Uniqueness of solutions of boundary value problem












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I know that $u_1 = ln|x^2+y^2|$ is harmonic. Knowing that $u_2 = 0$ is harmonic, I can see that boundary values for $u_1$ on unit circle coincide with boundary values of $u_2$.



My question is does this contradict the uniqueness of solutions to boundary value problems? I am not quite sure if 0 could be counted as a solution nor am I sure about whether absolute values have any role. If you could let me know, I would greatly appreciate it. Thanks.










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    1












    $begingroup$


    I know that $u_1 = ln|x^2+y^2|$ is harmonic. Knowing that $u_2 = 0$ is harmonic, I can see that boundary values for $u_1$ on unit circle coincide with boundary values of $u_2$.



    My question is does this contradict the uniqueness of solutions to boundary value problems? I am not quite sure if 0 could be counted as a solution nor am I sure about whether absolute values have any role. If you could let me know, I would greatly appreciate it. Thanks.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















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      $begingroup$


      I know that $u_1 = ln|x^2+y^2|$ is harmonic. Knowing that $u_2 = 0$ is harmonic, I can see that boundary values for $u_1$ on unit circle coincide with boundary values of $u_2$.



      My question is does this contradict the uniqueness of solutions to boundary value problems? I am not quite sure if 0 could be counted as a solution nor am I sure about whether absolute values have any role. If you could let me know, I would greatly appreciate it. Thanks.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I know that $u_1 = ln|x^2+y^2|$ is harmonic. Knowing that $u_2 = 0$ is harmonic, I can see that boundary values for $u_1$ on unit circle coincide with boundary values of $u_2$.



      My question is does this contradict the uniqueness of solutions to boundary value problems? I am not quite sure if 0 could be counted as a solution nor am I sure about whether absolute values have any role. If you could let me know, I would greatly appreciate it. Thanks.







      ordinary-differential-equations harmonic-functions






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      asked Dec 5 '18 at 6:40









      dmsj djsldmsj djsl

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          I think that by "unit circle" you mean $D={(x,y): x^2+y^2 le 1}$. But your function $u_1$ is only defined for $(x,y) ne (0,0)$.



          Let $D_0:= D setminus {(0,0)}$. Then $u_1$ and $u_2$ are harmonic on $D_0$ but $u_1 ne u_2$ on $ partial D_0$, since $(0,0) in partial D_0$, and $u_1$ is not defined in this point.






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            $begingroup$

            I think that by "unit circle" you mean $D={(x,y): x^2+y^2 le 1}$. But your function $u_1$ is only defined for $(x,y) ne (0,0)$.



            Let $D_0:= D setminus {(0,0)}$. Then $u_1$ and $u_2$ are harmonic on $D_0$ but $u_1 ne u_2$ on $ partial D_0$, since $(0,0) in partial D_0$, and $u_1$ is not defined in this point.






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              1












              $begingroup$

              I think that by "unit circle" you mean $D={(x,y): x^2+y^2 le 1}$. But your function $u_1$ is only defined for $(x,y) ne (0,0)$.



              Let $D_0:= D setminus {(0,0)}$. Then $u_1$ and $u_2$ are harmonic on $D_0$ but $u_1 ne u_2$ on $ partial D_0$, since $(0,0) in partial D_0$, and $u_1$ is not defined in this point.






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                1





                $begingroup$

                I think that by "unit circle" you mean $D={(x,y): x^2+y^2 le 1}$. But your function $u_1$ is only defined for $(x,y) ne (0,0)$.



                Let $D_0:= D setminus {(0,0)}$. Then $u_1$ and $u_2$ are harmonic on $D_0$ but $u_1 ne u_2$ on $ partial D_0$, since $(0,0) in partial D_0$, and $u_1$ is not defined in this point.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                I think that by "unit circle" you mean $D={(x,y): x^2+y^2 le 1}$. But your function $u_1$ is only defined for $(x,y) ne (0,0)$.



                Let $D_0:= D setminus {(0,0)}$. Then $u_1$ and $u_2$ are harmonic on $D_0$ but $u_1 ne u_2$ on $ partial D_0$, since $(0,0) in partial D_0$, and $u_1$ is not defined in this point.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Dec 5 '18 at 6:54









                FredFred

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                44.4k1845






























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