A question about the Residue of $h=fg$
$begingroup$
Let $f$ and $g$ be two functions (not necessarily analytic) of the complex
variable $z$ such that for some $varepsilon >0$ :
1) $f$ is continuous on $0<leftvert zrightvert <varepsilon $
2) $g$ is continuous on $leftvert zrightvert <varepsilon $ and $%
gleft( 0right) neq 0$
3) $h=fg$ is analytic on $0<leftvert zrightvert <varepsilon .$
Do we have
begin{equation*}
Resleft( h,0right) =frac{gleft( 0right) }{2pi i}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =frac{varepsilon }{2}}fleft( zright) dz
end{equation*}
Or perhaps some other equation ?
Thank you !
integration complex-analysis functional-analysis contour-integration residue-calculus
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $f$ and $g$ be two functions (not necessarily analytic) of the complex
variable $z$ such that for some $varepsilon >0$ :
1) $f$ is continuous on $0<leftvert zrightvert <varepsilon $
2) $g$ is continuous on $leftvert zrightvert <varepsilon $ and $%
gleft( 0right) neq 0$
3) $h=fg$ is analytic on $0<leftvert zrightvert <varepsilon .$
Do we have
begin{equation*}
Resleft( h,0right) =frac{gleft( 0right) }{2pi i}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =frac{varepsilon }{2}}fleft( zright) dz
end{equation*}
Or perhaps some other equation ?
Thank you !
integration complex-analysis functional-analysis contour-integration residue-calculus
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Note that $0$ is a removable singularity by the assumption that $h$ is continuous and hence bounded.
$endgroup$
– Song
Jan 1 at 14:05
$begingroup$
I will precise the question
$endgroup$
– Djalal Ounadjela
Jan 1 at 14:06
$begingroup$
@Song take a look now please
$endgroup$
– Djalal Ounadjela
Jan 1 at 14:13
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $f$ and $g$ be two functions (not necessarily analytic) of the complex
variable $z$ such that for some $varepsilon >0$ :
1) $f$ is continuous on $0<leftvert zrightvert <varepsilon $
2) $g$ is continuous on $leftvert zrightvert <varepsilon $ and $%
gleft( 0right) neq 0$
3) $h=fg$ is analytic on $0<leftvert zrightvert <varepsilon .$
Do we have
begin{equation*}
Resleft( h,0right) =frac{gleft( 0right) }{2pi i}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =frac{varepsilon }{2}}fleft( zright) dz
end{equation*}
Or perhaps some other equation ?
Thank you !
integration complex-analysis functional-analysis contour-integration residue-calculus
$endgroup$
Let $f$ and $g$ be two functions (not necessarily analytic) of the complex
variable $z$ such that for some $varepsilon >0$ :
1) $f$ is continuous on $0<leftvert zrightvert <varepsilon $
2) $g$ is continuous on $leftvert zrightvert <varepsilon $ and $%
gleft( 0right) neq 0$
3) $h=fg$ is analytic on $0<leftvert zrightvert <varepsilon .$
Do we have
begin{equation*}
Resleft( h,0right) =frac{gleft( 0right) }{2pi i}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =frac{varepsilon }{2}}fleft( zright) dz
end{equation*}
Or perhaps some other equation ?
Thank you !
integration complex-analysis functional-analysis contour-integration residue-calculus
integration complex-analysis functional-analysis contour-integration residue-calculus
edited Jan 1 at 14:12
Djalal Ounadjela
asked Jan 1 at 13:40
Djalal OunadjelaDjalal Ounadjela
29818
29818
1
$begingroup$
Note that $0$ is a removable singularity by the assumption that $h$ is continuous and hence bounded.
$endgroup$
– Song
Jan 1 at 14:05
$begingroup$
I will precise the question
$endgroup$
– Djalal Ounadjela
Jan 1 at 14:06
$begingroup$
@Song take a look now please
$endgroup$
– Djalal Ounadjela
Jan 1 at 14:13
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Note that $0$ is a removable singularity by the assumption that $h$ is continuous and hence bounded.
$endgroup$
– Song
Jan 1 at 14:05
$begingroup$
I will precise the question
$endgroup$
– Djalal Ounadjela
Jan 1 at 14:06
$begingroup$
@Song take a look now please
$endgroup$
– Djalal Ounadjela
Jan 1 at 14:13
1
1
$begingroup$
Note that $0$ is a removable singularity by the assumption that $h$ is continuous and hence bounded.
$endgroup$
– Song
Jan 1 at 14:05
$begingroup$
Note that $0$ is a removable singularity by the assumption that $h$ is continuous and hence bounded.
$endgroup$
– Song
Jan 1 at 14:05
$begingroup$
I will precise the question
$endgroup$
– Djalal Ounadjela
Jan 1 at 14:06
$begingroup$
I will precise the question
$endgroup$
– Djalal Ounadjela
Jan 1 at 14:06
$begingroup$
@Song take a look now please
$endgroup$
– Djalal Ounadjela
Jan 1 at 14:13
$begingroup$
@Song take a look now please
$endgroup$
– Djalal Ounadjela
Jan 1 at 14:13
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
The answer to the question as you stated is no. This is why I doubt it is true. If it were true, then it must be that for all $eta<epsilon$ $$text{Res}left( h,0right) =frac{gleft( 0right) }{2pi i}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =frac{eta}{2}}fleft( zright) dz.$$ The right-hand side may depend on $eta$ if $f$ is not analytic but the left-hand side remains constant. So I guess more meaningful (and weaker) version of your question is to ask whether
$$
text{Res}left( h,0right) =frac{gleft( 0right) }{2pi i}lim_{eta to 0}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}fleft( zright) dz
$$ holds. Since $text{Res}left( h,0right) =frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}fleft(zright)g(z) dz$ for all $eta<epsilon$, it is asking whether we can treat $g(z)$ as if it is constant $g(0)$ as $eta to 0$. But it turns out that it is also false even if we assume $f$ and $g$ are analytic. A counterexample is $g(z) = frac{1}{1+z}$ and $h(z) = frac{1}{z}+frac{1}{z^2}$. Then $text{Res}left( h,0right) = 1$ while
$$
frac{g(0)}{2pi i}lim_{eta to 0}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}fleft( zright) dz = frac{g(0)}{2pi i}lim_{eta to 0}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}(1+z)(frac{1}{z}+frac{1}{z^2}) dz =2.
$$
Note: However, if we assume that $h$ has a simple pole at $z=0$ and $frac{1}{g(z)} = frac{1}{g(0)}+mathcal{O}(|z|^{epsilon'})$ for some $epsilon'>0$, then $text{Res}left( h,0right) =frac{gleft( 0right) }{2pi i}lim_{eta to 0}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}fleft( zright) dz$ must be true.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you so much
$endgroup$
– Djalal Ounadjela
Jan 1 at 15:15
add a comment |
Your Answer
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$begingroup$
The answer to the question as you stated is no. This is why I doubt it is true. If it were true, then it must be that for all $eta<epsilon$ $$text{Res}left( h,0right) =frac{gleft( 0right) }{2pi i}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =frac{eta}{2}}fleft( zright) dz.$$ The right-hand side may depend on $eta$ if $f$ is not analytic but the left-hand side remains constant. So I guess more meaningful (and weaker) version of your question is to ask whether
$$
text{Res}left( h,0right) =frac{gleft( 0right) }{2pi i}lim_{eta to 0}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}fleft( zright) dz
$$ holds. Since $text{Res}left( h,0right) =frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}fleft(zright)g(z) dz$ for all $eta<epsilon$, it is asking whether we can treat $g(z)$ as if it is constant $g(0)$ as $eta to 0$. But it turns out that it is also false even if we assume $f$ and $g$ are analytic. A counterexample is $g(z) = frac{1}{1+z}$ and $h(z) = frac{1}{z}+frac{1}{z^2}$. Then $text{Res}left( h,0right) = 1$ while
$$
frac{g(0)}{2pi i}lim_{eta to 0}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}fleft( zright) dz = frac{g(0)}{2pi i}lim_{eta to 0}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}(1+z)(frac{1}{z}+frac{1}{z^2}) dz =2.
$$
Note: However, if we assume that $h$ has a simple pole at $z=0$ and $frac{1}{g(z)} = frac{1}{g(0)}+mathcal{O}(|z|^{epsilon'})$ for some $epsilon'>0$, then $text{Res}left( h,0right) =frac{gleft( 0right) }{2pi i}lim_{eta to 0}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}fleft( zright) dz$ must be true.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you so much
$endgroup$
– Djalal Ounadjela
Jan 1 at 15:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The answer to the question as you stated is no. This is why I doubt it is true. If it were true, then it must be that for all $eta<epsilon$ $$text{Res}left( h,0right) =frac{gleft( 0right) }{2pi i}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =frac{eta}{2}}fleft( zright) dz.$$ The right-hand side may depend on $eta$ if $f$ is not analytic but the left-hand side remains constant. So I guess more meaningful (and weaker) version of your question is to ask whether
$$
text{Res}left( h,0right) =frac{gleft( 0right) }{2pi i}lim_{eta to 0}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}fleft( zright) dz
$$ holds. Since $text{Res}left( h,0right) =frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}fleft(zright)g(z) dz$ for all $eta<epsilon$, it is asking whether we can treat $g(z)$ as if it is constant $g(0)$ as $eta to 0$. But it turns out that it is also false even if we assume $f$ and $g$ are analytic. A counterexample is $g(z) = frac{1}{1+z}$ and $h(z) = frac{1}{z}+frac{1}{z^2}$. Then $text{Res}left( h,0right) = 1$ while
$$
frac{g(0)}{2pi i}lim_{eta to 0}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}fleft( zright) dz = frac{g(0)}{2pi i}lim_{eta to 0}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}(1+z)(frac{1}{z}+frac{1}{z^2}) dz =2.
$$
Note: However, if we assume that $h$ has a simple pole at $z=0$ and $frac{1}{g(z)} = frac{1}{g(0)}+mathcal{O}(|z|^{epsilon'})$ for some $epsilon'>0$, then $text{Res}left( h,0right) =frac{gleft( 0right) }{2pi i}lim_{eta to 0}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}fleft( zright) dz$ must be true.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thank you so much
$endgroup$
– Djalal Ounadjela
Jan 1 at 15:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
The answer to the question as you stated is no. This is why I doubt it is true. If it were true, then it must be that for all $eta<epsilon$ $$text{Res}left( h,0right) =frac{gleft( 0right) }{2pi i}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =frac{eta}{2}}fleft( zright) dz.$$ The right-hand side may depend on $eta$ if $f$ is not analytic but the left-hand side remains constant. So I guess more meaningful (and weaker) version of your question is to ask whether
$$
text{Res}left( h,0right) =frac{gleft( 0right) }{2pi i}lim_{eta to 0}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}fleft( zright) dz
$$ holds. Since $text{Res}left( h,0right) =frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}fleft(zright)g(z) dz$ for all $eta<epsilon$, it is asking whether we can treat $g(z)$ as if it is constant $g(0)$ as $eta to 0$. But it turns out that it is also false even if we assume $f$ and $g$ are analytic. A counterexample is $g(z) = frac{1}{1+z}$ and $h(z) = frac{1}{z}+frac{1}{z^2}$. Then $text{Res}left( h,0right) = 1$ while
$$
frac{g(0)}{2pi i}lim_{eta to 0}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}fleft( zright) dz = frac{g(0)}{2pi i}lim_{eta to 0}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}(1+z)(frac{1}{z}+frac{1}{z^2}) dz =2.
$$
Note: However, if we assume that $h$ has a simple pole at $z=0$ and $frac{1}{g(z)} = frac{1}{g(0)}+mathcal{O}(|z|^{epsilon'})$ for some $epsilon'>0$, then $text{Res}left( h,0right) =frac{gleft( 0right) }{2pi i}lim_{eta to 0}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}fleft( zright) dz$ must be true.
$endgroup$
The answer to the question as you stated is no. This is why I doubt it is true. If it were true, then it must be that for all $eta<epsilon$ $$text{Res}left( h,0right) =frac{gleft( 0right) }{2pi i}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =frac{eta}{2}}fleft( zright) dz.$$ The right-hand side may depend on $eta$ if $f$ is not analytic but the left-hand side remains constant. So I guess more meaningful (and weaker) version of your question is to ask whether
$$
text{Res}left( h,0right) =frac{gleft( 0right) }{2pi i}lim_{eta to 0}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}fleft( zright) dz
$$ holds. Since $text{Res}left( h,0right) =frac{1}{2pi i}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}fleft(zright)g(z) dz$ for all $eta<epsilon$, it is asking whether we can treat $g(z)$ as if it is constant $g(0)$ as $eta to 0$. But it turns out that it is also false even if we assume $f$ and $g$ are analytic. A counterexample is $g(z) = frac{1}{1+z}$ and $h(z) = frac{1}{z}+frac{1}{z^2}$. Then $text{Res}left( h,0right) = 1$ while
$$
frac{g(0)}{2pi i}lim_{eta to 0}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}fleft( zright) dz = frac{g(0)}{2pi i}lim_{eta to 0}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}(1+z)(frac{1}{z}+frac{1}{z^2}) dz =2.
$$
Note: However, if we assume that $h$ has a simple pole at $z=0$ and $frac{1}{g(z)} = frac{1}{g(0)}+mathcal{O}(|z|^{epsilon'})$ for some $epsilon'>0$, then $text{Res}left( h,0right) =frac{gleft( 0right) }{2pi i}lim_{eta to 0}oint_{leftvert
zrightvert =eta}fleft( zright) dz$ must be true.
edited Jan 1 at 15:09
answered Jan 1 at 15:03
SongSong
18.5k21651
18.5k21651
$begingroup$
Thank you so much
$endgroup$
– Djalal Ounadjela
Jan 1 at 15:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thank you so much
$endgroup$
– Djalal Ounadjela
Jan 1 at 15:15
$begingroup$
Thank you so much
$endgroup$
– Djalal Ounadjela
Jan 1 at 15:15
$begingroup$
Thank you so much
$endgroup$
– Djalal Ounadjela
Jan 1 at 15:15
add a comment |
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1
$begingroup$
Note that $0$ is a removable singularity by the assumption that $h$ is continuous and hence bounded.
$endgroup$
– Song
Jan 1 at 14:05
$begingroup$
I will precise the question
$endgroup$
– Djalal Ounadjela
Jan 1 at 14:06
$begingroup$
@Song take a look now please
$endgroup$
– Djalal Ounadjela
Jan 1 at 14:13