Given commutative rings $A, B$ and epimorphism $phi : A to B$, for $f in B$, does there exist prime ideals of...












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Let's say I have two commutative rings $A, B$ and a ring epimorphism $phi : A to B$. this induces a continuous map $phi^* : operatorname{Spec}(B) to operatorname{Spec}(A)$. Let $f in B$ and choose $x in phi^{-1}(f)$, is it true that for any $mathfrak{q} in overline{V({x})}$ there exists a $mathfrak{p} in overline{V({f})}$ such that $mathfrak{q} = phi^{-1}(mathfrak{p})$? Note that $overline{V({x})}$ and $overline{V({f})}$ denote the complements of $V({x})$ and $V({f})$ respectively.



If this statement is true, then how can I prove this? I don't immediately see any way to prove this since the only things we know about $mathfrak{q}$ is that it is a prime ideal of $A$ that doesn't contain $x$, so I don't see any way I could tell what $mathfrak{p}$ would even be given so little information.










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    $begingroup$


    Let's say I have two commutative rings $A, B$ and a ring epimorphism $phi : A to B$. this induces a continuous map $phi^* : operatorname{Spec}(B) to operatorname{Spec}(A)$. Let $f in B$ and choose $x in phi^{-1}(f)$, is it true that for any $mathfrak{q} in overline{V({x})}$ there exists a $mathfrak{p} in overline{V({f})}$ such that $mathfrak{q} = phi^{-1}(mathfrak{p})$? Note that $overline{V({x})}$ and $overline{V({f})}$ denote the complements of $V({x})$ and $V({f})$ respectively.



    If this statement is true, then how can I prove this? I don't immediately see any way to prove this since the only things we know about $mathfrak{q}$ is that it is a prime ideal of $A$ that doesn't contain $x$, so I don't see any way I could tell what $mathfrak{p}$ would even be given so little information.










    share|cite|improve this question











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      0





      $begingroup$


      Let's say I have two commutative rings $A, B$ and a ring epimorphism $phi : A to B$. this induces a continuous map $phi^* : operatorname{Spec}(B) to operatorname{Spec}(A)$. Let $f in B$ and choose $x in phi^{-1}(f)$, is it true that for any $mathfrak{q} in overline{V({x})}$ there exists a $mathfrak{p} in overline{V({f})}$ such that $mathfrak{q} = phi^{-1}(mathfrak{p})$? Note that $overline{V({x})}$ and $overline{V({f})}$ denote the complements of $V({x})$ and $V({f})$ respectively.



      If this statement is true, then how can I prove this? I don't immediately see any way to prove this since the only things we know about $mathfrak{q}$ is that it is a prime ideal of $A$ that doesn't contain $x$, so I don't see any way I could tell what $mathfrak{p}$ would even be given so little information.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let's say I have two commutative rings $A, B$ and a ring epimorphism $phi : A to B$. this induces a continuous map $phi^* : operatorname{Spec}(B) to operatorname{Spec}(A)$. Let $f in B$ and choose $x in phi^{-1}(f)$, is it true that for any $mathfrak{q} in overline{V({x})}$ there exists a $mathfrak{p} in overline{V({f})}$ such that $mathfrak{q} = phi^{-1}(mathfrak{p})$? Note that $overline{V({x})}$ and $overline{V({f})}$ denote the complements of $V({x})$ and $V({f})$ respectively.



      If this statement is true, then how can I prove this? I don't immediately see any way to prove this since the only things we know about $mathfrak{q}$ is that it is a prime ideal of $A$ that doesn't contain $x$, so I don't see any way I could tell what $mathfrak{p}$ would even be given so little information.







      abstract-algebra ring-theory commutative-algebra






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      edited Dec 13 '18 at 0:44







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      asked Dec 13 '18 at 0:17









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          This is not true, the morphism $phi^*$ is injective, but not necessarily surjective. Take $f=0$ and $x=0$, $V(0)=Spec(A)$. Then if $phi^*$ is not surjective take any $q$ which is not in its image.



          Example $phi:mathbb{Z}rightarrowmathbb{Z}/p$ where $p$ is a prime.






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            $begingroup$

            This is not true, the morphism $phi^*$ is injective, but not necessarily surjective. Take $f=0$ and $x=0$, $V(0)=Spec(A)$. Then if $phi^*$ is not surjective take any $q$ which is not in its image.



            Example $phi:mathbb{Z}rightarrowmathbb{Z}/p$ where $p$ is a prime.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              1












              $begingroup$

              This is not true, the morphism $phi^*$ is injective, but not necessarily surjective. Take $f=0$ and $x=0$, $V(0)=Spec(A)$. Then if $phi^*$ is not surjective take any $q$ which is not in its image.



              Example $phi:mathbb{Z}rightarrowmathbb{Z}/p$ where $p$ is a prime.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















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                1





                $begingroup$

                This is not true, the morphism $phi^*$ is injective, but not necessarily surjective. Take $f=0$ and $x=0$, $V(0)=Spec(A)$. Then if $phi^*$ is not surjective take any $q$ which is not in its image.



                Example $phi:mathbb{Z}rightarrowmathbb{Z}/p$ where $p$ is a prime.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                This is not true, the morphism $phi^*$ is injective, but not necessarily surjective. Take $f=0$ and $x=0$, $V(0)=Spec(A)$. Then if $phi^*$ is not surjective take any $q$ which is not in its image.



                Example $phi:mathbb{Z}rightarrowmathbb{Z}/p$ where $p$ is a prime.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 13 '18 at 0:44









                Tsemo AristideTsemo Aristide

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                57.9k11445






























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