If two random variables are independent, why isn't their min and max?












1












$begingroup$


Suppose $X_1, X_2$ are independent $U(0, 1)$ random variables, and



$$Y = min(X_1, X_2) $$
$$Z = max(X_1, X_2) $$



By this question, they $Y$ and $Z$ should be independent:



Are functions of independent variables also independent?



But by this answer the covariance is not zero:



What is cov(X,Y), where X=min(U,V) and Y=max(U,V) for independent uniform(0,1) variables U and V?



How do I reconcile these two things? The $min$ and $max$ are a function of independent random variables, yet they have covariance.










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  • 7




    $begingroup$
    The min and the max cannot be independent. If you know one, you know something about the other.
    $endgroup$
    – Hans Engler
    Dec 17 '18 at 20:05






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    It is true that functions of independent RV's are again independent. But you are looking at two functions of the same RV, $(X_1,X_2)$, which is of course not independent of itself.
    $endgroup$
    – Tki Deneb
    Dec 17 '18 at 20:10








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In your first link when they talk about functions of independent variables, they mean a function of only one variable i.e $f(X_1)$, not a function of two variable like $f(X_1,X_2)$
    $endgroup$
    – Sauhard Sharma
    Dec 17 '18 at 20:36


















1












$begingroup$


Suppose $X_1, X_2$ are independent $U(0, 1)$ random variables, and



$$Y = min(X_1, X_2) $$
$$Z = max(X_1, X_2) $$



By this question, they $Y$ and $Z$ should be independent:



Are functions of independent variables also independent?



But by this answer the covariance is not zero:



What is cov(X,Y), where X=min(U,V) and Y=max(U,V) for independent uniform(0,1) variables U and V?



How do I reconcile these two things? The $min$ and $max$ are a function of independent random variables, yet they have covariance.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 7




    $begingroup$
    The min and the max cannot be independent. If you know one, you know something about the other.
    $endgroup$
    – Hans Engler
    Dec 17 '18 at 20:05






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    It is true that functions of independent RV's are again independent. But you are looking at two functions of the same RV, $(X_1,X_2)$, which is of course not independent of itself.
    $endgroup$
    – Tki Deneb
    Dec 17 '18 at 20:10








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In your first link when they talk about functions of independent variables, they mean a function of only one variable i.e $f(X_1)$, not a function of two variable like $f(X_1,X_2)$
    $endgroup$
    – Sauhard Sharma
    Dec 17 '18 at 20:36
















1












1








1


1



$begingroup$


Suppose $X_1, X_2$ are independent $U(0, 1)$ random variables, and



$$Y = min(X_1, X_2) $$
$$Z = max(X_1, X_2) $$



By this question, they $Y$ and $Z$ should be independent:



Are functions of independent variables also independent?



But by this answer the covariance is not zero:



What is cov(X,Y), where X=min(U,V) and Y=max(U,V) for independent uniform(0,1) variables U and V?



How do I reconcile these two things? The $min$ and $max$ are a function of independent random variables, yet they have covariance.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Suppose $X_1, X_2$ are independent $U(0, 1)$ random variables, and



$$Y = min(X_1, X_2) $$
$$Z = max(X_1, X_2) $$



By this question, they $Y$ and $Z$ should be independent:



Are functions of independent variables also independent?



But by this answer the covariance is not zero:



What is cov(X,Y), where X=min(U,V) and Y=max(U,V) for independent uniform(0,1) variables U and V?



How do I reconcile these two things? The $min$ and $max$ are a function of independent random variables, yet they have covariance.







probability probability-theory statistics






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asked Dec 17 '18 at 20:00









badmaxbadmax

551516




551516








  • 7




    $begingroup$
    The min and the max cannot be independent. If you know one, you know something about the other.
    $endgroup$
    – Hans Engler
    Dec 17 '18 at 20:05






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    It is true that functions of independent RV's are again independent. But you are looking at two functions of the same RV, $(X_1,X_2)$, which is of course not independent of itself.
    $endgroup$
    – Tki Deneb
    Dec 17 '18 at 20:10








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In your first link when they talk about functions of independent variables, they mean a function of only one variable i.e $f(X_1)$, not a function of two variable like $f(X_1,X_2)$
    $endgroup$
    – Sauhard Sharma
    Dec 17 '18 at 20:36
















  • 7




    $begingroup$
    The min and the max cannot be independent. If you know one, you know something about the other.
    $endgroup$
    – Hans Engler
    Dec 17 '18 at 20:05






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    It is true that functions of independent RV's are again independent. But you are looking at two functions of the same RV, $(X_1,X_2)$, which is of course not independent of itself.
    $endgroup$
    – Tki Deneb
    Dec 17 '18 at 20:10








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    In your first link when they talk about functions of independent variables, they mean a function of only one variable i.e $f(X_1)$, not a function of two variable like $f(X_1,X_2)$
    $endgroup$
    – Sauhard Sharma
    Dec 17 '18 at 20:36










7




7




$begingroup$
The min and the max cannot be independent. If you know one, you know something about the other.
$endgroup$
– Hans Engler
Dec 17 '18 at 20:05




$begingroup$
The min and the max cannot be independent. If you know one, you know something about the other.
$endgroup$
– Hans Engler
Dec 17 '18 at 20:05




3




3




$begingroup$
It is true that functions of independent RV's are again independent. But you are looking at two functions of the same RV, $(X_1,X_2)$, which is of course not independent of itself.
$endgroup$
– Tki Deneb
Dec 17 '18 at 20:10






$begingroup$
It is true that functions of independent RV's are again independent. But you are looking at two functions of the same RV, $(X_1,X_2)$, which is of course not independent of itself.
$endgroup$
– Tki Deneb
Dec 17 '18 at 20:10






1




1




$begingroup$
In your first link when they talk about functions of independent variables, they mean a function of only one variable i.e $f(X_1)$, not a function of two variable like $f(X_1,X_2)$
$endgroup$
– Sauhard Sharma
Dec 17 '18 at 20:36






$begingroup$
In your first link when they talk about functions of independent variables, they mean a function of only one variable i.e $f(X_1)$, not a function of two variable like $f(X_1,X_2)$
$endgroup$
– Sauhard Sharma
Dec 17 '18 at 20:36












2 Answers
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$begingroup$

If $X_1$ and $X_2$ are independent, the first link you provided proves that $f(X_1)$ and $g(X_2)$ are independent. But that's not the situation that you have; here you're looking at $f(X_1, X_2)$ and $g(X_1, X_2)$.



In the case of max and min of independent uniform variables, the max and min are not independent, since their covariance is nonzero. Another way to see this: if you have knowledge of the value of the min, then the other variable (the max) cannot be less than this value; this constraint isn't present in the absence of that knowledge.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    Think of a random vector $bar{X} = [X_1 ; X_2]$. Now, both $Y$ and $Z$ are functions of $bar{X}$. Whether the elements of $bar{X}$ are independent or not, there is no reason to believe that $Y$ and $Z$ are independent, since they are both functions of $bar{X}$.



    Alternatively, if $X_1 < X_2$, the $min$ ($=Y$) is $X_1$, which automatically implies that the $max$ is $X_2$ ($=Z$), i.e. knowing $Y$ immediately tells you $Z$, and vice-versa.






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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

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      active

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      1












      $begingroup$

      If $X_1$ and $X_2$ are independent, the first link you provided proves that $f(X_1)$ and $g(X_2)$ are independent. But that's not the situation that you have; here you're looking at $f(X_1, X_2)$ and $g(X_1, X_2)$.



      In the case of max and min of independent uniform variables, the max and min are not independent, since their covariance is nonzero. Another way to see this: if you have knowledge of the value of the min, then the other variable (the max) cannot be less than this value; this constraint isn't present in the absence of that knowledge.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        1












        $begingroup$

        If $X_1$ and $X_2$ are independent, the first link you provided proves that $f(X_1)$ and $g(X_2)$ are independent. But that's not the situation that you have; here you're looking at $f(X_1, X_2)$ and $g(X_1, X_2)$.



        In the case of max and min of independent uniform variables, the max and min are not independent, since their covariance is nonzero. Another way to see this: if you have knowledge of the value of the min, then the other variable (the max) cannot be less than this value; this constraint isn't present in the absence of that knowledge.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          If $X_1$ and $X_2$ are independent, the first link you provided proves that $f(X_1)$ and $g(X_2)$ are independent. But that's not the situation that you have; here you're looking at $f(X_1, X_2)$ and $g(X_1, X_2)$.



          In the case of max and min of independent uniform variables, the max and min are not independent, since their covariance is nonzero. Another way to see this: if you have knowledge of the value of the min, then the other variable (the max) cannot be less than this value; this constraint isn't present in the absence of that knowledge.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          If $X_1$ and $X_2$ are independent, the first link you provided proves that $f(X_1)$ and $g(X_2)$ are independent. But that's not the situation that you have; here you're looking at $f(X_1, X_2)$ and $g(X_1, X_2)$.



          In the case of max and min of independent uniform variables, the max and min are not independent, since their covariance is nonzero. Another way to see this: if you have knowledge of the value of the min, then the other variable (the max) cannot be less than this value; this constraint isn't present in the absence of that knowledge.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Dec 17 '18 at 20:37









          grand_chatgrand_chat

          20.3k11326




          20.3k11326























              1












              $begingroup$

              Think of a random vector $bar{X} = [X_1 ; X_2]$. Now, both $Y$ and $Z$ are functions of $bar{X}$. Whether the elements of $bar{X}$ are independent or not, there is no reason to believe that $Y$ and $Z$ are independent, since they are both functions of $bar{X}$.



              Alternatively, if $X_1 < X_2$, the $min$ ($=Y$) is $X_1$, which automatically implies that the $max$ is $X_2$ ($=Z$), i.e. knowing $Y$ immediately tells you $Z$, and vice-versa.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                1












                $begingroup$

                Think of a random vector $bar{X} = [X_1 ; X_2]$. Now, both $Y$ and $Z$ are functions of $bar{X}$. Whether the elements of $bar{X}$ are independent or not, there is no reason to believe that $Y$ and $Z$ are independent, since they are both functions of $bar{X}$.



                Alternatively, if $X_1 < X_2$, the $min$ ($=Y$) is $X_1$, which automatically implies that the $max$ is $X_2$ ($=Z$), i.e. knowing $Y$ immediately tells you $Z$, and vice-versa.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  Think of a random vector $bar{X} = [X_1 ; X_2]$. Now, both $Y$ and $Z$ are functions of $bar{X}$. Whether the elements of $bar{X}$ are independent or not, there is no reason to believe that $Y$ and $Z$ are independent, since they are both functions of $bar{X}$.



                  Alternatively, if $X_1 < X_2$, the $min$ ($=Y$) is $X_1$, which automatically implies that the $max$ is $X_2$ ($=Z$), i.e. knowing $Y$ immediately tells you $Z$, and vice-versa.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Think of a random vector $bar{X} = [X_1 ; X_2]$. Now, both $Y$ and $Z$ are functions of $bar{X}$. Whether the elements of $bar{X}$ are independent or not, there is no reason to believe that $Y$ and $Z$ are independent, since they are both functions of $bar{X}$.



                  Alternatively, if $X_1 < X_2$, the $min$ ($=Y$) is $X_1$, which automatically implies that the $max$ is $X_2$ ($=Z$), i.e. knowing $Y$ immediately tells you $Z$, and vice-versa.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered Dec 17 '18 at 21:52









                  Aditya DuaAditya Dua

                  1,18418




                  1,18418






























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