Canonical products and general form for entire functions












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In Ahlfors book, chapter V - 2.3, we have a method to find a form to entire functions, that is: if $f$ is an entire function with a finite number of zeros $a_1, ..., a_N$, and a zero of multiplicity $m$ on the origin then $$f(z)=z^m e^{g(z)}prod_{n = 1}^{N} (1-frac{z}{a_n})$$
after, generalyze this for infinitely many zeros
$$f(z)=z^m e^{g(z)}prod_{n = 1}^{infty} (1-frac{z}{a_n})$$



My question is: Why that generalization doesn't mean $f$ is a constant function? I said that because we know that an analytic function (nonconstant) had a finite number of zeros. My point is a contradiction between this two facts.










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    Doesn't the sine function have infinitely many zeroes?
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 14 '18 at 20:01
















0












$begingroup$


In Ahlfors book, chapter V - 2.3, we have a method to find a form to entire functions, that is: if $f$ is an entire function with a finite number of zeros $a_1, ..., a_N$, and a zero of multiplicity $m$ on the origin then $$f(z)=z^m e^{g(z)}prod_{n = 1}^{N} (1-frac{z}{a_n})$$
after, generalyze this for infinitely many zeros
$$f(z)=z^m e^{g(z)}prod_{n = 1}^{infty} (1-frac{z}{a_n})$$



My question is: Why that generalization doesn't mean $f$ is a constant function? I said that because we know that an analytic function (nonconstant) had a finite number of zeros. My point is a contradiction between this two facts.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Doesn't the sine function have infinitely many zeroes?
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 14 '18 at 20:01














0












0








0





$begingroup$


In Ahlfors book, chapter V - 2.3, we have a method to find a form to entire functions, that is: if $f$ is an entire function with a finite number of zeros $a_1, ..., a_N$, and a zero of multiplicity $m$ on the origin then $$f(z)=z^m e^{g(z)}prod_{n = 1}^{N} (1-frac{z}{a_n})$$
after, generalyze this for infinitely many zeros
$$f(z)=z^m e^{g(z)}prod_{n = 1}^{infty} (1-frac{z}{a_n})$$



My question is: Why that generalization doesn't mean $f$ is a constant function? I said that because we know that an analytic function (nonconstant) had a finite number of zeros. My point is a contradiction between this two facts.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




In Ahlfors book, chapter V - 2.3, we have a method to find a form to entire functions, that is: if $f$ is an entire function with a finite number of zeros $a_1, ..., a_N$, and a zero of multiplicity $m$ on the origin then $$f(z)=z^m e^{g(z)}prod_{n = 1}^{N} (1-frac{z}{a_n})$$
after, generalyze this for infinitely many zeros
$$f(z)=z^m e^{g(z)}prod_{n = 1}^{infty} (1-frac{z}{a_n})$$



My question is: Why that generalization doesn't mean $f$ is a constant function? I said that because we know that an analytic function (nonconstant) had a finite number of zeros. My point is a contradiction between this two facts.







complex-analysis entire-functions






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asked Dec 14 '18 at 19:58









Júlio César M. MarquesJúlio César M. Marques

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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Doesn't the sine function have infinitely many zeroes?
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 14 '18 at 20:01














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Doesn't the sine function have infinitely many zeroes?
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Dec 14 '18 at 20:01








1




1




$begingroup$
Doesn't the sine function have infinitely many zeroes?
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Dec 14 '18 at 20:01




$begingroup$
Doesn't the sine function have infinitely many zeroes?
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Dec 14 '18 at 20:01










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You should mention that in the finite case multiple zeros are repeated. Ahlfors says that if there are infinitely many zeros one can try to obtain a similar representation by means of an infinite product. He states that this product converges absolutely if and only if $sum_{n=1}^infty 1/lvert a_n rvert$ is convergent.



A neccessary condition for the convergence of this series is that $a_n to infty$ as $n to infty$. This means that $(a_n)$ does not have a cluster point in $mathbb{C}$. Therefore you cannot conclude that $f$ is constant. See Lord Shark the Unknown's comment.






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    $begingroup$

    You should mention that in the finite case multiple zeros are repeated. Ahlfors says that if there are infinitely many zeros one can try to obtain a similar representation by means of an infinite product. He states that this product converges absolutely if and only if $sum_{n=1}^infty 1/lvert a_n rvert$ is convergent.



    A neccessary condition for the convergence of this series is that $a_n to infty$ as $n to infty$. This means that $(a_n)$ does not have a cluster point in $mathbb{C}$. Therefore you cannot conclude that $f$ is constant. See Lord Shark the Unknown's comment.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      1












      $begingroup$

      You should mention that in the finite case multiple zeros are repeated. Ahlfors says that if there are infinitely many zeros one can try to obtain a similar representation by means of an infinite product. He states that this product converges absolutely if and only if $sum_{n=1}^infty 1/lvert a_n rvert$ is convergent.



      A neccessary condition for the convergence of this series is that $a_n to infty$ as $n to infty$. This means that $(a_n)$ does not have a cluster point in $mathbb{C}$. Therefore you cannot conclude that $f$ is constant. See Lord Shark the Unknown's comment.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        You should mention that in the finite case multiple zeros are repeated. Ahlfors says that if there are infinitely many zeros one can try to obtain a similar representation by means of an infinite product. He states that this product converges absolutely if and only if $sum_{n=1}^infty 1/lvert a_n rvert$ is convergent.



        A neccessary condition for the convergence of this series is that $a_n to infty$ as $n to infty$. This means that $(a_n)$ does not have a cluster point in $mathbb{C}$. Therefore you cannot conclude that $f$ is constant. See Lord Shark the Unknown's comment.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        You should mention that in the finite case multiple zeros are repeated. Ahlfors says that if there are infinitely many zeros one can try to obtain a similar representation by means of an infinite product. He states that this product converges absolutely if and only if $sum_{n=1}^infty 1/lvert a_n rvert$ is convergent.



        A neccessary condition for the convergence of this series is that $a_n to infty$ as $n to infty$. This means that $(a_n)$ does not have a cluster point in $mathbb{C}$. Therefore you cannot conclude that $f$ is constant. See Lord Shark the Unknown's comment.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Dec 14 '18 at 22:43









        Paul FrostPaul Frost

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        10.7k3933






























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