Why does the integral of the surface area of a sphere equal its volume? [duplicate]












5












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This question already has an answer here:




  • Why is the derivative of a circle's area its perimeter (and similarly for spheres)?

    8 answers




Why does the integral of the surface area of a sphere equal it's volume?



$$int{4pi r^2 mathrm{d}r =frac{4}{3}pi r^3}$$



I don't quite understand why the relationship between surface area and volume is this way. Is this true for any other shapes?










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marked as duplicate by Najib Idrissi, Grigory M, user63181, mau, vonbrand May 2 '14 at 9:49


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














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    $begingroup$
    True for circles as well. Area = $pi r^2$. Circumference = $2pi r$. So here's the question: does it hold for all $n$-spheres? Other kinds of surfaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Kaj Hansen
    May 2 '14 at 5:27












  • $begingroup$
    Integrating the surface equation gives you the volume that the surface encloses like when you integrate the function of a graph you obtain the area under the curve.
    $endgroup$
    – Test123
    May 2 '14 at 5:30










  • $begingroup$
    So would this apply to say a square-because integrating 6x^2 doesn't give me x^3
    $endgroup$
    – codedude
    May 2 '14 at 5:31












  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry... I meant a cube. Clearly it's too late for math. :)
    $endgroup$
    – codedude
    May 2 '14 at 5:40






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you consider the radius of a cube to be the distance $r$ from center to middle of a face, then its volume is $(2r)^3$ and its surface area is $6(2r)^2$. Integrate from $r=0$ to $r=r$.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielV
    May 2 '14 at 5:42


















5












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Why is the derivative of a circle's area its perimeter (and similarly for spheres)?

    8 answers




Why does the integral of the surface area of a sphere equal it's volume?



$$int{4pi r^2 mathrm{d}r =frac{4}{3}pi r^3}$$



I don't quite understand why the relationship between surface area and volume is this way. Is this true for any other shapes?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



marked as duplicate by Najib Idrissi, Grigory M, user63181, mau, vonbrand May 2 '14 at 9:49


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • 3




    $begingroup$
    True for circles as well. Area = $pi r^2$. Circumference = $2pi r$. So here's the question: does it hold for all $n$-spheres? Other kinds of surfaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Kaj Hansen
    May 2 '14 at 5:27












  • $begingroup$
    Integrating the surface equation gives you the volume that the surface encloses like when you integrate the function of a graph you obtain the area under the curve.
    $endgroup$
    – Test123
    May 2 '14 at 5:30










  • $begingroup$
    So would this apply to say a square-because integrating 6x^2 doesn't give me x^3
    $endgroup$
    – codedude
    May 2 '14 at 5:31












  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry... I meant a cube. Clearly it's too late for math. :)
    $endgroup$
    – codedude
    May 2 '14 at 5:40






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you consider the radius of a cube to be the distance $r$ from center to middle of a face, then its volume is $(2r)^3$ and its surface area is $6(2r)^2$. Integrate from $r=0$ to $r=r$.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielV
    May 2 '14 at 5:42
















5












5








5





$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • Why is the derivative of a circle's area its perimeter (and similarly for spheres)?

    8 answers




Why does the integral of the surface area of a sphere equal it's volume?



$$int{4pi r^2 mathrm{d}r =frac{4}{3}pi r^3}$$



I don't quite understand why the relationship between surface area and volume is this way. Is this true for any other shapes?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





This question already has an answer here:




  • Why is the derivative of a circle's area its perimeter (and similarly for spheres)?

    8 answers




Why does the integral of the surface area of a sphere equal it's volume?



$$int{4pi r^2 mathrm{d}r =frac{4}{3}pi r^3}$$



I don't quite understand why the relationship between surface area and volume is this way. Is this true for any other shapes?





This question already has an answer here:




  • Why is the derivative of a circle's area its perimeter (and similarly for spheres)?

    8 answers








volume area






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited May 2 '14 at 5:34









Bennett Gardiner

3,05911540




3,05911540










asked May 2 '14 at 5:26









codedudecodedude

3472720




3472720




marked as duplicate by Najib Idrissi, Grigory M, user63181, mau, vonbrand May 2 '14 at 9:49


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









marked as duplicate by Najib Idrissi, Grigory M, user63181, mau, vonbrand May 2 '14 at 9:49


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.










  • 3




    $begingroup$
    True for circles as well. Area = $pi r^2$. Circumference = $2pi r$. So here's the question: does it hold for all $n$-spheres? Other kinds of surfaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Kaj Hansen
    May 2 '14 at 5:27












  • $begingroup$
    Integrating the surface equation gives you the volume that the surface encloses like when you integrate the function of a graph you obtain the area under the curve.
    $endgroup$
    – Test123
    May 2 '14 at 5:30










  • $begingroup$
    So would this apply to say a square-because integrating 6x^2 doesn't give me x^3
    $endgroup$
    – codedude
    May 2 '14 at 5:31












  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry... I meant a cube. Clearly it's too late for math. :)
    $endgroup$
    – codedude
    May 2 '14 at 5:40






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you consider the radius of a cube to be the distance $r$ from center to middle of a face, then its volume is $(2r)^3$ and its surface area is $6(2r)^2$. Integrate from $r=0$ to $r=r$.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielV
    May 2 '14 at 5:42
















  • 3




    $begingroup$
    True for circles as well. Area = $pi r^2$. Circumference = $2pi r$. So here's the question: does it hold for all $n$-spheres? Other kinds of surfaces?
    $endgroup$
    – Kaj Hansen
    May 2 '14 at 5:27












  • $begingroup$
    Integrating the surface equation gives you the volume that the surface encloses like when you integrate the function of a graph you obtain the area under the curve.
    $endgroup$
    – Test123
    May 2 '14 at 5:30










  • $begingroup$
    So would this apply to say a square-because integrating 6x^2 doesn't give me x^3
    $endgroup$
    – codedude
    May 2 '14 at 5:31












  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry... I meant a cube. Clearly it's too late for math. :)
    $endgroup$
    – codedude
    May 2 '14 at 5:40






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    If you consider the radius of a cube to be the distance $r$ from center to middle of a face, then its volume is $(2r)^3$ and its surface area is $6(2r)^2$. Integrate from $r=0$ to $r=r$.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielV
    May 2 '14 at 5:42










3




3




$begingroup$
True for circles as well. Area = $pi r^2$. Circumference = $2pi r$. So here's the question: does it hold for all $n$-spheres? Other kinds of surfaces?
$endgroup$
– Kaj Hansen
May 2 '14 at 5:27






$begingroup$
True for circles as well. Area = $pi r^2$. Circumference = $2pi r$. So here's the question: does it hold for all $n$-spheres? Other kinds of surfaces?
$endgroup$
– Kaj Hansen
May 2 '14 at 5:27














$begingroup$
Integrating the surface equation gives you the volume that the surface encloses like when you integrate the function of a graph you obtain the area under the curve.
$endgroup$
– Test123
May 2 '14 at 5:30




$begingroup$
Integrating the surface equation gives you the volume that the surface encloses like when you integrate the function of a graph you obtain the area under the curve.
$endgroup$
– Test123
May 2 '14 at 5:30












$begingroup$
So would this apply to say a square-because integrating 6x^2 doesn't give me x^3
$endgroup$
– codedude
May 2 '14 at 5:31






$begingroup$
So would this apply to say a square-because integrating 6x^2 doesn't give me x^3
$endgroup$
– codedude
May 2 '14 at 5:31














$begingroup$
I'm sorry... I meant a cube. Clearly it's too late for math. :)
$endgroup$
– codedude
May 2 '14 at 5:40




$begingroup$
I'm sorry... I meant a cube. Clearly it's too late for math. :)
$endgroup$
– codedude
May 2 '14 at 5:40




1




1




$begingroup$
If you consider the radius of a cube to be the distance $r$ from center to middle of a face, then its volume is $(2r)^3$ and its surface area is $6(2r)^2$. Integrate from $r=0$ to $r=r$.
$endgroup$
– DanielV
May 2 '14 at 5:42






$begingroup$
If you consider the radius of a cube to be the distance $r$ from center to middle of a face, then its volume is $(2r)^3$ and its surface area is $6(2r)^2$. Integrate from $r=0$ to $r=r$.
$endgroup$
– DanielV
May 2 '14 at 5:42












2 Answers
2






active

oldest

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2












$begingroup$

I'm sure some will have an issue with the technical aspects of the following explanation, but I believe that it should intuitively help.



One way to think about the area under a curve (and the definite integral), is to picture a vertical line from the horizontal axis to the graph of your function. Starting at say $x=0$, picture this line moving to the right. As it does, and its height changes, it will touch along the way a set of points in the plane (shaded below). Perhaps think about this line as being covered in paint, and as it moves along it paints the area under the curve.
enter image description here



You can view the definite integral $$int_0^xf(t)dt$$ as suggesting the motion of this line of changing height on the horizontal axis from 0 to $x$ and giving you the area of the region that it "paints".



The same thought process works for other shapes. Consider a square centered at the origin.
enter image description here



The perimeter of this square is $8x$. Think of $x$ starting at zero and increasing. As the square increases in size, its perimeter will also "paint" a collection of points in the plane, and we can think about the area of the square as being the painted points. In the same vein as above, the integral $$int_0^x8tdt=4x^2$$ suggests the painting of these points and gives us the area of the resulting collection of painted points (you can easily see that $4x^2$ is the area of the shaded square).



Likewise for a circle when integrating the circumference gives the area: $$int_0^r2pi tdt=pi r^2$$



Three dimensional shapes are a little harder to picture (and definitely harder to draw), but you can think about them in the same way. Extending the square example to a cube, we can now think about the faces of the cube (its surface area) as "painting" a volume of points. Consider a cube centered at the origin, with the horizontal axis going through the center of opposing faces. The surface area of such a cube is $24t^2$ (check) when it has "radius" $t$. Integrating $$int_0^x24t^2dt=8x^3$$ gives the volume of points touched by the faces of the cube as it expands from radius 0 to radius $x$.



Hopefully, by using the same sort of thought process on a sphere, you'll find that it makes a little more intuitive sense that the integral of its surface area gives us its volume.






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$endgroup$





















    3












    $begingroup$

    The reason is essentially the same as the reason why the volume of an onion is the same as the volume of all its layers. Imagine a spherical ball as being composed of many thin spherical layers, like an onion. The volume of the layer between radius $r$ and radius $r+delta r$ is (to a close approximation if $delta r$ is small enough) the area $4pi r^2$ times its thickness: $4pi r^2cdotdelta r$. Summing all these small volumes from the centre of the ball ($r=0$) to its outer radius ($r=a$, say) and taking the limit as the $delta r$ tend to $0$ gives us the limit
    $$int_0^a 4pi r^2mathrm dr.$$As you know, this evaluates to $frac43!pi a^3$, the volume of the sphere.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$




















      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      2












      $begingroup$

      I'm sure some will have an issue with the technical aspects of the following explanation, but I believe that it should intuitively help.



      One way to think about the area under a curve (and the definite integral), is to picture a vertical line from the horizontal axis to the graph of your function. Starting at say $x=0$, picture this line moving to the right. As it does, and its height changes, it will touch along the way a set of points in the plane (shaded below). Perhaps think about this line as being covered in paint, and as it moves along it paints the area under the curve.
      enter image description here



      You can view the definite integral $$int_0^xf(t)dt$$ as suggesting the motion of this line of changing height on the horizontal axis from 0 to $x$ and giving you the area of the region that it "paints".



      The same thought process works for other shapes. Consider a square centered at the origin.
      enter image description here



      The perimeter of this square is $8x$. Think of $x$ starting at zero and increasing. As the square increases in size, its perimeter will also "paint" a collection of points in the plane, and we can think about the area of the square as being the painted points. In the same vein as above, the integral $$int_0^x8tdt=4x^2$$ suggests the painting of these points and gives us the area of the resulting collection of painted points (you can easily see that $4x^2$ is the area of the shaded square).



      Likewise for a circle when integrating the circumference gives the area: $$int_0^r2pi tdt=pi r^2$$



      Three dimensional shapes are a little harder to picture (and definitely harder to draw), but you can think about them in the same way. Extending the square example to a cube, we can now think about the faces of the cube (its surface area) as "painting" a volume of points. Consider a cube centered at the origin, with the horizontal axis going through the center of opposing faces. The surface area of such a cube is $24t^2$ (check) when it has "radius" $t$. Integrating $$int_0^x24t^2dt=8x^3$$ gives the volume of points touched by the faces of the cube as it expands from radius 0 to radius $x$.



      Hopefully, by using the same sort of thought process on a sphere, you'll find that it makes a little more intuitive sense that the integral of its surface area gives us its volume.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        2












        $begingroup$

        I'm sure some will have an issue with the technical aspects of the following explanation, but I believe that it should intuitively help.



        One way to think about the area under a curve (and the definite integral), is to picture a vertical line from the horizontal axis to the graph of your function. Starting at say $x=0$, picture this line moving to the right. As it does, and its height changes, it will touch along the way a set of points in the plane (shaded below). Perhaps think about this line as being covered in paint, and as it moves along it paints the area under the curve.
        enter image description here



        You can view the definite integral $$int_0^xf(t)dt$$ as suggesting the motion of this line of changing height on the horizontal axis from 0 to $x$ and giving you the area of the region that it "paints".



        The same thought process works for other shapes. Consider a square centered at the origin.
        enter image description here



        The perimeter of this square is $8x$. Think of $x$ starting at zero and increasing. As the square increases in size, its perimeter will also "paint" a collection of points in the plane, and we can think about the area of the square as being the painted points. In the same vein as above, the integral $$int_0^x8tdt=4x^2$$ suggests the painting of these points and gives us the area of the resulting collection of painted points (you can easily see that $4x^2$ is the area of the shaded square).



        Likewise for a circle when integrating the circumference gives the area: $$int_0^r2pi tdt=pi r^2$$



        Three dimensional shapes are a little harder to picture (and definitely harder to draw), but you can think about them in the same way. Extending the square example to a cube, we can now think about the faces of the cube (its surface area) as "painting" a volume of points. Consider a cube centered at the origin, with the horizontal axis going through the center of opposing faces. The surface area of such a cube is $24t^2$ (check) when it has "radius" $t$. Integrating $$int_0^x24t^2dt=8x^3$$ gives the volume of points touched by the faces of the cube as it expands from radius 0 to radius $x$.



        Hopefully, by using the same sort of thought process on a sphere, you'll find that it makes a little more intuitive sense that the integral of its surface area gives us its volume.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          I'm sure some will have an issue with the technical aspects of the following explanation, but I believe that it should intuitively help.



          One way to think about the area under a curve (and the definite integral), is to picture a vertical line from the horizontal axis to the graph of your function. Starting at say $x=0$, picture this line moving to the right. As it does, and its height changes, it will touch along the way a set of points in the plane (shaded below). Perhaps think about this line as being covered in paint, and as it moves along it paints the area under the curve.
          enter image description here



          You can view the definite integral $$int_0^xf(t)dt$$ as suggesting the motion of this line of changing height on the horizontal axis from 0 to $x$ and giving you the area of the region that it "paints".



          The same thought process works for other shapes. Consider a square centered at the origin.
          enter image description here



          The perimeter of this square is $8x$. Think of $x$ starting at zero and increasing. As the square increases in size, its perimeter will also "paint" a collection of points in the plane, and we can think about the area of the square as being the painted points. In the same vein as above, the integral $$int_0^x8tdt=4x^2$$ suggests the painting of these points and gives us the area of the resulting collection of painted points (you can easily see that $4x^2$ is the area of the shaded square).



          Likewise for a circle when integrating the circumference gives the area: $$int_0^r2pi tdt=pi r^2$$



          Three dimensional shapes are a little harder to picture (and definitely harder to draw), but you can think about them in the same way. Extending the square example to a cube, we can now think about the faces of the cube (its surface area) as "painting" a volume of points. Consider a cube centered at the origin, with the horizontal axis going through the center of opposing faces. The surface area of such a cube is $24t^2$ (check) when it has "radius" $t$. Integrating $$int_0^x24t^2dt=8x^3$$ gives the volume of points touched by the faces of the cube as it expands from radius 0 to radius $x$.



          Hopefully, by using the same sort of thought process on a sphere, you'll find that it makes a little more intuitive sense that the integral of its surface area gives us its volume.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          I'm sure some will have an issue with the technical aspects of the following explanation, but I believe that it should intuitively help.



          One way to think about the area under a curve (and the definite integral), is to picture a vertical line from the horizontal axis to the graph of your function. Starting at say $x=0$, picture this line moving to the right. As it does, and its height changes, it will touch along the way a set of points in the plane (shaded below). Perhaps think about this line as being covered in paint, and as it moves along it paints the area under the curve.
          enter image description here



          You can view the definite integral $$int_0^xf(t)dt$$ as suggesting the motion of this line of changing height on the horizontal axis from 0 to $x$ and giving you the area of the region that it "paints".



          The same thought process works for other shapes. Consider a square centered at the origin.
          enter image description here



          The perimeter of this square is $8x$. Think of $x$ starting at zero and increasing. As the square increases in size, its perimeter will also "paint" a collection of points in the plane, and we can think about the area of the square as being the painted points. In the same vein as above, the integral $$int_0^x8tdt=4x^2$$ suggests the painting of these points and gives us the area of the resulting collection of painted points (you can easily see that $4x^2$ is the area of the shaded square).



          Likewise for a circle when integrating the circumference gives the area: $$int_0^r2pi tdt=pi r^2$$



          Three dimensional shapes are a little harder to picture (and definitely harder to draw), but you can think about them in the same way. Extending the square example to a cube, we can now think about the faces of the cube (its surface area) as "painting" a volume of points. Consider a cube centered at the origin, with the horizontal axis going through the center of opposing faces. The surface area of such a cube is $24t^2$ (check) when it has "radius" $t$. Integrating $$int_0^x24t^2dt=8x^3$$ gives the volume of points touched by the faces of the cube as it expands from radius 0 to radius $x$.



          Hopefully, by using the same sort of thought process on a sphere, you'll find that it makes a little more intuitive sense that the integral of its surface area gives us its volume.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered May 2 '14 at 7:11









          Scott H.Scott H.

          446717




          446717























              3












              $begingroup$

              The reason is essentially the same as the reason why the volume of an onion is the same as the volume of all its layers. Imagine a spherical ball as being composed of many thin spherical layers, like an onion. The volume of the layer between radius $r$ and radius $r+delta r$ is (to a close approximation if $delta r$ is small enough) the area $4pi r^2$ times its thickness: $4pi r^2cdotdelta r$. Summing all these small volumes from the centre of the ball ($r=0$) to its outer radius ($r=a$, say) and taking the limit as the $delta r$ tend to $0$ gives us the limit
              $$int_0^a 4pi r^2mathrm dr.$$As you know, this evaluates to $frac43!pi a^3$, the volume of the sphere.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                3












                $begingroup$

                The reason is essentially the same as the reason why the volume of an onion is the same as the volume of all its layers. Imagine a spherical ball as being composed of many thin spherical layers, like an onion. The volume of the layer between radius $r$ and radius $r+delta r$ is (to a close approximation if $delta r$ is small enough) the area $4pi r^2$ times its thickness: $4pi r^2cdotdelta r$. Summing all these small volumes from the centre of the ball ($r=0$) to its outer radius ($r=a$, say) and taking the limit as the $delta r$ tend to $0$ gives us the limit
                $$int_0^a 4pi r^2mathrm dr.$$As you know, this evaluates to $frac43!pi a^3$, the volume of the sphere.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  3












                  3








                  3





                  $begingroup$

                  The reason is essentially the same as the reason why the volume of an onion is the same as the volume of all its layers. Imagine a spherical ball as being composed of many thin spherical layers, like an onion. The volume of the layer between radius $r$ and radius $r+delta r$ is (to a close approximation if $delta r$ is small enough) the area $4pi r^2$ times its thickness: $4pi r^2cdotdelta r$. Summing all these small volumes from the centre of the ball ($r=0$) to its outer radius ($r=a$, say) and taking the limit as the $delta r$ tend to $0$ gives us the limit
                  $$int_0^a 4pi r^2mathrm dr.$$As you know, this evaluates to $frac43!pi a^3$, the volume of the sphere.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  The reason is essentially the same as the reason why the volume of an onion is the same as the volume of all its layers. Imagine a spherical ball as being composed of many thin spherical layers, like an onion. The volume of the layer between radius $r$ and radius $r+delta r$ is (to a close approximation if $delta r$ is small enough) the area $4pi r^2$ times its thickness: $4pi r^2cdotdelta r$. Summing all these small volumes from the centre of the ball ($r=0$) to its outer radius ($r=a$, say) and taking the limit as the $delta r$ tend to $0$ gives us the limit
                  $$int_0^a 4pi r^2mathrm dr.$$As you know, this evaluates to $frac43!pi a^3$, the volume of the sphere.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered May 2 '14 at 8:03









                  John BentinJohn Bentin

                  11.3k22554




                  11.3k22554















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