About question of fundamental theorem of arithmetic











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A product of nonzero integers whose absolute values are $<p$ will have the property that all its prime factors are $≤p−1$.



I know that Composite Number has Prime Factor not Greater Than its Square Root. But how this solve the above problem.










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    Use contradiction.
    – Math_QED
    Oct 30 at 14:08










  • How? can you explain it? @Math_QED
    – ninja hatori
    Oct 30 at 14:13

















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












A product of nonzero integers whose absolute values are $<p$ will have the property that all its prime factors are $≤p−1$.



I know that Composite Number has Prime Factor not Greater Than its Square Root. But how this solve the above problem.










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    Use contradiction.
    – Math_QED
    Oct 30 at 14:08










  • How? can you explain it? @Math_QED
    – ninja hatori
    Oct 30 at 14:13















up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











A product of nonzero integers whose absolute values are $<p$ will have the property that all its prime factors are $≤p−1$.



I know that Composite Number has Prime Factor not Greater Than its Square Root. But how this solve the above problem.










share|cite|improve this question













A product of nonzero integers whose absolute values are $<p$ will have the property that all its prime factors are $≤p−1$.



I know that Composite Number has Prime Factor not Greater Than its Square Root. But how this solve the above problem.







number-theory






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asked Oct 30 at 14:07









ninja hatori

5671421




5671421








  • 1




    Use contradiction.
    – Math_QED
    Oct 30 at 14:08










  • How? can you explain it? @Math_QED
    – ninja hatori
    Oct 30 at 14:13
















  • 1




    Use contradiction.
    – Math_QED
    Oct 30 at 14:08










  • How? can you explain it? @Math_QED
    – ninja hatori
    Oct 30 at 14:13










1




1




Use contradiction.
– Math_QED
Oct 30 at 14:08




Use contradiction.
– Math_QED
Oct 30 at 14:08












How? can you explain it? @Math_QED
– ninja hatori
Oct 30 at 14:13






How? can you explain it? @Math_QED
– ninja hatori
Oct 30 at 14:13












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It suffices to prove this for nonnegative numbers.
Note that $a, b < p implies a, b leq p-1$. Try to look at an equal factorization in power of primes (nonnegative exponents), and let $p_k$ be the greatest prime factor of either $a$ or $b$. Then by the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic, their products have the same greatest prime factor, which either satisfies $p_k = p-1$ or $p_k leq sqrt{p-1} leq p-1$. Hence all the prime factors $p_i$ are less or equal to $p-1$.






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    It suffices to prove this for nonnegative numbers.
    Note that $a, b < p implies a, b leq p-1$. Try to look at an equal factorization in power of primes (nonnegative exponents), and let $p_k$ be the greatest prime factor of either $a$ or $b$. Then by the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic, their products have the same greatest prime factor, which either satisfies $p_k = p-1$ or $p_k leq sqrt{p-1} leq p-1$. Hence all the prime factors $p_i$ are less or equal to $p-1$.






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      It suffices to prove this for nonnegative numbers.
      Note that $a, b < p implies a, b leq p-1$. Try to look at an equal factorization in power of primes (nonnegative exponents), and let $p_k$ be the greatest prime factor of either $a$ or $b$. Then by the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic, their products have the same greatest prime factor, which either satisfies $p_k = p-1$ or $p_k leq sqrt{p-1} leq p-1$. Hence all the prime factors $p_i$ are less or equal to $p-1$.






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        It suffices to prove this for nonnegative numbers.
        Note that $a, b < p implies a, b leq p-1$. Try to look at an equal factorization in power of primes (nonnegative exponents), and let $p_k$ be the greatest prime factor of either $a$ or $b$. Then by the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic, their products have the same greatest prime factor, which either satisfies $p_k = p-1$ or $p_k leq sqrt{p-1} leq p-1$. Hence all the prime factors $p_i$ are less or equal to $p-1$.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        It suffices to prove this for nonnegative numbers.
        Note that $a, b < p implies a, b leq p-1$. Try to look at an equal factorization in power of primes (nonnegative exponents), and let $p_k$ be the greatest prime factor of either $a$ or $b$. Then by the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic, their products have the same greatest prime factor, which either satisfies $p_k = p-1$ or $p_k leq sqrt{p-1} leq p-1$. Hence all the prime factors $p_i$ are less or equal to $p-1$.







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        edited Nov 27 at 15:04

























        answered Oct 30 at 14:48









        Lucas Henrique

        745313




        745313






























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