Convergence in multi-objective coordinate descent












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I have two functions $f_1(x;y)$ and $f_2(y;x)$, which are both optimized in terms of the same variables $x$ and $y$. The argument notation with semicolon (e.g. $x;y$ in $f_1(x;y)$) should demonstrate that when optimizing $f_1$, only $x$ can be adapted and $y$ is considered as fixed (symmetric for $f_2$).



The two functions $f_1$ and $f_2$ are:




  • $f_1(x;y) = xcdot(x+y)^2 + (1-x)cdot(2-x-y)$

  • $f_2(y;x) = ycdot(x+y)^2 + (1-y)cdot(2-x-y)$


An optimization round works as follows (a kind of coordinate descent with multiple objective functions):




  • $x^{(k+1)} = argmin_{x} f_1(x;y^{(k)})$

  • $y^{(k+1)} = argmin_{y} f_2(y;x^{(k+1)})$


My question: How can we prove (or disprove) the convergence of such an optimization algorithm, where convergence should yield $(x',y')$ s.t.





  • $x' = argmin_{x} f_1(x;y')$ and

  • $y' = argmin_{y} f_2(y;x')$


i.e. both functions $f_1$ and $f_2$ are at the minimum with respect to their adjustable variable, given the fixed variable.



(I am not interested in the global minima of $f_1$ or $f_2$.)










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    $begingroup$


    I have two functions $f_1(x;y)$ and $f_2(y;x)$, which are both optimized in terms of the same variables $x$ and $y$. The argument notation with semicolon (e.g. $x;y$ in $f_1(x;y)$) should demonstrate that when optimizing $f_1$, only $x$ can be adapted and $y$ is considered as fixed (symmetric for $f_2$).



    The two functions $f_1$ and $f_2$ are:




    • $f_1(x;y) = xcdot(x+y)^2 + (1-x)cdot(2-x-y)$

    • $f_2(y;x) = ycdot(x+y)^2 + (1-y)cdot(2-x-y)$


    An optimization round works as follows (a kind of coordinate descent with multiple objective functions):




    • $x^{(k+1)} = argmin_{x} f_1(x;y^{(k)})$

    • $y^{(k+1)} = argmin_{y} f_2(y;x^{(k+1)})$


    My question: How can we prove (or disprove) the convergence of such an optimization algorithm, where convergence should yield $(x',y')$ s.t.





    • $x' = argmin_{x} f_1(x;y')$ and

    • $y' = argmin_{y} f_2(y;x')$


    i.e. both functions $f_1$ and $f_2$ are at the minimum with respect to their adjustable variable, given the fixed variable.



    (I am not interested in the global minima of $f_1$ or $f_2$.)










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















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      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I have two functions $f_1(x;y)$ and $f_2(y;x)$, which are both optimized in terms of the same variables $x$ and $y$. The argument notation with semicolon (e.g. $x;y$ in $f_1(x;y)$) should demonstrate that when optimizing $f_1$, only $x$ can be adapted and $y$ is considered as fixed (symmetric for $f_2$).



      The two functions $f_1$ and $f_2$ are:




      • $f_1(x;y) = xcdot(x+y)^2 + (1-x)cdot(2-x-y)$

      • $f_2(y;x) = ycdot(x+y)^2 + (1-y)cdot(2-x-y)$


      An optimization round works as follows (a kind of coordinate descent with multiple objective functions):




      • $x^{(k+1)} = argmin_{x} f_1(x;y^{(k)})$

      • $y^{(k+1)} = argmin_{y} f_2(y;x^{(k+1)})$


      My question: How can we prove (or disprove) the convergence of such an optimization algorithm, where convergence should yield $(x',y')$ s.t.





      • $x' = argmin_{x} f_1(x;y')$ and

      • $y' = argmin_{y} f_2(y;x')$


      i.e. both functions $f_1$ and $f_2$ are at the minimum with respect to their adjustable variable, given the fixed variable.



      (I am not interested in the global minima of $f_1$ or $f_2$.)










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I have two functions $f_1(x;y)$ and $f_2(y;x)$, which are both optimized in terms of the same variables $x$ and $y$. The argument notation with semicolon (e.g. $x;y$ in $f_1(x;y)$) should demonstrate that when optimizing $f_1$, only $x$ can be adapted and $y$ is considered as fixed (symmetric for $f_2$).



      The two functions $f_1$ and $f_2$ are:




      • $f_1(x;y) = xcdot(x+y)^2 + (1-x)cdot(2-x-y)$

      • $f_2(y;x) = ycdot(x+y)^2 + (1-y)cdot(2-x-y)$


      An optimization round works as follows (a kind of coordinate descent with multiple objective functions):




      • $x^{(k+1)} = argmin_{x} f_1(x;y^{(k)})$

      • $y^{(k+1)} = argmin_{y} f_2(y;x^{(k+1)})$


      My question: How can we prove (or disprove) the convergence of such an optimization algorithm, where convergence should yield $(x',y')$ s.t.





      • $x' = argmin_{x} f_1(x;y')$ and

      • $y' = argmin_{y} f_2(y;x')$


      i.e. both functions $f_1$ and $f_2$ are at the minimum with respect to their adjustable variable, given the fixed variable.



      (I am not interested in the global minima of $f_1$ or $f_2$.)







      convergence optimization convex-optimization






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      edited Jan 4 at 7:59







      simasch

















      asked Jan 3 at 8:17









      simaschsimasch

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