Do we have integral test for double series?











up vote
7
down vote

favorite
1












To determine convergence of
$$sum_{n=1}^infty a_n,$$
one can use the integral test if $f(n)=a_n$ satisfies certain properties.



Now, if I would like to determine convergence of double series
$$sum_{i=1}^infty sum_{j=1}^infty a_{ij},$$
do we have some 'integral test' for it?



I think one can evaluate
$$intint f(i,j),di,dj.$$










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  • 1




    You can treat the series in two steps, $b_i:=sum_j a_{ij}$, then $sum_i b_i$, each time testing convergence by your favorite method.
    – Yves Daoust
    Oct 16 at 6:41








  • 1




    Did you try the condition: "$f(x,y)$ is decreasing in each variable"?
    – GEdgar
    Oct 16 at 10:22










  • @GEdgar May I know how decreasing property of each variable helps in determining convergence of the double summations?
    – Idonknow
    Oct 18 at 12:06















up vote
7
down vote

favorite
1












To determine convergence of
$$sum_{n=1}^infty a_n,$$
one can use the integral test if $f(n)=a_n$ satisfies certain properties.



Now, if I would like to determine convergence of double series
$$sum_{i=1}^infty sum_{j=1}^infty a_{ij},$$
do we have some 'integral test' for it?



I think one can evaluate
$$intint f(i,j),di,dj.$$










share|cite|improve this question


















  • 1




    You can treat the series in two steps, $b_i:=sum_j a_{ij}$, then $sum_i b_i$, each time testing convergence by your favorite method.
    – Yves Daoust
    Oct 16 at 6:41








  • 1




    Did you try the condition: "$f(x,y)$ is decreasing in each variable"?
    – GEdgar
    Oct 16 at 10:22










  • @GEdgar May I know how decreasing property of each variable helps in determining convergence of the double summations?
    – Idonknow
    Oct 18 at 12:06













up vote
7
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
7
down vote

favorite
1






1





To determine convergence of
$$sum_{n=1}^infty a_n,$$
one can use the integral test if $f(n)=a_n$ satisfies certain properties.



Now, if I would like to determine convergence of double series
$$sum_{i=1}^infty sum_{j=1}^infty a_{ij},$$
do we have some 'integral test' for it?



I think one can evaluate
$$intint f(i,j),di,dj.$$










share|cite|improve this question













To determine convergence of
$$sum_{n=1}^infty a_n,$$
one can use the integral test if $f(n)=a_n$ satisfies certain properties.



Now, if I would like to determine convergence of double series
$$sum_{i=1}^infty sum_{j=1}^infty a_{ij},$$
do we have some 'integral test' for it?



I think one can evaluate
$$intint f(i,j),di,dj.$$







calculus real-analysis integration sequences-and-series






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share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Oct 16 at 6:26









Idonknow

2,277748111




2,277748111








  • 1




    You can treat the series in two steps, $b_i:=sum_j a_{ij}$, then $sum_i b_i$, each time testing convergence by your favorite method.
    – Yves Daoust
    Oct 16 at 6:41








  • 1




    Did you try the condition: "$f(x,y)$ is decreasing in each variable"?
    – GEdgar
    Oct 16 at 10:22










  • @GEdgar May I know how decreasing property of each variable helps in determining convergence of the double summations?
    – Idonknow
    Oct 18 at 12:06














  • 1




    You can treat the series in two steps, $b_i:=sum_j a_{ij}$, then $sum_i b_i$, each time testing convergence by your favorite method.
    – Yves Daoust
    Oct 16 at 6:41








  • 1




    Did you try the condition: "$f(x,y)$ is decreasing in each variable"?
    – GEdgar
    Oct 16 at 10:22










  • @GEdgar May I know how decreasing property of each variable helps in determining convergence of the double summations?
    – Idonknow
    Oct 18 at 12:06








1




1




You can treat the series in two steps, $b_i:=sum_j a_{ij}$, then $sum_i b_i$, each time testing convergence by your favorite method.
– Yves Daoust
Oct 16 at 6:41






You can treat the series in two steps, $b_i:=sum_j a_{ij}$, then $sum_i b_i$, each time testing convergence by your favorite method.
– Yves Daoust
Oct 16 at 6:41






1




1




Did you try the condition: "$f(x,y)$ is decreasing in each variable"?
– GEdgar
Oct 16 at 10:22




Did you try the condition: "$f(x,y)$ is decreasing in each variable"?
– GEdgar
Oct 16 at 10:22












@GEdgar May I know how decreasing property of each variable helps in determining convergence of the double summations?
– Idonknow
Oct 18 at 12:06




@GEdgar May I know how decreasing property of each variable helps in determining convergence of the double summations?
– Idonknow
Oct 18 at 12:06










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
4
down vote



+100










Let $f : [0,infty)times[0,infty) to [0,infty)$ be continuous, and satisfy
$$
x_1 < x_2 quad Longrightarrow quad f(x_1,y) ge f(x_2,y)
\
y_1 < y_2 quad Longrightarrow quad f(x,y_1) ge f(x,y_2).
$$

consider the two series
$$
sum_{i=0}^infty sum_{j=0}^infty f(i,j)
tag{1}$$

$$
sum_{i=1}^infty sum_{j=1}^infty f(i,j)
tag{$1'$}$$

and the integral
$$
int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx .
tag{2}$$



Note, because $f$ is nonnegative, (1), ($1'$) and (2) exist, but possibly equal $+infty$. So to say they "converge" means they have a finite value.



Now, given $i,j$, note that for all $x,y$ with $i le x le i+1, j le y le y+1$ we have
$$
f(i,j) ge f(x,y) ge f(i+1,j+1).
$$

therefore
$$
f(i,j) ge int_i^{i+1} int_j^{j+1} f(x,y);dy;dx ge f(i+1,j+1)
$$

Summing these, we get
$$
sum_{i=0}^inftysum_{j=0}^infty f(i,j) ge int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx
tag{3}$$

and
$$
int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx ge sum_{i=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^infty f(i,j)
tag{4}$$

So: we may use (3) to show: if (1) converges, then (2) converges. And we may use (4) to show: if (2) converges, then ($1'$) converges.



note

Those who like "simple" statments, may be disappointed. It is possible that (2) converges but (1) diverges because $sum_i f(i,0)$ and/or $sum_j f(0,j)$ diverge.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • So we have $ sum_{i=0}^inftysum_{j=0}^infty f(i,j) ge int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx ge sum_{i=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^infty f(i,j).$ Is it possible for one of the series to start at, say, $i=m$ and $j=n$ for some $m,ngeq 1?$
    – Idonknow
    Oct 19 at 14:48










  • Then start the integral at $x=m$ or $y=m$.
    – GEdgar
    Oct 19 at 16:29


















up vote
2
down vote













Define a function $f(x,y)$ such that $$f(i,j)=a_{ij}$$furthermore define $b_i=sum_{j=1}^{infty}f(i,j)$. This means that $$sum_{i=1}^{infty}b_i=sum_{i=1}^{infty}sum_{j=1}^{infty}f(i,j)$$is convergent iff $sum_{j=1}^{infty}f(x,j)$ is monotone decreasing (a sufficient condition is $f(x_1,y)ge f(x_2,y)$ when $x_1le x_2$) and $$int_{1}^{infty}sum_{j=1}^{infty}f(x,j)dx=sum_{j=1}^{infty}int_{1}^{infty}f(x,j)dx$$finally by defining $c_n=int_{1}^{infty}f(x,n)dx$, the summation $sum_{1}^{infty}c_n$ is bounded iff $$int_{1}^{infty}f(x,y)dx$$ is monotone decreasing over $y$ (with a similar sufficient condition) and $$int_{1}^{infty}int_{1}^{infty}f(x,y)dxdy$$is bounded.






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    up vote
    2
    down vote













    If $f(t,x)$ is continuous in $D=[1,infty)times[1,infty)$. Also if $f(t,x)$ is non increasing in $D$ meaning that if $t_1,t_2,x_1,x_2in D$
    $$
    t_1<t_2Rightarrow f(t_1,x)geq f(t_2,x)textrm{, }forall x in D
    $$

    $$
    x_1<x_2Rightarrow f(t,x_1)geq f(t,x_2)textrm{, }forall tin D
    $$

    If we assume also that
    $$
    f(n,m)rightarrow 0textrm{ as }n,mrightarrow inftytag 1
    $$

    and
    $$
    sum^{n}_{i=1}f(i,1)textrm{, }sum^{m}_{j=1}f(1,j)tag 2
    $$

    $$
    sum^{n}_{i=1}f(i,m)textrm{, }sum^{m}_{j=1}f(n,j) tag 3
    $$


    are bounded for all both $n,m>>1$ positive integers, then exists constant$-C$ such that
    $$
    sum^{n,m}_{i,j=2}f(i,j)=int^{n}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt+C+o(1)textrm{, as both }n,mrightarrowinfty.tag 4
    $$

    Proof.



    Easily using the monotonicity of $f$ we find



    $$
    int^{i+1}_{i}int^{j+1}_{j}(f(t,x)-f(i+1,j+1))dxdtgeq0
    $$

    and
    $$
    int^{i+1}_{i}int^{j+1}_{j}(f(t,x)-f(i,j))dxdtleq0
    $$

    Hence
    $$
    sum^{n}_{i=2}sum^{m}_{j=2}f(i,j)leq int^{n}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdtleqsum^{n-1}_{i=1}sum^{m-1}_{j=1}f(i,j)
    $$

    Hence if we set
    $$
    k_{n,m}:=int^{n}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt-sum^{n}_{i=2}sum^{m}_{j=2}f(i,j),
    $$

    then
    $$
    0leq k_{n,m}leq -f(1,1)+f(n,m)+sum^{n}_{i=1}f(i,1)+sum^{m}_{j=1}f(1,j)-sum^{n}_{i=1}f(i,m)-sum^{m}_{j=1}f(n,j).
    $$

    Also
    $$
    k_{n+1,m}-k_{n,m}=int^{n+1}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt-sum^{n+1}_{i=2}sum^{m}_{j=2}f(i,j)-
    $$

    $$
    -left(int^{n}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt-sum^{n}_{i=2}sum^{m}_{j=2}f(i,j)right)=
    $$

    $$
    =int^{n+1}_{n}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt-sum^{m}_{j=2}f(n+1,j)=
    $$

    $$
    =int^{n+1}_{n}left(sum^{m}_{j=2}int^{j}_{j-1}left(f(t,x)-f(n+1,j)right)dxright)dt=
    $$

    $$
    =int^{n+1}_{n}left(sum^{m}_{j=2}int^{j}_{j-1}left| f(t,x)-f(n+1,j)right|dxright)dtgeq 0.
    $$

    Hence $k_{n+1,m}geq k_{n,m}$, for all $n,m$ positive integers. In the same way $k_{n,m+1}geq k_{n,m}$, for all $n,m$ positive integers.



    Hence the double sequence $k_{n,m}$ is monotonic and bounded. Hence it must be convergent. From this we get $(4)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer























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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      4
      down vote



      +100










      Let $f : [0,infty)times[0,infty) to [0,infty)$ be continuous, and satisfy
      $$
      x_1 < x_2 quad Longrightarrow quad f(x_1,y) ge f(x_2,y)
      \
      y_1 < y_2 quad Longrightarrow quad f(x,y_1) ge f(x,y_2).
      $$

      consider the two series
      $$
      sum_{i=0}^infty sum_{j=0}^infty f(i,j)
      tag{1}$$

      $$
      sum_{i=1}^infty sum_{j=1}^infty f(i,j)
      tag{$1'$}$$

      and the integral
      $$
      int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx .
      tag{2}$$



      Note, because $f$ is nonnegative, (1), ($1'$) and (2) exist, but possibly equal $+infty$. So to say they "converge" means they have a finite value.



      Now, given $i,j$, note that for all $x,y$ with $i le x le i+1, j le y le y+1$ we have
      $$
      f(i,j) ge f(x,y) ge f(i+1,j+1).
      $$

      therefore
      $$
      f(i,j) ge int_i^{i+1} int_j^{j+1} f(x,y);dy;dx ge f(i+1,j+1)
      $$

      Summing these, we get
      $$
      sum_{i=0}^inftysum_{j=0}^infty f(i,j) ge int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx
      tag{3}$$

      and
      $$
      int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx ge sum_{i=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^infty f(i,j)
      tag{4}$$

      So: we may use (3) to show: if (1) converges, then (2) converges. And we may use (4) to show: if (2) converges, then ($1'$) converges.



      note

      Those who like "simple" statments, may be disappointed. It is possible that (2) converges but (1) diverges because $sum_i f(i,0)$ and/or $sum_j f(0,j)$ diverge.






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • So we have $ sum_{i=0}^inftysum_{j=0}^infty f(i,j) ge int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx ge sum_{i=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^infty f(i,j).$ Is it possible for one of the series to start at, say, $i=m$ and $j=n$ for some $m,ngeq 1?$
        – Idonknow
        Oct 19 at 14:48










      • Then start the integral at $x=m$ or $y=m$.
        – GEdgar
        Oct 19 at 16:29















      up vote
      4
      down vote



      +100










      Let $f : [0,infty)times[0,infty) to [0,infty)$ be continuous, and satisfy
      $$
      x_1 < x_2 quad Longrightarrow quad f(x_1,y) ge f(x_2,y)
      \
      y_1 < y_2 quad Longrightarrow quad f(x,y_1) ge f(x,y_2).
      $$

      consider the two series
      $$
      sum_{i=0}^infty sum_{j=0}^infty f(i,j)
      tag{1}$$

      $$
      sum_{i=1}^infty sum_{j=1}^infty f(i,j)
      tag{$1'$}$$

      and the integral
      $$
      int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx .
      tag{2}$$



      Note, because $f$ is nonnegative, (1), ($1'$) and (2) exist, but possibly equal $+infty$. So to say they "converge" means they have a finite value.



      Now, given $i,j$, note that for all $x,y$ with $i le x le i+1, j le y le y+1$ we have
      $$
      f(i,j) ge f(x,y) ge f(i+1,j+1).
      $$

      therefore
      $$
      f(i,j) ge int_i^{i+1} int_j^{j+1} f(x,y);dy;dx ge f(i+1,j+1)
      $$

      Summing these, we get
      $$
      sum_{i=0}^inftysum_{j=0}^infty f(i,j) ge int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx
      tag{3}$$

      and
      $$
      int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx ge sum_{i=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^infty f(i,j)
      tag{4}$$

      So: we may use (3) to show: if (1) converges, then (2) converges. And we may use (4) to show: if (2) converges, then ($1'$) converges.



      note

      Those who like "simple" statments, may be disappointed. It is possible that (2) converges but (1) diverges because $sum_i f(i,0)$ and/or $sum_j f(0,j)$ diverge.






      share|cite|improve this answer





















      • So we have $ sum_{i=0}^inftysum_{j=0}^infty f(i,j) ge int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx ge sum_{i=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^infty f(i,j).$ Is it possible for one of the series to start at, say, $i=m$ and $j=n$ for some $m,ngeq 1?$
        – Idonknow
        Oct 19 at 14:48










      • Then start the integral at $x=m$ or $y=m$.
        – GEdgar
        Oct 19 at 16:29













      up vote
      4
      down vote



      +100







      up vote
      4
      down vote



      +100




      +100




      Let $f : [0,infty)times[0,infty) to [0,infty)$ be continuous, and satisfy
      $$
      x_1 < x_2 quad Longrightarrow quad f(x_1,y) ge f(x_2,y)
      \
      y_1 < y_2 quad Longrightarrow quad f(x,y_1) ge f(x,y_2).
      $$

      consider the two series
      $$
      sum_{i=0}^infty sum_{j=0}^infty f(i,j)
      tag{1}$$

      $$
      sum_{i=1}^infty sum_{j=1}^infty f(i,j)
      tag{$1'$}$$

      and the integral
      $$
      int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx .
      tag{2}$$



      Note, because $f$ is nonnegative, (1), ($1'$) and (2) exist, but possibly equal $+infty$. So to say they "converge" means they have a finite value.



      Now, given $i,j$, note that for all $x,y$ with $i le x le i+1, j le y le y+1$ we have
      $$
      f(i,j) ge f(x,y) ge f(i+1,j+1).
      $$

      therefore
      $$
      f(i,j) ge int_i^{i+1} int_j^{j+1} f(x,y);dy;dx ge f(i+1,j+1)
      $$

      Summing these, we get
      $$
      sum_{i=0}^inftysum_{j=0}^infty f(i,j) ge int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx
      tag{3}$$

      and
      $$
      int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx ge sum_{i=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^infty f(i,j)
      tag{4}$$

      So: we may use (3) to show: if (1) converges, then (2) converges. And we may use (4) to show: if (2) converges, then ($1'$) converges.



      note

      Those who like "simple" statments, may be disappointed. It is possible that (2) converges but (1) diverges because $sum_i f(i,0)$ and/or $sum_j f(0,j)$ diverge.






      share|cite|improve this answer












      Let $f : [0,infty)times[0,infty) to [0,infty)$ be continuous, and satisfy
      $$
      x_1 < x_2 quad Longrightarrow quad f(x_1,y) ge f(x_2,y)
      \
      y_1 < y_2 quad Longrightarrow quad f(x,y_1) ge f(x,y_2).
      $$

      consider the two series
      $$
      sum_{i=0}^infty sum_{j=0}^infty f(i,j)
      tag{1}$$

      $$
      sum_{i=1}^infty sum_{j=1}^infty f(i,j)
      tag{$1'$}$$

      and the integral
      $$
      int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx .
      tag{2}$$



      Note, because $f$ is nonnegative, (1), ($1'$) and (2) exist, but possibly equal $+infty$. So to say they "converge" means they have a finite value.



      Now, given $i,j$, note that for all $x,y$ with $i le x le i+1, j le y le y+1$ we have
      $$
      f(i,j) ge f(x,y) ge f(i+1,j+1).
      $$

      therefore
      $$
      f(i,j) ge int_i^{i+1} int_j^{j+1} f(x,y);dy;dx ge f(i+1,j+1)
      $$

      Summing these, we get
      $$
      sum_{i=0}^inftysum_{j=0}^infty f(i,j) ge int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx
      tag{3}$$

      and
      $$
      int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx ge sum_{i=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^infty f(i,j)
      tag{4}$$

      So: we may use (3) to show: if (1) converges, then (2) converges. And we may use (4) to show: if (2) converges, then ($1'$) converges.



      note

      Those who like "simple" statments, may be disappointed. It is possible that (2) converges but (1) diverges because $sum_i f(i,0)$ and/or $sum_j f(0,j)$ diverge.







      share|cite|improve this answer












      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer










      answered Oct 18 at 12:40









      GEdgar

      61.4k267167




      61.4k267167












      • So we have $ sum_{i=0}^inftysum_{j=0}^infty f(i,j) ge int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx ge sum_{i=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^infty f(i,j).$ Is it possible for one of the series to start at, say, $i=m$ and $j=n$ for some $m,ngeq 1?$
        – Idonknow
        Oct 19 at 14:48










      • Then start the integral at $x=m$ or $y=m$.
        – GEdgar
        Oct 19 at 16:29


















      • So we have $ sum_{i=0}^inftysum_{j=0}^infty f(i,j) ge int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx ge sum_{i=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^infty f(i,j).$ Is it possible for one of the series to start at, say, $i=m$ and $j=n$ for some $m,ngeq 1?$
        – Idonknow
        Oct 19 at 14:48










      • Then start the integral at $x=m$ or $y=m$.
        – GEdgar
        Oct 19 at 16:29
















      So we have $ sum_{i=0}^inftysum_{j=0}^infty f(i,j) ge int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx ge sum_{i=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^infty f(i,j).$ Is it possible for one of the series to start at, say, $i=m$ and $j=n$ for some $m,ngeq 1?$
      – Idonknow
      Oct 19 at 14:48




      So we have $ sum_{i=0}^inftysum_{j=0}^infty f(i,j) ge int_0^infty int_0^infty f(x,y);dy;dx ge sum_{i=1}^inftysum_{j=1}^infty f(i,j).$ Is it possible for one of the series to start at, say, $i=m$ and $j=n$ for some $m,ngeq 1?$
      – Idonknow
      Oct 19 at 14:48












      Then start the integral at $x=m$ or $y=m$.
      – GEdgar
      Oct 19 at 16:29




      Then start the integral at $x=m$ or $y=m$.
      – GEdgar
      Oct 19 at 16:29










      up vote
      2
      down vote













      Define a function $f(x,y)$ such that $$f(i,j)=a_{ij}$$furthermore define $b_i=sum_{j=1}^{infty}f(i,j)$. This means that $$sum_{i=1}^{infty}b_i=sum_{i=1}^{infty}sum_{j=1}^{infty}f(i,j)$$is convergent iff $sum_{j=1}^{infty}f(x,j)$ is monotone decreasing (a sufficient condition is $f(x_1,y)ge f(x_2,y)$ when $x_1le x_2$) and $$int_{1}^{infty}sum_{j=1}^{infty}f(x,j)dx=sum_{j=1}^{infty}int_{1}^{infty}f(x,j)dx$$finally by defining $c_n=int_{1}^{infty}f(x,n)dx$, the summation $sum_{1}^{infty}c_n$ is bounded iff $$int_{1}^{infty}f(x,y)dx$$ is monotone decreasing over $y$ (with a similar sufficient condition) and $$int_{1}^{infty}int_{1}^{infty}f(x,y)dxdy$$is bounded.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        2
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        Define a function $f(x,y)$ such that $$f(i,j)=a_{ij}$$furthermore define $b_i=sum_{j=1}^{infty}f(i,j)$. This means that $$sum_{i=1}^{infty}b_i=sum_{i=1}^{infty}sum_{j=1}^{infty}f(i,j)$$is convergent iff $sum_{j=1}^{infty}f(x,j)$ is monotone decreasing (a sufficient condition is $f(x_1,y)ge f(x_2,y)$ when $x_1le x_2$) and $$int_{1}^{infty}sum_{j=1}^{infty}f(x,j)dx=sum_{j=1}^{infty}int_{1}^{infty}f(x,j)dx$$finally by defining $c_n=int_{1}^{infty}f(x,n)dx$, the summation $sum_{1}^{infty}c_n$ is bounded iff $$int_{1}^{infty}f(x,y)dx$$ is monotone decreasing over $y$ (with a similar sufficient condition) and $$int_{1}^{infty}int_{1}^{infty}f(x,y)dxdy$$is bounded.






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
          2
          down vote










          up vote
          2
          down vote









          Define a function $f(x,y)$ such that $$f(i,j)=a_{ij}$$furthermore define $b_i=sum_{j=1}^{infty}f(i,j)$. This means that $$sum_{i=1}^{infty}b_i=sum_{i=1}^{infty}sum_{j=1}^{infty}f(i,j)$$is convergent iff $sum_{j=1}^{infty}f(x,j)$ is monotone decreasing (a sufficient condition is $f(x_1,y)ge f(x_2,y)$ when $x_1le x_2$) and $$int_{1}^{infty}sum_{j=1}^{infty}f(x,j)dx=sum_{j=1}^{infty}int_{1}^{infty}f(x,j)dx$$finally by defining $c_n=int_{1}^{infty}f(x,n)dx$, the summation $sum_{1}^{infty}c_n$ is bounded iff $$int_{1}^{infty}f(x,y)dx$$ is monotone decreasing over $y$ (with a similar sufficient condition) and $$int_{1}^{infty}int_{1}^{infty}f(x,y)dxdy$$is bounded.






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Define a function $f(x,y)$ such that $$f(i,j)=a_{ij}$$furthermore define $b_i=sum_{j=1}^{infty}f(i,j)$. This means that $$sum_{i=1}^{infty}b_i=sum_{i=1}^{infty}sum_{j=1}^{infty}f(i,j)$$is convergent iff $sum_{j=1}^{infty}f(x,j)$ is monotone decreasing (a sufficient condition is $f(x_1,y)ge f(x_2,y)$ when $x_1le x_2$) and $$int_{1}^{infty}sum_{j=1}^{infty}f(x,j)dx=sum_{j=1}^{infty}int_{1}^{infty}f(x,j)dx$$finally by defining $c_n=int_{1}^{infty}f(x,n)dx$, the summation $sum_{1}^{infty}c_n$ is bounded iff $$int_{1}^{infty}f(x,y)dx$$ is monotone decreasing over $y$ (with a similar sufficient condition) and $$int_{1}^{infty}int_{1}^{infty}f(x,y)dxdy$$is bounded.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Oct 22 at 15:52









          Mostafa Ayaz

          13.6k3836




          13.6k3836






















              up vote
              2
              down vote













              If $f(t,x)$ is continuous in $D=[1,infty)times[1,infty)$. Also if $f(t,x)$ is non increasing in $D$ meaning that if $t_1,t_2,x_1,x_2in D$
              $$
              t_1<t_2Rightarrow f(t_1,x)geq f(t_2,x)textrm{, }forall x in D
              $$

              $$
              x_1<x_2Rightarrow f(t,x_1)geq f(t,x_2)textrm{, }forall tin D
              $$

              If we assume also that
              $$
              f(n,m)rightarrow 0textrm{ as }n,mrightarrow inftytag 1
              $$

              and
              $$
              sum^{n}_{i=1}f(i,1)textrm{, }sum^{m}_{j=1}f(1,j)tag 2
              $$

              $$
              sum^{n}_{i=1}f(i,m)textrm{, }sum^{m}_{j=1}f(n,j) tag 3
              $$


              are bounded for all both $n,m>>1$ positive integers, then exists constant$-C$ such that
              $$
              sum^{n,m}_{i,j=2}f(i,j)=int^{n}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt+C+o(1)textrm{, as both }n,mrightarrowinfty.tag 4
              $$

              Proof.



              Easily using the monotonicity of $f$ we find



              $$
              int^{i+1}_{i}int^{j+1}_{j}(f(t,x)-f(i+1,j+1))dxdtgeq0
              $$

              and
              $$
              int^{i+1}_{i}int^{j+1}_{j}(f(t,x)-f(i,j))dxdtleq0
              $$

              Hence
              $$
              sum^{n}_{i=2}sum^{m}_{j=2}f(i,j)leq int^{n}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdtleqsum^{n-1}_{i=1}sum^{m-1}_{j=1}f(i,j)
              $$

              Hence if we set
              $$
              k_{n,m}:=int^{n}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt-sum^{n}_{i=2}sum^{m}_{j=2}f(i,j),
              $$

              then
              $$
              0leq k_{n,m}leq -f(1,1)+f(n,m)+sum^{n}_{i=1}f(i,1)+sum^{m}_{j=1}f(1,j)-sum^{n}_{i=1}f(i,m)-sum^{m}_{j=1}f(n,j).
              $$

              Also
              $$
              k_{n+1,m}-k_{n,m}=int^{n+1}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt-sum^{n+1}_{i=2}sum^{m}_{j=2}f(i,j)-
              $$

              $$
              -left(int^{n}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt-sum^{n}_{i=2}sum^{m}_{j=2}f(i,j)right)=
              $$

              $$
              =int^{n+1}_{n}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt-sum^{m}_{j=2}f(n+1,j)=
              $$

              $$
              =int^{n+1}_{n}left(sum^{m}_{j=2}int^{j}_{j-1}left(f(t,x)-f(n+1,j)right)dxright)dt=
              $$

              $$
              =int^{n+1}_{n}left(sum^{m}_{j=2}int^{j}_{j-1}left| f(t,x)-f(n+1,j)right|dxright)dtgeq 0.
              $$

              Hence $k_{n+1,m}geq k_{n,m}$, for all $n,m$ positive integers. In the same way $k_{n,m+1}geq k_{n,m}$, for all $n,m$ positive integers.



              Hence the double sequence $k_{n,m}$ is monotonic and bounded. Hence it must be convergent. From this we get $(4)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer



























                up vote
                2
                down vote













                If $f(t,x)$ is continuous in $D=[1,infty)times[1,infty)$. Also if $f(t,x)$ is non increasing in $D$ meaning that if $t_1,t_2,x_1,x_2in D$
                $$
                t_1<t_2Rightarrow f(t_1,x)geq f(t_2,x)textrm{, }forall x in D
                $$

                $$
                x_1<x_2Rightarrow f(t,x_1)geq f(t,x_2)textrm{, }forall tin D
                $$

                If we assume also that
                $$
                f(n,m)rightarrow 0textrm{ as }n,mrightarrow inftytag 1
                $$

                and
                $$
                sum^{n}_{i=1}f(i,1)textrm{, }sum^{m}_{j=1}f(1,j)tag 2
                $$

                $$
                sum^{n}_{i=1}f(i,m)textrm{, }sum^{m}_{j=1}f(n,j) tag 3
                $$


                are bounded for all both $n,m>>1$ positive integers, then exists constant$-C$ such that
                $$
                sum^{n,m}_{i,j=2}f(i,j)=int^{n}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt+C+o(1)textrm{, as both }n,mrightarrowinfty.tag 4
                $$

                Proof.



                Easily using the monotonicity of $f$ we find



                $$
                int^{i+1}_{i}int^{j+1}_{j}(f(t,x)-f(i+1,j+1))dxdtgeq0
                $$

                and
                $$
                int^{i+1}_{i}int^{j+1}_{j}(f(t,x)-f(i,j))dxdtleq0
                $$

                Hence
                $$
                sum^{n}_{i=2}sum^{m}_{j=2}f(i,j)leq int^{n}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdtleqsum^{n-1}_{i=1}sum^{m-1}_{j=1}f(i,j)
                $$

                Hence if we set
                $$
                k_{n,m}:=int^{n}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt-sum^{n}_{i=2}sum^{m}_{j=2}f(i,j),
                $$

                then
                $$
                0leq k_{n,m}leq -f(1,1)+f(n,m)+sum^{n}_{i=1}f(i,1)+sum^{m}_{j=1}f(1,j)-sum^{n}_{i=1}f(i,m)-sum^{m}_{j=1}f(n,j).
                $$

                Also
                $$
                k_{n+1,m}-k_{n,m}=int^{n+1}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt-sum^{n+1}_{i=2}sum^{m}_{j=2}f(i,j)-
                $$

                $$
                -left(int^{n}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt-sum^{n}_{i=2}sum^{m}_{j=2}f(i,j)right)=
                $$

                $$
                =int^{n+1}_{n}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt-sum^{m}_{j=2}f(n+1,j)=
                $$

                $$
                =int^{n+1}_{n}left(sum^{m}_{j=2}int^{j}_{j-1}left(f(t,x)-f(n+1,j)right)dxright)dt=
                $$

                $$
                =int^{n+1}_{n}left(sum^{m}_{j=2}int^{j}_{j-1}left| f(t,x)-f(n+1,j)right|dxright)dtgeq 0.
                $$

                Hence $k_{n+1,m}geq k_{n,m}$, for all $n,m$ positive integers. In the same way $k_{n,m+1}geq k_{n,m}$, for all $n,m$ positive integers.



                Hence the double sequence $k_{n,m}$ is monotonic and bounded. Hence it must be convergent. From this we get $(4)$.






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote









                  If $f(t,x)$ is continuous in $D=[1,infty)times[1,infty)$. Also if $f(t,x)$ is non increasing in $D$ meaning that if $t_1,t_2,x_1,x_2in D$
                  $$
                  t_1<t_2Rightarrow f(t_1,x)geq f(t_2,x)textrm{, }forall x in D
                  $$

                  $$
                  x_1<x_2Rightarrow f(t,x_1)geq f(t,x_2)textrm{, }forall tin D
                  $$

                  If we assume also that
                  $$
                  f(n,m)rightarrow 0textrm{ as }n,mrightarrow inftytag 1
                  $$

                  and
                  $$
                  sum^{n}_{i=1}f(i,1)textrm{, }sum^{m}_{j=1}f(1,j)tag 2
                  $$

                  $$
                  sum^{n}_{i=1}f(i,m)textrm{, }sum^{m}_{j=1}f(n,j) tag 3
                  $$


                  are bounded for all both $n,m>>1$ positive integers, then exists constant$-C$ such that
                  $$
                  sum^{n,m}_{i,j=2}f(i,j)=int^{n}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt+C+o(1)textrm{, as both }n,mrightarrowinfty.tag 4
                  $$

                  Proof.



                  Easily using the monotonicity of $f$ we find



                  $$
                  int^{i+1}_{i}int^{j+1}_{j}(f(t,x)-f(i+1,j+1))dxdtgeq0
                  $$

                  and
                  $$
                  int^{i+1}_{i}int^{j+1}_{j}(f(t,x)-f(i,j))dxdtleq0
                  $$

                  Hence
                  $$
                  sum^{n}_{i=2}sum^{m}_{j=2}f(i,j)leq int^{n}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdtleqsum^{n-1}_{i=1}sum^{m-1}_{j=1}f(i,j)
                  $$

                  Hence if we set
                  $$
                  k_{n,m}:=int^{n}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt-sum^{n}_{i=2}sum^{m}_{j=2}f(i,j),
                  $$

                  then
                  $$
                  0leq k_{n,m}leq -f(1,1)+f(n,m)+sum^{n}_{i=1}f(i,1)+sum^{m}_{j=1}f(1,j)-sum^{n}_{i=1}f(i,m)-sum^{m}_{j=1}f(n,j).
                  $$

                  Also
                  $$
                  k_{n+1,m}-k_{n,m}=int^{n+1}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt-sum^{n+1}_{i=2}sum^{m}_{j=2}f(i,j)-
                  $$

                  $$
                  -left(int^{n}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt-sum^{n}_{i=2}sum^{m}_{j=2}f(i,j)right)=
                  $$

                  $$
                  =int^{n+1}_{n}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt-sum^{m}_{j=2}f(n+1,j)=
                  $$

                  $$
                  =int^{n+1}_{n}left(sum^{m}_{j=2}int^{j}_{j-1}left(f(t,x)-f(n+1,j)right)dxright)dt=
                  $$

                  $$
                  =int^{n+1}_{n}left(sum^{m}_{j=2}int^{j}_{j-1}left| f(t,x)-f(n+1,j)right|dxright)dtgeq 0.
                  $$

                  Hence $k_{n+1,m}geq k_{n,m}$, for all $n,m$ positive integers. In the same way $k_{n,m+1}geq k_{n,m}$, for all $n,m$ positive integers.



                  Hence the double sequence $k_{n,m}$ is monotonic and bounded. Hence it must be convergent. From this we get $(4)$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  If $f(t,x)$ is continuous in $D=[1,infty)times[1,infty)$. Also if $f(t,x)$ is non increasing in $D$ meaning that if $t_1,t_2,x_1,x_2in D$
                  $$
                  t_1<t_2Rightarrow f(t_1,x)geq f(t_2,x)textrm{, }forall x in D
                  $$

                  $$
                  x_1<x_2Rightarrow f(t,x_1)geq f(t,x_2)textrm{, }forall tin D
                  $$

                  If we assume also that
                  $$
                  f(n,m)rightarrow 0textrm{ as }n,mrightarrow inftytag 1
                  $$

                  and
                  $$
                  sum^{n}_{i=1}f(i,1)textrm{, }sum^{m}_{j=1}f(1,j)tag 2
                  $$

                  $$
                  sum^{n}_{i=1}f(i,m)textrm{, }sum^{m}_{j=1}f(n,j) tag 3
                  $$


                  are bounded for all both $n,m>>1$ positive integers, then exists constant$-C$ such that
                  $$
                  sum^{n,m}_{i,j=2}f(i,j)=int^{n}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt+C+o(1)textrm{, as both }n,mrightarrowinfty.tag 4
                  $$

                  Proof.



                  Easily using the monotonicity of $f$ we find



                  $$
                  int^{i+1}_{i}int^{j+1}_{j}(f(t,x)-f(i+1,j+1))dxdtgeq0
                  $$

                  and
                  $$
                  int^{i+1}_{i}int^{j+1}_{j}(f(t,x)-f(i,j))dxdtleq0
                  $$

                  Hence
                  $$
                  sum^{n}_{i=2}sum^{m}_{j=2}f(i,j)leq int^{n}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdtleqsum^{n-1}_{i=1}sum^{m-1}_{j=1}f(i,j)
                  $$

                  Hence if we set
                  $$
                  k_{n,m}:=int^{n}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt-sum^{n}_{i=2}sum^{m}_{j=2}f(i,j),
                  $$

                  then
                  $$
                  0leq k_{n,m}leq -f(1,1)+f(n,m)+sum^{n}_{i=1}f(i,1)+sum^{m}_{j=1}f(1,j)-sum^{n}_{i=1}f(i,m)-sum^{m}_{j=1}f(n,j).
                  $$

                  Also
                  $$
                  k_{n+1,m}-k_{n,m}=int^{n+1}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt-sum^{n+1}_{i=2}sum^{m}_{j=2}f(i,j)-
                  $$

                  $$
                  -left(int^{n}_{1}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt-sum^{n}_{i=2}sum^{m}_{j=2}f(i,j)right)=
                  $$

                  $$
                  =int^{n+1}_{n}int^{m}_{1}f(t,x)dxdt-sum^{m}_{j=2}f(n+1,j)=
                  $$

                  $$
                  =int^{n+1}_{n}left(sum^{m}_{j=2}int^{j}_{j-1}left(f(t,x)-f(n+1,j)right)dxright)dt=
                  $$

                  $$
                  =int^{n+1}_{n}left(sum^{m}_{j=2}int^{j}_{j-1}left| f(t,x)-f(n+1,j)right|dxright)dtgeq 0.
                  $$

                  Hence $k_{n+1,m}geq k_{n,m}$, for all $n,m$ positive integers. In the same way $k_{n,m+1}geq k_{n,m}$, for all $n,m$ positive integers.



                  Hence the double sequence $k_{n,m}$ is monotonic and bounded. Hence it must be convergent. From this we get $(4)$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Nov 26 at 20:30

























                  answered Oct 27 at 9:55









                  Nikos Bagis

                  2,157312




                  2,157312






























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