Uncountability of the equivalence classes of $mathbb{R}/mathbb{Q}$












5












$begingroup$


Let $a,bin[0,1]$ and define the equivalence relation $sim$ by $asim biff a-binmathbb{Q}$. This relation partitions $[0,1]$ into equivalence classes where every class consists of a set of numbers which are equivalent under $sim$,



My textbook states (without proof):




The set $[0,1]/sim$ consists of uncountably many of these classes, where
each class consists of countably many members.




How can I formally prove this statement?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The classes are disjoint and each class is countable. If the the set of classes were countable, then the union of all classes would be ....., but $[0,1]$ is ....
    $endgroup$
    – Amr
    May 2 '13 at 19:52


















5












$begingroup$


Let $a,bin[0,1]$ and define the equivalence relation $sim$ by $asim biff a-binmathbb{Q}$. This relation partitions $[0,1]$ into equivalence classes where every class consists of a set of numbers which are equivalent under $sim$,



My textbook states (without proof):




The set $[0,1]/sim$ consists of uncountably many of these classes, where
each class consists of countably many members.




How can I formally prove this statement?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The classes are disjoint and each class is countable. If the the set of classes were countable, then the union of all classes would be ....., but $[0,1]$ is ....
    $endgroup$
    – Amr
    May 2 '13 at 19:52
















5












5








5


1



$begingroup$


Let $a,bin[0,1]$ and define the equivalence relation $sim$ by $asim biff a-binmathbb{Q}$. This relation partitions $[0,1]$ into equivalence classes where every class consists of a set of numbers which are equivalent under $sim$,



My textbook states (without proof):




The set $[0,1]/sim$ consists of uncountably many of these classes, where
each class consists of countably many members.




How can I formally prove this statement?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $a,bin[0,1]$ and define the equivalence relation $sim$ by $asim biff a-binmathbb{Q}$. This relation partitions $[0,1]$ into equivalence classes where every class consists of a set of numbers which are equivalent under $sim$,



My textbook states (without proof):




The set $[0,1]/sim$ consists of uncountably many of these classes, where
each class consists of countably many members.




How can I formally prove this statement?







elementary-set-theory equivalence-relations






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edited May 2 '13 at 19:52









Ross Millikan

300k24200374




300k24200374










asked May 2 '13 at 19:49









leoleo

261




261








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The classes are disjoint and each class is countable. If the the set of classes were countable, then the union of all classes would be ....., but $[0,1]$ is ....
    $endgroup$
    – Amr
    May 2 '13 at 19:52
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The classes are disjoint and each class is countable. If the the set of classes were countable, then the union of all classes would be ....., but $[0,1]$ is ....
    $endgroup$
    – Amr
    May 2 '13 at 19:52










1




1




$begingroup$
The classes are disjoint and each class is countable. If the the set of classes were countable, then the union of all classes would be ....., but $[0,1]$ is ....
$endgroup$
– Amr
May 2 '13 at 19:52






$begingroup$
The classes are disjoint and each class is countable. If the the set of classes were countable, then the union of all classes would be ....., but $[0,1]$ is ....
$endgroup$
– Amr
May 2 '13 at 19:52












2 Answers
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4












$begingroup$

If you know $Bbb Q$ is countable, that covers the second half. Then use the fact that a countable union of countable sets is again countable to show that there must be uncountably many classes.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    Given $a in [0,1]$, the class of $a$ is ${a + q : a+qin[0,1], qinmathbb Q}$, so this class has the cardinality $aleph_0$. Now suppose there are countably many classes. The union of countably many countable sets is again countable, so you obtain that $[0,1]$ is countable, which is a contradiction. So there are uncountably many classes of equivalence under ~.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      2 Answers
      2






      active

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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

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      active

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      active

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      4












      $begingroup$

      If you know $Bbb Q$ is countable, that covers the second half. Then use the fact that a countable union of countable sets is again countable to show that there must be uncountably many classes.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        4












        $begingroup$

        If you know $Bbb Q$ is countable, that covers the second half. Then use the fact that a countable union of countable sets is again countable to show that there must be uncountably many classes.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          4












          4








          4





          $begingroup$

          If you know $Bbb Q$ is countable, that covers the second half. Then use the fact that a countable union of countable sets is again countable to show that there must be uncountably many classes.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          If you know $Bbb Q$ is countable, that covers the second half. Then use the fact that a countable union of countable sets is again countable to show that there must be uncountably many classes.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered May 2 '13 at 19:53









          Ross MillikanRoss Millikan

          300k24200374




          300k24200374























              1












              $begingroup$

              Given $a in [0,1]$, the class of $a$ is ${a + q : a+qin[0,1], qinmathbb Q}$, so this class has the cardinality $aleph_0$. Now suppose there are countably many classes. The union of countably many countable sets is again countable, so you obtain that $[0,1]$ is countable, which is a contradiction. So there are uncountably many classes of equivalence under ~.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                1












                $begingroup$

                Given $a in [0,1]$, the class of $a$ is ${a + q : a+qin[0,1], qinmathbb Q}$, so this class has the cardinality $aleph_0$. Now suppose there are countably many classes. The union of countably many countable sets is again countable, so you obtain that $[0,1]$ is countable, which is a contradiction. So there are uncountably many classes of equivalence under ~.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  Given $a in [0,1]$, the class of $a$ is ${a + q : a+qin[0,1], qinmathbb Q}$, so this class has the cardinality $aleph_0$. Now suppose there are countably many classes. The union of countably many countable sets is again countable, so you obtain that $[0,1]$ is countable, which is a contradiction. So there are uncountably many classes of equivalence under ~.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Given $a in [0,1]$, the class of $a$ is ${a + q : a+qin[0,1], qinmathbb Q}$, so this class has the cardinality $aleph_0$. Now suppose there are countably many classes. The union of countably many countable sets is again countable, so you obtain that $[0,1]$ is countable, which is a contradiction. So there are uncountably many classes of equivalence under ~.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered May 2 '13 at 19:55









                  zarathustrazarathustra

                  4,15011029




                  4,15011029






























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