$(x_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ is cauchy if and only if $d(x_{n_k},x_{m_k}) rightarrow 0$ for any two sequences...












1














I want to know if the following assertion is correct:




If $(M,d)$ is a metric space, then $(x_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ is cauchy if and only if $d(x_{n_k},x_{m_k}) rightarrow 0$ for any two sequences of natural numbers $n_k, m_k rightarrow infty$




Of course the direction from left to right is true. But I am unsure of the direction from right to left. Can anyone give a proof or state a counterexample?



Thanks a lot in advance!










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  • 1




    I'd assume the sequence of the distances to tend to $0$ instead of $infty$ for a Cauchy series!
    – Ingix
    Oct 23 at 23:00










  • Oh yes, that was a typo. Do you know how to check if this is true?
    – vaoy
    Oct 23 at 23:05










  • Just the negation of $(x_n)$ being Cauchy. You will get the implication from right to left easily.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Oct 23 at 23:50
















1














I want to know if the following assertion is correct:




If $(M,d)$ is a metric space, then $(x_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ is cauchy if and only if $d(x_{n_k},x_{m_k}) rightarrow 0$ for any two sequences of natural numbers $n_k, m_k rightarrow infty$




Of course the direction from left to right is true. But I am unsure of the direction from right to left. Can anyone give a proof or state a counterexample?



Thanks a lot in advance!










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 1




    I'd assume the sequence of the distances to tend to $0$ instead of $infty$ for a Cauchy series!
    – Ingix
    Oct 23 at 23:00










  • Oh yes, that was a typo. Do you know how to check if this is true?
    – vaoy
    Oct 23 at 23:05










  • Just the negation of $(x_n)$ being Cauchy. You will get the implication from right to left easily.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Oct 23 at 23:50














1












1








1







I want to know if the following assertion is correct:




If $(M,d)$ is a metric space, then $(x_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ is cauchy if and only if $d(x_{n_k},x_{m_k}) rightarrow 0$ for any two sequences of natural numbers $n_k, m_k rightarrow infty$




Of course the direction from left to right is true. But I am unsure of the direction from right to left. Can anyone give a proof or state a counterexample?



Thanks a lot in advance!










share|cite|improve this question















I want to know if the following assertion is correct:




If $(M,d)$ is a metric space, then $(x_n)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ is cauchy if and only if $d(x_{n_k},x_{m_k}) rightarrow 0$ for any two sequences of natural numbers $n_k, m_k rightarrow infty$




Of course the direction from left to right is true. But I am unsure of the direction from right to left. Can anyone give a proof or state a counterexample?



Thanks a lot in advance!







real-analysis sequences-and-series analysis






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edited Oct 23 at 23:03

























asked Oct 23 at 22:52









vaoy

51729




51729








  • 1




    I'd assume the sequence of the distances to tend to $0$ instead of $infty$ for a Cauchy series!
    – Ingix
    Oct 23 at 23:00










  • Oh yes, that was a typo. Do you know how to check if this is true?
    – vaoy
    Oct 23 at 23:05










  • Just the negation of $(x_n)$ being Cauchy. You will get the implication from right to left easily.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Oct 23 at 23:50














  • 1




    I'd assume the sequence of the distances to tend to $0$ instead of $infty$ for a Cauchy series!
    – Ingix
    Oct 23 at 23:00










  • Oh yes, that was a typo. Do you know how to check if this is true?
    – vaoy
    Oct 23 at 23:05










  • Just the negation of $(x_n)$ being Cauchy. You will get the implication from right to left easily.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Oct 23 at 23:50








1




1




I'd assume the sequence of the distances to tend to $0$ instead of $infty$ for a Cauchy series!
– Ingix
Oct 23 at 23:00




I'd assume the sequence of the distances to tend to $0$ instead of $infty$ for a Cauchy series!
– Ingix
Oct 23 at 23:00












Oh yes, that was a typo. Do you know how to check if this is true?
– vaoy
Oct 23 at 23:05




Oh yes, that was a typo. Do you know how to check if this is true?
– vaoy
Oct 23 at 23:05












Just the negation of $(x_n)$ being Cauchy. You will get the implication from right to left easily.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Oct 23 at 23:50




Just the negation of $(x_n)$ being Cauchy. You will get the implication from right to left easily.
– Kavi Rama Murthy
Oct 23 at 23:50










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Since the right side is true for any sequences $n_k$ and $m_k$, simply take $n_k=k$ and $m_k=k+1$ and conclude.






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    1 Answer
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    Since the right side is true for any sequences $n_k$ and $m_k$, simply take $n_k=k$ and $m_k=k+1$ and conclude.






    share|cite|improve this answer


























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      Since the right side is true for any sequences $n_k$ and $m_k$, simply take $n_k=k$ and $m_k=k+1$ and conclude.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























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        0






        Since the right side is true for any sequences $n_k$ and $m_k$, simply take $n_k=k$ and $m_k=k+1$ and conclude.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Since the right side is true for any sequences $n_k$ and $m_k$, simply take $n_k=k$ and $m_k=k+1$ and conclude.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 30 at 18:47









        Mostafa Ayaz

        13.7k3836




        13.7k3836






























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