Explaining Defitions of Minkowski functional and Gauge Functional
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I'm having trouble understanding the definition of Minkowski functional.
Let $K$ be a symmetric (i.e. if it contains $x$ it also contains $-x$) convex body in a linear space $V$. We define a function $p$ on $V$ as
$$p(x) = inf { lambda in mathbb{R}_{> 0} : x in lambda K }$$
Where $p$ is called the Minkowski functional.
Lax's gives the defintion of gauge (with respect to origin) as follows:
If $K subset V$ is a convex set in a vector space with an interior point, the gauge $p_K$ is given by:
$$p_K(x) = inf a quad a>0,frac{x}{a} in K$$
I'm having trouble breaking down the definitions in "plain english". My attempt:
- Minkowski functional -- choose a point in $K$. Take all reals, $lambda$. $lambda K$ is then a "scaled version of $K$". $p(x)$ is the "smallest" $lambda$ such that $x$ is still in $lambda K$. If I think about a unit ball at the origin and $x$ being the origin, is $p(x) = 0$? The set of all $lambda$ , according to my understanding, will be all positive reals - the inf of which is zero.
- Gauge -- I'm getting mixed up by the effect of $a$ in the denominator.
functional-analysis soft-question convex-analysis
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$begingroup$
I'm having trouble understanding the definition of Minkowski functional.
Let $K$ be a symmetric (i.e. if it contains $x$ it also contains $-x$) convex body in a linear space $V$. We define a function $p$ on $V$ as
$$p(x) = inf { lambda in mathbb{R}_{> 0} : x in lambda K }$$
Where $p$ is called the Minkowski functional.
Lax's gives the defintion of gauge (with respect to origin) as follows:
If $K subset V$ is a convex set in a vector space with an interior point, the gauge $p_K$ is given by:
$$p_K(x) = inf a quad a>0,frac{x}{a} in K$$
I'm having trouble breaking down the definitions in "plain english". My attempt:
- Minkowski functional -- choose a point in $K$. Take all reals, $lambda$. $lambda K$ is then a "scaled version of $K$". $p(x)$ is the "smallest" $lambda$ such that $x$ is still in $lambda K$. If I think about a unit ball at the origin and $x$ being the origin, is $p(x) = 0$? The set of all $lambda$ , according to my understanding, will be all positive reals - the inf of which is zero.
- Gauge -- I'm getting mixed up by the effect of $a$ in the denominator.
functional-analysis soft-question convex-analysis
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm having trouble understanding the definition of Minkowski functional.
Let $K$ be a symmetric (i.e. if it contains $x$ it also contains $-x$) convex body in a linear space $V$. We define a function $p$ on $V$ as
$$p(x) = inf { lambda in mathbb{R}_{> 0} : x in lambda K }$$
Where $p$ is called the Minkowski functional.
Lax's gives the defintion of gauge (with respect to origin) as follows:
If $K subset V$ is a convex set in a vector space with an interior point, the gauge $p_K$ is given by:
$$p_K(x) = inf a quad a>0,frac{x}{a} in K$$
I'm having trouble breaking down the definitions in "plain english". My attempt:
- Minkowski functional -- choose a point in $K$. Take all reals, $lambda$. $lambda K$ is then a "scaled version of $K$". $p(x)$ is the "smallest" $lambda$ such that $x$ is still in $lambda K$. If I think about a unit ball at the origin and $x$ being the origin, is $p(x) = 0$? The set of all $lambda$ , according to my understanding, will be all positive reals - the inf of which is zero.
- Gauge -- I'm getting mixed up by the effect of $a$ in the denominator.
functional-analysis soft-question convex-analysis
$endgroup$
I'm having trouble understanding the definition of Minkowski functional.
Let $K$ be a symmetric (i.e. if it contains $x$ it also contains $-x$) convex body in a linear space $V$. We define a function $p$ on $V$ as
$$p(x) = inf { lambda in mathbb{R}_{> 0} : x in lambda K }$$
Where $p$ is called the Minkowski functional.
Lax's gives the defintion of gauge (with respect to origin) as follows:
If $K subset V$ is a convex set in a vector space with an interior point, the gauge $p_K$ is given by:
$$p_K(x) = inf a quad a>0,frac{x}{a} in K$$
I'm having trouble breaking down the definitions in "plain english". My attempt:
- Minkowski functional -- choose a point in $K$. Take all reals, $lambda$. $lambda K$ is then a "scaled version of $K$". $p(x)$ is the "smallest" $lambda$ such that $x$ is still in $lambda K$. If I think about a unit ball at the origin and $x$ being the origin, is $p(x) = 0$? The set of all $lambda$ , according to my understanding, will be all positive reals - the inf of which is zero.
- Gauge -- I'm getting mixed up by the effect of $a$ in the denominator.
functional-analysis soft-question convex-analysis
functional-analysis soft-question convex-analysis
asked Dec 22 '18 at 1:44
yoshiyoshi
1,242817
1,242817
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First of all, I think the key to the trouble of your understanding is the following relation:
$$ forall a>0; frac{x}{a} in K iff x in aK $$
So the definition you wrote for the Minkowski functional and the gauge Lax defines are essentially the same, note that you missed some key esssential properties: In the definition for the Minkowski functional you have the assume that $0 in K$ is an interior point (we call such sets absorbing), since only then every vector $v in V$ has some scalar small enough such that $v in lambda K$, otherwise the infimum maybe empty. The same thing goes for gauge: Lax explicitly mentions that he assumes the interior point is $0$.
Note that your intuition in 1) is reasoable (yes $p(0)=0$), but we are not only talking about points in $K$, but in the whole of $V$, this is used in the Geometric Version of the Hahn Banach Theorem for example.
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active
oldest
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$begingroup$
First of all, I think the key to the trouble of your understanding is the following relation:
$$ forall a>0; frac{x}{a} in K iff x in aK $$
So the definition you wrote for the Minkowski functional and the gauge Lax defines are essentially the same, note that you missed some key esssential properties: In the definition for the Minkowski functional you have the assume that $0 in K$ is an interior point (we call such sets absorbing), since only then every vector $v in V$ has some scalar small enough such that $v in lambda K$, otherwise the infimum maybe empty. The same thing goes for gauge: Lax explicitly mentions that he assumes the interior point is $0$.
Note that your intuition in 1) is reasoable (yes $p(0)=0$), but we are not only talking about points in $K$, but in the whole of $V$, this is used in the Geometric Version of the Hahn Banach Theorem for example.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
First of all, I think the key to the trouble of your understanding is the following relation:
$$ forall a>0; frac{x}{a} in K iff x in aK $$
So the definition you wrote for the Minkowski functional and the gauge Lax defines are essentially the same, note that you missed some key esssential properties: In the definition for the Minkowski functional you have the assume that $0 in K$ is an interior point (we call such sets absorbing), since only then every vector $v in V$ has some scalar small enough such that $v in lambda K$, otherwise the infimum maybe empty. The same thing goes for gauge: Lax explicitly mentions that he assumes the interior point is $0$.
Note that your intuition in 1) is reasoable (yes $p(0)=0$), but we are not only talking about points in $K$, but in the whole of $V$, this is used in the Geometric Version of the Hahn Banach Theorem for example.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
First of all, I think the key to the trouble of your understanding is the following relation:
$$ forall a>0; frac{x}{a} in K iff x in aK $$
So the definition you wrote for the Minkowski functional and the gauge Lax defines are essentially the same, note that you missed some key esssential properties: In the definition for the Minkowski functional you have the assume that $0 in K$ is an interior point (we call such sets absorbing), since only then every vector $v in V$ has some scalar small enough such that $v in lambda K$, otherwise the infimum maybe empty. The same thing goes for gauge: Lax explicitly mentions that he assumes the interior point is $0$.
Note that your intuition in 1) is reasoable (yes $p(0)=0$), but we are not only talking about points in $K$, but in the whole of $V$, this is used in the Geometric Version of the Hahn Banach Theorem for example.
$endgroup$
First of all, I think the key to the trouble of your understanding is the following relation:
$$ forall a>0; frac{x}{a} in K iff x in aK $$
So the definition you wrote for the Minkowski functional and the gauge Lax defines are essentially the same, note that you missed some key esssential properties: In the definition for the Minkowski functional you have the assume that $0 in K$ is an interior point (we call such sets absorbing), since only then every vector $v in V$ has some scalar small enough such that $v in lambda K$, otherwise the infimum maybe empty. The same thing goes for gauge: Lax explicitly mentions that he assumes the interior point is $0$.
Note that your intuition in 1) is reasoable (yes $p(0)=0$), but we are not only talking about points in $K$, but in the whole of $V$, this is used in the Geometric Version of the Hahn Banach Theorem for example.
answered Dec 22 '18 at 7:30
pitariverpitariver
454113
454113
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