Diagonalizable matricies and eigenvalues
$begingroup$
Let $A$,$B$,$C$ be three different real $3 times 3$ matricies with the following properties:
$A$ has the complex eigenvalue $lambda=3-5i$
$B$ has eigenvalues $lambda=0$, $lambda=5$, $lambda=-5$
$C=M M^T$ for some real $3 times 2$ matrix $M$.
Which of the matrices are necessarily diagonalizable? In the case of complex eigenvectors, diagonalization is over $mathbb{C}$.
$(A)$ Only $B$
$(B)$ Only $A$ and $B$
$(C)$ Only $B$ and $C$
$(D)$ All three of them
$(E)$ None of them
Okay so first of all, I am almost certain that $(B)$ is diagonalizable. There are $3$ distinct eigenvalues for a $3 times 3$ matrix so it can definitely be diagonalized.
I know for $(A)$ that because we have a real matrix, that the complex numbers must come in conjugate pairs so there must be a 2nd complex eigen value and one more real value so that $(A)$ can diagonalized too.
I'm not sure about $(C)$ though. I know that $(C)$ is a $3times 3$ matrix but I am not sure if that justifies in there being 3 distinct eigenvalues so thus I could conclude that all three are diagonalizable (Thus $(D)$ being the answer).
Is my reasoning relatively on the right track?
linear-algebra matrices eigenvalues-eigenvectors diagonalization
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $A$,$B$,$C$ be three different real $3 times 3$ matricies with the following properties:
$A$ has the complex eigenvalue $lambda=3-5i$
$B$ has eigenvalues $lambda=0$, $lambda=5$, $lambda=-5$
$C=M M^T$ for some real $3 times 2$ matrix $M$.
Which of the matrices are necessarily diagonalizable? In the case of complex eigenvectors, diagonalization is over $mathbb{C}$.
$(A)$ Only $B$
$(B)$ Only $A$ and $B$
$(C)$ Only $B$ and $C$
$(D)$ All three of them
$(E)$ None of them
Okay so first of all, I am almost certain that $(B)$ is diagonalizable. There are $3$ distinct eigenvalues for a $3 times 3$ matrix so it can definitely be diagonalized.
I know for $(A)$ that because we have a real matrix, that the complex numbers must come in conjugate pairs so there must be a 2nd complex eigen value and one more real value so that $(A)$ can diagonalized too.
I'm not sure about $(C)$ though. I know that $(C)$ is a $3times 3$ matrix but I am not sure if that justifies in there being 3 distinct eigenvalues so thus I could conclude that all three are diagonalizable (Thus $(D)$ being the answer).
Is my reasoning relatively on the right track?
linear-algebra matrices eigenvalues-eigenvectors diagonalization
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Well, $;A;$ can be diagonalized...but not over the real numbers, and you defined the matrices to be real...
$endgroup$
– DonAntonio
Dec 22 '18 at 1:30
$begingroup$
There was a statement saying for the complex eigenvalues, diagonalization is over the complex numbers.
$endgroup$
– Future Math person
Dec 22 '18 at 1:42
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $A$,$B$,$C$ be three different real $3 times 3$ matricies with the following properties:
$A$ has the complex eigenvalue $lambda=3-5i$
$B$ has eigenvalues $lambda=0$, $lambda=5$, $lambda=-5$
$C=M M^T$ for some real $3 times 2$ matrix $M$.
Which of the matrices are necessarily diagonalizable? In the case of complex eigenvectors, diagonalization is over $mathbb{C}$.
$(A)$ Only $B$
$(B)$ Only $A$ and $B$
$(C)$ Only $B$ and $C$
$(D)$ All three of them
$(E)$ None of them
Okay so first of all, I am almost certain that $(B)$ is diagonalizable. There are $3$ distinct eigenvalues for a $3 times 3$ matrix so it can definitely be diagonalized.
I know for $(A)$ that because we have a real matrix, that the complex numbers must come in conjugate pairs so there must be a 2nd complex eigen value and one more real value so that $(A)$ can diagonalized too.
I'm not sure about $(C)$ though. I know that $(C)$ is a $3times 3$ matrix but I am not sure if that justifies in there being 3 distinct eigenvalues so thus I could conclude that all three are diagonalizable (Thus $(D)$ being the answer).
Is my reasoning relatively on the right track?
linear-algebra matrices eigenvalues-eigenvectors diagonalization
$endgroup$
Let $A$,$B$,$C$ be three different real $3 times 3$ matricies with the following properties:
$A$ has the complex eigenvalue $lambda=3-5i$
$B$ has eigenvalues $lambda=0$, $lambda=5$, $lambda=-5$
$C=M M^T$ for some real $3 times 2$ matrix $M$.
Which of the matrices are necessarily diagonalizable? In the case of complex eigenvectors, diagonalization is over $mathbb{C}$.
$(A)$ Only $B$
$(B)$ Only $A$ and $B$
$(C)$ Only $B$ and $C$
$(D)$ All three of them
$(E)$ None of them
Okay so first of all, I am almost certain that $(B)$ is diagonalizable. There are $3$ distinct eigenvalues for a $3 times 3$ matrix so it can definitely be diagonalized.
I know for $(A)$ that because we have a real matrix, that the complex numbers must come in conjugate pairs so there must be a 2nd complex eigen value and one more real value so that $(A)$ can diagonalized too.
I'm not sure about $(C)$ though. I know that $(C)$ is a $3times 3$ matrix but I am not sure if that justifies in there being 3 distinct eigenvalues so thus I could conclude that all three are diagonalizable (Thus $(D)$ being the answer).
Is my reasoning relatively on the right track?
linear-algebra matrices eigenvalues-eigenvectors diagonalization
linear-algebra matrices eigenvalues-eigenvectors diagonalization
asked Dec 22 '18 at 1:03
Future Math personFuture Math person
977817
977817
$begingroup$
Well, $;A;$ can be diagonalized...but not over the real numbers, and you defined the matrices to be real...
$endgroup$
– DonAntonio
Dec 22 '18 at 1:30
$begingroup$
There was a statement saying for the complex eigenvalues, diagonalization is over the complex numbers.
$endgroup$
– Future Math person
Dec 22 '18 at 1:42
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Well, $;A;$ can be diagonalized...but not over the real numbers, and you defined the matrices to be real...
$endgroup$
– DonAntonio
Dec 22 '18 at 1:30
$begingroup$
There was a statement saying for the complex eigenvalues, diagonalization is over the complex numbers.
$endgroup$
– Future Math person
Dec 22 '18 at 1:42
$begingroup$
Well, $;A;$ can be diagonalized...but not over the real numbers, and you defined the matrices to be real...
$endgroup$
– DonAntonio
Dec 22 '18 at 1:30
$begingroup$
Well, $;A;$ can be diagonalized...but not over the real numbers, and you defined the matrices to be real...
$endgroup$
– DonAntonio
Dec 22 '18 at 1:30
$begingroup$
There was a statement saying for the complex eigenvalues, diagonalization is over the complex numbers.
$endgroup$
– Future Math person
Dec 22 '18 at 1:42
$begingroup$
There was a statement saying for the complex eigenvalues, diagonalization is over the complex numbers.
$endgroup$
– Future Math person
Dec 22 '18 at 1:42
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Our OP Future Math person has correctly argued that $A$ and $B$ are diagonalizable, $A$ over $Bbb C$ and $B$ over $Bbb R$; in each case for the reason that the matrix has $3$ distinct eigenvalues, hence $3$ linearly independent eigenvectors.
So what about the case
$C = MM^T? tag 1$
here we don't know too much about the eigenvalues, but we may observe that
$C^T = (MM^T)^T = (M^T)^TM^T = MM^T; tag 2$
that is, $C$ is a real symmetric matrix; as such, it too may be diagonalized, whether or not the eigenvalues are distinct; that real symmetric matrices are diagonalizable is a well-known result.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Ohh wow. Yes I didn't even realize it was a symmetric matrix. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Future Math person
Dec 22 '18 at 1:43
$begingroup$
@FutureMathperson: you are most welcome! And thanks for the "acceptance"!
$endgroup$
– Robert Lewis
Dec 22 '18 at 1:50
1
$begingroup$
It may be worth noting that we do know that $0$ is an eigenvalue for $C$. This is because $M^T:mathbb{R}^3 to mathbb{R}^2$ and thus has non-trivial kernel forcing $MM^T$ to have nontrivial kernel.
$endgroup$
– Dionel Jaime
Dec 22 '18 at 4:54
$begingroup$
@DionelJaime: right you are! Cheers!
$endgroup$
– Robert Lewis
Dec 22 '18 at 4:56
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Our OP Future Math person has correctly argued that $A$ and $B$ are diagonalizable, $A$ over $Bbb C$ and $B$ over $Bbb R$; in each case for the reason that the matrix has $3$ distinct eigenvalues, hence $3$ linearly independent eigenvectors.
So what about the case
$C = MM^T? tag 1$
here we don't know too much about the eigenvalues, but we may observe that
$C^T = (MM^T)^T = (M^T)^TM^T = MM^T; tag 2$
that is, $C$ is a real symmetric matrix; as such, it too may be diagonalized, whether or not the eigenvalues are distinct; that real symmetric matrices are diagonalizable is a well-known result.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Ohh wow. Yes I didn't even realize it was a symmetric matrix. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Future Math person
Dec 22 '18 at 1:43
$begingroup$
@FutureMathperson: you are most welcome! And thanks for the "acceptance"!
$endgroup$
– Robert Lewis
Dec 22 '18 at 1:50
1
$begingroup$
It may be worth noting that we do know that $0$ is an eigenvalue for $C$. This is because $M^T:mathbb{R}^3 to mathbb{R}^2$ and thus has non-trivial kernel forcing $MM^T$ to have nontrivial kernel.
$endgroup$
– Dionel Jaime
Dec 22 '18 at 4:54
$begingroup$
@DionelJaime: right you are! Cheers!
$endgroup$
– Robert Lewis
Dec 22 '18 at 4:56
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Our OP Future Math person has correctly argued that $A$ and $B$ are diagonalizable, $A$ over $Bbb C$ and $B$ over $Bbb R$; in each case for the reason that the matrix has $3$ distinct eigenvalues, hence $3$ linearly independent eigenvectors.
So what about the case
$C = MM^T? tag 1$
here we don't know too much about the eigenvalues, but we may observe that
$C^T = (MM^T)^T = (M^T)^TM^T = MM^T; tag 2$
that is, $C$ is a real symmetric matrix; as such, it too may be diagonalized, whether or not the eigenvalues are distinct; that real symmetric matrices are diagonalizable is a well-known result.
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Ohh wow. Yes I didn't even realize it was a symmetric matrix. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Future Math person
Dec 22 '18 at 1:43
$begingroup$
@FutureMathperson: you are most welcome! And thanks for the "acceptance"!
$endgroup$
– Robert Lewis
Dec 22 '18 at 1:50
1
$begingroup$
It may be worth noting that we do know that $0$ is an eigenvalue for $C$. This is because $M^T:mathbb{R}^3 to mathbb{R}^2$ and thus has non-trivial kernel forcing $MM^T$ to have nontrivial kernel.
$endgroup$
– Dionel Jaime
Dec 22 '18 at 4:54
$begingroup$
@DionelJaime: right you are! Cheers!
$endgroup$
– Robert Lewis
Dec 22 '18 at 4:56
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Our OP Future Math person has correctly argued that $A$ and $B$ are diagonalizable, $A$ over $Bbb C$ and $B$ over $Bbb R$; in each case for the reason that the matrix has $3$ distinct eigenvalues, hence $3$ linearly independent eigenvectors.
So what about the case
$C = MM^T? tag 1$
here we don't know too much about the eigenvalues, but we may observe that
$C^T = (MM^T)^T = (M^T)^TM^T = MM^T; tag 2$
that is, $C$ is a real symmetric matrix; as such, it too may be diagonalized, whether or not the eigenvalues are distinct; that real symmetric matrices are diagonalizable is a well-known result.
$endgroup$
Our OP Future Math person has correctly argued that $A$ and $B$ are diagonalizable, $A$ over $Bbb C$ and $B$ over $Bbb R$; in each case for the reason that the matrix has $3$ distinct eigenvalues, hence $3$ linearly independent eigenvectors.
So what about the case
$C = MM^T? tag 1$
here we don't know too much about the eigenvalues, but we may observe that
$C^T = (MM^T)^T = (M^T)^TM^T = MM^T; tag 2$
that is, $C$ is a real symmetric matrix; as such, it too may be diagonalized, whether or not the eigenvalues are distinct; that real symmetric matrices are diagonalizable is a well-known result.
edited Dec 22 '18 at 1:52
answered Dec 22 '18 at 1:41
Robert LewisRobert Lewis
47.5k23067
47.5k23067
1
$begingroup$
Ohh wow. Yes I didn't even realize it was a symmetric matrix. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Future Math person
Dec 22 '18 at 1:43
$begingroup$
@FutureMathperson: you are most welcome! And thanks for the "acceptance"!
$endgroup$
– Robert Lewis
Dec 22 '18 at 1:50
1
$begingroup$
It may be worth noting that we do know that $0$ is an eigenvalue for $C$. This is because $M^T:mathbb{R}^3 to mathbb{R}^2$ and thus has non-trivial kernel forcing $MM^T$ to have nontrivial kernel.
$endgroup$
– Dionel Jaime
Dec 22 '18 at 4:54
$begingroup$
@DionelJaime: right you are! Cheers!
$endgroup$
– Robert Lewis
Dec 22 '18 at 4:56
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Ohh wow. Yes I didn't even realize it was a symmetric matrix. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Future Math person
Dec 22 '18 at 1:43
$begingroup$
@FutureMathperson: you are most welcome! And thanks for the "acceptance"!
$endgroup$
– Robert Lewis
Dec 22 '18 at 1:50
1
$begingroup$
It may be worth noting that we do know that $0$ is an eigenvalue for $C$. This is because $M^T:mathbb{R}^3 to mathbb{R}^2$ and thus has non-trivial kernel forcing $MM^T$ to have nontrivial kernel.
$endgroup$
– Dionel Jaime
Dec 22 '18 at 4:54
$begingroup$
@DionelJaime: right you are! Cheers!
$endgroup$
– Robert Lewis
Dec 22 '18 at 4:56
1
1
$begingroup$
Ohh wow. Yes I didn't even realize it was a symmetric matrix. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Future Math person
Dec 22 '18 at 1:43
$begingroup$
Ohh wow. Yes I didn't even realize it was a symmetric matrix. Thanks!
$endgroup$
– Future Math person
Dec 22 '18 at 1:43
$begingroup$
@FutureMathperson: you are most welcome! And thanks for the "acceptance"!
$endgroup$
– Robert Lewis
Dec 22 '18 at 1:50
$begingroup$
@FutureMathperson: you are most welcome! And thanks for the "acceptance"!
$endgroup$
– Robert Lewis
Dec 22 '18 at 1:50
1
1
$begingroup$
It may be worth noting that we do know that $0$ is an eigenvalue for $C$. This is because $M^T:mathbb{R}^3 to mathbb{R}^2$ and thus has non-trivial kernel forcing $MM^T$ to have nontrivial kernel.
$endgroup$
– Dionel Jaime
Dec 22 '18 at 4:54
$begingroup$
It may be worth noting that we do know that $0$ is an eigenvalue for $C$. This is because $M^T:mathbb{R}^3 to mathbb{R}^2$ and thus has non-trivial kernel forcing $MM^T$ to have nontrivial kernel.
$endgroup$
– Dionel Jaime
Dec 22 '18 at 4:54
$begingroup$
@DionelJaime: right you are! Cheers!
$endgroup$
– Robert Lewis
Dec 22 '18 at 4:56
$begingroup$
@DionelJaime: right you are! Cheers!
$endgroup$
– Robert Lewis
Dec 22 '18 at 4:56
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Well, $;A;$ can be diagonalized...but not over the real numbers, and you defined the matrices to be real...
$endgroup$
– DonAntonio
Dec 22 '18 at 1:30
$begingroup$
There was a statement saying for the complex eigenvalues, diagonalization is over the complex numbers.
$endgroup$
– Future Math person
Dec 22 '18 at 1:42