Z to some extent, so please be sure to see the anwser after skimming this question. I am sorry for the inconvenience.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    It feels like a place where we want to use Rolle's somehow...
    – Mason
    Nov 29 at 6:23










  • @gcfsjfcus Do you mind to write something about the origin of this problem? I am curious about it!
    – Robert Z
    Nov 29 at 12:51










  • @RobertZ This is a postgraduate examination question of the Chinese Academy of Sciences.
    – gcfsjfcus
    Nov 30 at 4:05












  • @RobertZ May be recalled by candidates.
    – gcfsjfcus
    Nov 30 at 4:14










  • @gcfsjfcus Thanks!
    – Robert Z
    Nov 30 at 5:12














3












3








3


2






Suppose $f(x)$ is continuous in $[0,1]$, derivable in $(0,1)$, $f(0)=0, f(1)=frac 12$, prove
$exists xi, eta in (0,1)$, such that
$$
f(xi)+f'(eta)=xi+eta.
$$




I have tried Cauchy mean value theorem:



let $F(x)=int_0^x f(t)-t ,dt, G(x)=frac{1}{2}x^2-f(x)$, then $exists xi in (0,1), eta in (0,1)$, such that



$$
frac{F(1)-F(0)}{1-0} = F'(xi)
Leftrightarrow f(xi)-xi = int_0^1 f(t) ,dt - frac 12.
$$

$$
frac{G(1)-G(0)}{1-0} = G'(eta)
Leftrightarrow eta-f'(eta) = frac 12 - f(1) = 0.
$$



but failed.



Any hints are appreciated, thanks for your help.





The conditions of this question are wrong, but if i rectify them, the question will contradict the anwser of Mr. Robert Z to some extent, so please be sure to see the anwser after skimming this question. I am sorry for the inconvenience.










share|cite|improve this question
















Suppose $f(x)$ is continuous in $[0,1]$, derivable in $(0,1)$, $f(0)=0, f(1)=frac 12$, prove
$exists xi, eta in (0,1)$, such that
$$
f(xi)+f'(eta)=xi+eta.
$$




I have tried Cauchy mean value theorem:



let $F(x)=int_0^x f(t)-t ,dt, G(x)=frac{1}{2}x^2-f(x)$, then $exists xi in (0,1), eta in (0,1)$, such that



$$
frac{F(1)-F(0)}{1-0} = F'(xi)
Leftrightarrow f(xi)-xi = int_0^1 f(t) ,dt - frac 12.
$$

$$
frac{G(1)-G(0)}{1-0} = G'(eta)
Leftrightarrow eta-f'(eta) = frac 12 - f(1) = 0.
$$



but failed.



Any hints are appreciated, thanks for your help.





The conditions of this question are wrong, but if i rectify them, the question will contradict the anwser of Mr. Robert Z to some extent, so please be sure to see the anwser after skimming this question. I am sorry for the inconvenience.







calculus real-analysis






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 30 at 23:03

























asked Nov 29 at 6:05









gcfsjfcus

596




596








  • 1




    It feels like a place where we want to use Rolle's somehow...
    – Mason
    Nov 29 at 6:23










  • @gcfsjfcus Do you mind to write something about the origin of this problem? I am curious about it!
    – Robert Z
    Nov 29 at 12:51










  • @RobertZ This is a postgraduate examination question of the Chinese Academy of Sciences.
    – gcfsjfcus
    Nov 30 at 4:05












  • @RobertZ May be recalled by candidates.
    – gcfsjfcus
    Nov 30 at 4:14










  • @gcfsjfcus Thanks!
    – Robert Z
    Nov 30 at 5:12














  • 1




    It feels like a place where we want to use Rolle's somehow...
    – Mason
    Nov 29 at 6:23










  • @gcfsjfcus Do you mind to write something about the origin of this problem? I am curious about it!
    – Robert Z
    Nov 29 at 12:51










  • @RobertZ This is a postgraduate examination question of the Chinese Academy of Sciences.
    – gcfsjfcus
    Nov 30 at 4:05












  • @RobertZ May be recalled by candidates.
    – gcfsjfcus
    Nov 30 at 4:14










  • @gcfsjfcus Thanks!
    – Robert Z
    Nov 30 at 5:12








1




1




It feels like a place where we want to use Rolle's somehow...
– Mason
Nov 29 at 6:23




It feels like a place where we want to use Rolle's somehow...
– Mason
Nov 29 at 6:23












@gcfsjfcus Do you mind to write something about the origin of this problem? I am curious about it!
– Robert Z
Nov 29 at 12:51




@gcfsjfcus Do you mind to write something about the origin of this problem? I am curious about it!
– Robert Z
Nov 29 at 12:51












@RobertZ This is a postgraduate examination question of the Chinese Academy of Sciences.
– gcfsjfcus
Nov 30 at 4:05






@RobertZ This is a postgraduate examination question of the Chinese Academy of Sciences.
– gcfsjfcus
Nov 30 at 4:05














@RobertZ May be recalled by candidates.
– gcfsjfcus
Nov 30 at 4:14




@RobertZ May be recalled by candidates.
– gcfsjfcus
Nov 30 at 4:14












@gcfsjfcus Thanks!
– Robert Z
Nov 30 at 5:12




@gcfsjfcus Thanks!
– Robert Z
Nov 30 at 5:12










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















11














The statement is false, I have a counterexample: if $f(x)=x^2/2$ then $f(0)=0$, $f(1)=frac 12$, and
$$f(xi)+f'(eta)=frac{xi^2}{2}+eta<xi+eta$$
for any $xi,etain(0,1)$.



Note that the proposition holds with $xiin [0,1)$ and $etain(0,1)$. In fact, let $F(x)=f(x)-x^2/2$ then $F(0)=F(1)=0$ and therefore, by Rolle's theorem, there is $etain(0,1)$ such that $F'(eta)=f'(eta)-eta=0$. Then by letting $xi=0$ we get
$$f(xi)+f'(eta)=xi+eta.$$






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Nice. Is it true that there is always $eta, xi in [0,1]$ that does the job?
    – Mason
    Nov 29 at 6:48






  • 2




    @Mason Yes, see my edit.
    – Robert Z
    Nov 29 at 6:48












  • @RobertZ many thanks!
    – gcfsjfcus
    Nov 29 at 6:52











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1






active

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active

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active

oldest

votes









11














The statement is false, I have a counterexample: if $f(x)=x^2/2$ then $f(0)=0$, $f(1)=frac 12$, and
$$f(xi)+f'(eta)=frac{xi^2}{2}+eta<xi+eta$$
for any $xi,etain(0,1)$.



Note that the proposition holds with $xiin [0,1)$ and $etain(0,1)$. In fact, let $F(x)=f(x)-x^2/2$ then $F(0)=F(1)=0$ and therefore, by Rolle's theorem, there is $etain(0,1)$ such that $F'(eta)=f'(eta)-eta=0$. Then by letting $xi=0$ we get
$$f(xi)+f'(eta)=xi+eta.$$






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Nice. Is it true that there is always $eta, xi in [0,1]$ that does the job?
    – Mason
    Nov 29 at 6:48






  • 2




    @Mason Yes, see my edit.
    – Robert Z
    Nov 29 at 6:48












  • @RobertZ many thanks!
    – gcfsjfcus
    Nov 29 at 6:52
















11














The statement is false, I have a counterexample: if $f(x)=x^2/2$ then $f(0)=0$, $f(1)=frac 12$, and
$$f(xi)+f'(eta)=frac{xi^2}{2}+eta<xi+eta$$
for any $xi,etain(0,1)$.



Note that the proposition holds with $xiin [0,1)$ and $etain(0,1)$. In fact, let $F(x)=f(x)-x^2/2$ then $F(0)=F(1)=0$ and therefore, by Rolle's theorem, there is $etain(0,1)$ such that $F'(eta)=f'(eta)-eta=0$. Then by letting $xi=0$ we get
$$f(xi)+f'(eta)=xi+eta.$$






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Nice. Is it true that there is always $eta, xi in [0,1]$ that does the job?
    – Mason
    Nov 29 at 6:48






  • 2




    @Mason Yes, see my edit.
    – Robert Z
    Nov 29 at 6:48












  • @RobertZ many thanks!
    – gcfsjfcus
    Nov 29 at 6:52














11












11








11






The statement is false, I have a counterexample: if $f(x)=x^2/2$ then $f(0)=0$, $f(1)=frac 12$, and
$$f(xi)+f'(eta)=frac{xi^2}{2}+eta<xi+eta$$
for any $xi,etain(0,1)$.



Note that the proposition holds with $xiin [0,1)$ and $etain(0,1)$. In fact, let $F(x)=f(x)-x^2/2$ then $F(0)=F(1)=0$ and therefore, by Rolle's theorem, there is $etain(0,1)$ such that $F'(eta)=f'(eta)-eta=0$. Then by letting $xi=0$ we get
$$f(xi)+f'(eta)=xi+eta.$$






share|cite|improve this answer














The statement is false, I have a counterexample: if $f(x)=x^2/2$ then $f(0)=0$, $f(1)=frac 12$, and
$$f(xi)+f'(eta)=frac{xi^2}{2}+eta<xi+eta$$
for any $xi,etain(0,1)$.



Note that the proposition holds with $xiin [0,1)$ and $etain(0,1)$. In fact, let $F(x)=f(x)-x^2/2$ then $F(0)=F(1)=0$ and therefore, by Rolle's theorem, there is $etain(0,1)$ such that $F'(eta)=f'(eta)-eta=0$. Then by letting $xi=0$ we get
$$f(xi)+f'(eta)=xi+eta.$$







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Nov 29 at 12:48

























answered Nov 29 at 6:44









Robert Z

93.1k1060131




93.1k1060131












  • Nice. Is it true that there is always $eta, xi in [0,1]$ that does the job?
    – Mason
    Nov 29 at 6:48






  • 2




    @Mason Yes, see my edit.
    – Robert Z
    Nov 29 at 6:48












  • @RobertZ many thanks!
    – gcfsjfcus
    Nov 29 at 6:52


















  • Nice. Is it true that there is always $eta, xi in [0,1]$ that does the job?
    – Mason
    Nov 29 at 6:48






  • 2




    @Mason Yes, see my edit.
    – Robert Z
    Nov 29 at 6:48












  • @RobertZ many thanks!
    – gcfsjfcus
    Nov 29 at 6:52
















Nice. Is it true that there is always $eta, xi in [0,1]$ that does the job?
– Mason
Nov 29 at 6:48




Nice. Is it true that there is always $eta, xi in [0,1]$ that does the job?
– Mason
Nov 29 at 6:48




2




2




@Mason Yes, see my edit.
– Robert Z
Nov 29 at 6:48






@Mason Yes, see my edit.
– Robert Z
Nov 29 at 6:48














@RobertZ many thanks!
– gcfsjfcus
Nov 29 at 6:52




@RobertZ many thanks!
– gcfsjfcus
Nov 29 at 6:52


















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