Show $mathbb{CP^2/CP^1}$ is not a retract of $mathbb{CP^4/CP^1}$.
So, I have shown that the natural projection $picolon mathbb{CP^n}rightarrow mathbb{CP^n/CP^k}$ induces a monomorphism $pi^*colon H^*(mathbb{CP^n/CP^k},mathbb Z)rightarrow H^*(mathbb{CP^n},mathbb Z) $. I would like to use this and the cohomology ring structure to show that we can't have a retract, but I am not exactly sure what the ring structure of $mathbb{CP^2/CP^1}$ and $mathbb{CP^4/CP^1}$ are.
I know that $H^*(mathbb{CP^n},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma]/(gamma^{n+1})$, where $|gamma|=2$, so is $H^*(mathbb{CP^n/CP^k},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma^{k+1},ldots ,gamma^{n}]/(gamma^{n+1})$?
This would give me $H^*(mathbb{CP^2/CP^1},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma^{2}]/(gamma^{4})$ and $pi^*(gamma^2)neq 0 in H^*(mathbb{CP^4/CP^1},mathbb Z)$.
If this is true, then I think I can use that:
$0=pi^*(0)=pi^*(gamma^2 cup gamma^2)=pi^*(gamma^2) cup pi^*(gamma^2)neq0$, which gives a contradiction.
algebraic-topology homology-cohomology
add a comment |
So, I have shown that the natural projection $picolon mathbb{CP^n}rightarrow mathbb{CP^n/CP^k}$ induces a monomorphism $pi^*colon H^*(mathbb{CP^n/CP^k},mathbb Z)rightarrow H^*(mathbb{CP^n},mathbb Z) $. I would like to use this and the cohomology ring structure to show that we can't have a retract, but I am not exactly sure what the ring structure of $mathbb{CP^2/CP^1}$ and $mathbb{CP^4/CP^1}$ are.
I know that $H^*(mathbb{CP^n},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma]/(gamma^{n+1})$, where $|gamma|=2$, so is $H^*(mathbb{CP^n/CP^k},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma^{k+1},ldots ,gamma^{n}]/(gamma^{n+1})$?
This would give me $H^*(mathbb{CP^2/CP^1},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma^{2}]/(gamma^{4})$ and $pi^*(gamma^2)neq 0 in H^*(mathbb{CP^4/CP^1},mathbb Z)$.
If this is true, then I think I can use that:
$0=pi^*(0)=pi^*(gamma^2 cup gamma^2)=pi^*(gamma^2) cup pi^*(gamma^2)neq0$, which gives a contradiction.
algebraic-topology homology-cohomology
2
treat $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n/mathbb{CP}^k)$ as a subring of $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n)$ (included via $pi^*$)
– user8268
Jun 23 '14 at 20:47
1
$Bbb CP^2/Bbb CP^1$ is homeomorphic to the $4$ sphere, and thus its cohomology ring is $Bbb Z[t]/(t^2)$ with $t$ of degree $4$. If you use the long exact cohomology sequence $$cdotsto tilde{H}^*(Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1)to H^*(Bbb CP^4)to H^*(Bbb CP^1)to cdots$$ you can see that the cohomology ring of $Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1$ is $Bbb Z[u,v]/(u^3,v^2,uv=vu=0)$ with $u$ in degree $4$ and $v$ in degree $6$. I'm not certain you can solve the problem only using the ring structure of cohomology.
– Olivier Bégassat
Jun 23 '14 at 21:28
@OlivierBégassat As you wrote $mathbb{C}P^{2}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ is homeomorphic to $S^{4}$ which does not satisfies the fixed point property. As a possible alternative proof for the main question can one prove that $mathbb{C}P^{4}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ has the fixed point property?(Note that a retract of a fixed point space is a fixed point space)
– Ali Taghavi
Jun 29 '14 at 5:48
1
For what it's worth, I believe that, care of the first answer here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/308318/…, that $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ does retract onto $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$. Sketch of proof: According to the link, $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ has the homotopy type of $S^4vee S^6$, which clearly does retract on $S^4$. (I don't know how to make all the details work). The point is, this question could be quite subtle!
– Jason DeVito
Jan 30 '15 at 19:51
3
I'm confused- why doesn't Olivier's answer just answer the question. There is no nonzero element in degree 4 that squares to zero, so there's not even a nonzero map $H^*(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1) rightarrow H^*(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ let alone a retract.
– Dylan Wilson
Apr 26 '15 at 12:59
add a comment |
So, I have shown that the natural projection $picolon mathbb{CP^n}rightarrow mathbb{CP^n/CP^k}$ induces a monomorphism $pi^*colon H^*(mathbb{CP^n/CP^k},mathbb Z)rightarrow H^*(mathbb{CP^n},mathbb Z) $. I would like to use this and the cohomology ring structure to show that we can't have a retract, but I am not exactly sure what the ring structure of $mathbb{CP^2/CP^1}$ and $mathbb{CP^4/CP^1}$ are.
I know that $H^*(mathbb{CP^n},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma]/(gamma^{n+1})$, where $|gamma|=2$, so is $H^*(mathbb{CP^n/CP^k},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma^{k+1},ldots ,gamma^{n}]/(gamma^{n+1})$?
This would give me $H^*(mathbb{CP^2/CP^1},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma^{2}]/(gamma^{4})$ and $pi^*(gamma^2)neq 0 in H^*(mathbb{CP^4/CP^1},mathbb Z)$.
If this is true, then I think I can use that:
$0=pi^*(0)=pi^*(gamma^2 cup gamma^2)=pi^*(gamma^2) cup pi^*(gamma^2)neq0$, which gives a contradiction.
algebraic-topology homology-cohomology
So, I have shown that the natural projection $picolon mathbb{CP^n}rightarrow mathbb{CP^n/CP^k}$ induces a monomorphism $pi^*colon H^*(mathbb{CP^n/CP^k},mathbb Z)rightarrow H^*(mathbb{CP^n},mathbb Z) $. I would like to use this and the cohomology ring structure to show that we can't have a retract, but I am not exactly sure what the ring structure of $mathbb{CP^2/CP^1}$ and $mathbb{CP^4/CP^1}$ are.
I know that $H^*(mathbb{CP^n},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma]/(gamma^{n+1})$, where $|gamma|=2$, so is $H^*(mathbb{CP^n/CP^k},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma^{k+1},ldots ,gamma^{n}]/(gamma^{n+1})$?
This would give me $H^*(mathbb{CP^2/CP^1},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma^{2}]/(gamma^{4})$ and $pi^*(gamma^2)neq 0 in H^*(mathbb{CP^4/CP^1},mathbb Z)$.
If this is true, then I think I can use that:
$0=pi^*(0)=pi^*(gamma^2 cup gamma^2)=pi^*(gamma^2) cup pi^*(gamma^2)neq0$, which gives a contradiction.
algebraic-topology homology-cohomology
algebraic-topology homology-cohomology
edited Dec 17 '14 at 16:01
Dan Rust
22.6k114784
22.6k114784
asked Jun 23 '14 at 20:07
Ashley
1,148715
1,148715
2
treat $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n/mathbb{CP}^k)$ as a subring of $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n)$ (included via $pi^*$)
– user8268
Jun 23 '14 at 20:47
1
$Bbb CP^2/Bbb CP^1$ is homeomorphic to the $4$ sphere, and thus its cohomology ring is $Bbb Z[t]/(t^2)$ with $t$ of degree $4$. If you use the long exact cohomology sequence $$cdotsto tilde{H}^*(Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1)to H^*(Bbb CP^4)to H^*(Bbb CP^1)to cdots$$ you can see that the cohomology ring of $Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1$ is $Bbb Z[u,v]/(u^3,v^2,uv=vu=0)$ with $u$ in degree $4$ and $v$ in degree $6$. I'm not certain you can solve the problem only using the ring structure of cohomology.
– Olivier Bégassat
Jun 23 '14 at 21:28
@OlivierBégassat As you wrote $mathbb{C}P^{2}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ is homeomorphic to $S^{4}$ which does not satisfies the fixed point property. As a possible alternative proof for the main question can one prove that $mathbb{C}P^{4}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ has the fixed point property?(Note that a retract of a fixed point space is a fixed point space)
– Ali Taghavi
Jun 29 '14 at 5:48
1
For what it's worth, I believe that, care of the first answer here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/308318/…, that $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ does retract onto $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$. Sketch of proof: According to the link, $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ has the homotopy type of $S^4vee S^6$, which clearly does retract on $S^4$. (I don't know how to make all the details work). The point is, this question could be quite subtle!
– Jason DeVito
Jan 30 '15 at 19:51
3
I'm confused- why doesn't Olivier's answer just answer the question. There is no nonzero element in degree 4 that squares to zero, so there's not even a nonzero map $H^*(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1) rightarrow H^*(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ let alone a retract.
– Dylan Wilson
Apr 26 '15 at 12:59
add a comment |
2
treat $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n/mathbb{CP}^k)$ as a subring of $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n)$ (included via $pi^*$)
– user8268
Jun 23 '14 at 20:47
1
$Bbb CP^2/Bbb CP^1$ is homeomorphic to the $4$ sphere, and thus its cohomology ring is $Bbb Z[t]/(t^2)$ with $t$ of degree $4$. If you use the long exact cohomology sequence $$cdotsto tilde{H}^*(Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1)to H^*(Bbb CP^4)to H^*(Bbb CP^1)to cdots$$ you can see that the cohomology ring of $Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1$ is $Bbb Z[u,v]/(u^3,v^2,uv=vu=0)$ with $u$ in degree $4$ and $v$ in degree $6$. I'm not certain you can solve the problem only using the ring structure of cohomology.
– Olivier Bégassat
Jun 23 '14 at 21:28
@OlivierBégassat As you wrote $mathbb{C}P^{2}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ is homeomorphic to $S^{4}$ which does not satisfies the fixed point property. As a possible alternative proof for the main question can one prove that $mathbb{C}P^{4}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ has the fixed point property?(Note that a retract of a fixed point space is a fixed point space)
– Ali Taghavi
Jun 29 '14 at 5:48
1
For what it's worth, I believe that, care of the first answer here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/308318/…, that $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ does retract onto $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$. Sketch of proof: According to the link, $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ has the homotopy type of $S^4vee S^6$, which clearly does retract on $S^4$. (I don't know how to make all the details work). The point is, this question could be quite subtle!
– Jason DeVito
Jan 30 '15 at 19:51
3
I'm confused- why doesn't Olivier's answer just answer the question. There is no nonzero element in degree 4 that squares to zero, so there's not even a nonzero map $H^*(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1) rightarrow H^*(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ let alone a retract.
– Dylan Wilson
Apr 26 '15 at 12:59
2
2
treat $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n/mathbb{CP}^k)$ as a subring of $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n)$ (included via $pi^*$)
– user8268
Jun 23 '14 at 20:47
treat $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n/mathbb{CP}^k)$ as a subring of $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n)$ (included via $pi^*$)
– user8268
Jun 23 '14 at 20:47
1
1
$Bbb CP^2/Bbb CP^1$ is homeomorphic to the $4$ sphere, and thus its cohomology ring is $Bbb Z[t]/(t^2)$ with $t$ of degree $4$. If you use the long exact cohomology sequence $$cdotsto tilde{H}^*(Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1)to H^*(Bbb CP^4)to H^*(Bbb CP^1)to cdots$$ you can see that the cohomology ring of $Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1$ is $Bbb Z[u,v]/(u^3,v^2,uv=vu=0)$ with $u$ in degree $4$ and $v$ in degree $6$. I'm not certain you can solve the problem only using the ring structure of cohomology.
– Olivier Bégassat
Jun 23 '14 at 21:28
$Bbb CP^2/Bbb CP^1$ is homeomorphic to the $4$ sphere, and thus its cohomology ring is $Bbb Z[t]/(t^2)$ with $t$ of degree $4$. If you use the long exact cohomology sequence $$cdotsto tilde{H}^*(Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1)to H^*(Bbb CP^4)to H^*(Bbb CP^1)to cdots$$ you can see that the cohomology ring of $Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1$ is $Bbb Z[u,v]/(u^3,v^2,uv=vu=0)$ with $u$ in degree $4$ and $v$ in degree $6$. I'm not certain you can solve the problem only using the ring structure of cohomology.
– Olivier Bégassat
Jun 23 '14 at 21:28
@OlivierBégassat As you wrote $mathbb{C}P^{2}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ is homeomorphic to $S^{4}$ which does not satisfies the fixed point property. As a possible alternative proof for the main question can one prove that $mathbb{C}P^{4}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ has the fixed point property?(Note that a retract of a fixed point space is a fixed point space)
– Ali Taghavi
Jun 29 '14 at 5:48
@OlivierBégassat As you wrote $mathbb{C}P^{2}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ is homeomorphic to $S^{4}$ which does not satisfies the fixed point property. As a possible alternative proof for the main question can one prove that $mathbb{C}P^{4}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ has the fixed point property?(Note that a retract of a fixed point space is a fixed point space)
– Ali Taghavi
Jun 29 '14 at 5:48
1
1
For what it's worth, I believe that, care of the first answer here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/308318/…, that $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ does retract onto $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$. Sketch of proof: According to the link, $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ has the homotopy type of $S^4vee S^6$, which clearly does retract on $S^4$. (I don't know how to make all the details work). The point is, this question could be quite subtle!
– Jason DeVito
Jan 30 '15 at 19:51
For what it's worth, I believe that, care of the first answer here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/308318/…, that $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ does retract onto $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$. Sketch of proof: According to the link, $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ has the homotopy type of $S^4vee S^6$, which clearly does retract on $S^4$. (I don't know how to make all the details work). The point is, this question could be quite subtle!
– Jason DeVito
Jan 30 '15 at 19:51
3
3
I'm confused- why doesn't Olivier's answer just answer the question. There is no nonzero element in degree 4 that squares to zero, so there's not even a nonzero map $H^*(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1) rightarrow H^*(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ let alone a retract.
– Dylan Wilson
Apr 26 '15 at 12:59
I'm confused- why doesn't Olivier's answer just answer the question. There is no nonzero element in degree 4 that squares to zero, so there's not even a nonzero map $H^*(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1) rightarrow H^*(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ let alone a retract.
– Dylan Wilson
Apr 26 '15 at 12:59
add a comment |
1 Answer
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(I'm just answering this to get it off the unanswered list. It's CW because I'm not doing anything but expanding on information in the comments).
As Olivier notes, $H^ast(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}[u,v]/u^3 = v^2 = uv = 0$ where $|u| = 4$ and $|v| = 6$. This follows, as Olivier says, via the long exact sequence of the pair $(mathbb{C}P^1,mathbb{C}P^4)$, together with the fact that the inclusion map $mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^4$ induces an isomorphism on $H^2$ and $H^0$, but is other wise the zero map.
Further, by the same technique, one easily sees that $H^ast(mathbb{C}^2/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}[t]/t^2$ where $|t| = 4$ (or one can also use the usual cell structure on $mathbb{C}P^2$ to see that $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$ is homeomorphic to $S^4$).
Now, let $i:mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1$ be the inclusion. Assume for a contradiction that $r:mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$ is a retraction.
Then we have the formula $rcirc i = Id_{mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1}$. In particular, $i^ast r^ast:H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)rightarrow H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)$ is an isomorphism, which implies that $r^ast:H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)rightarrow H^ast(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ is an injection. In particular, $r^ast$ is not the zero map on $H^4$.
Now consider $r^ast(t)$. It must be some multiple of $u$, $r^ast(t) = ku$, because $u$ generates $H^4(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}$. Because $r^ast$ is not the zero map, $kneq 0$.
But now we have a contradiction: $t^2 = 0$ so $0 = r^ast(t^2) =r^ast(t)^2 = (ku)^2 = k^2 u^2$ which forces $k = 0$. Thus, there can not be a retraction $r$.
add a comment |
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(I'm just answering this to get it off the unanswered list. It's CW because I'm not doing anything but expanding on information in the comments).
As Olivier notes, $H^ast(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}[u,v]/u^3 = v^2 = uv = 0$ where $|u| = 4$ and $|v| = 6$. This follows, as Olivier says, via the long exact sequence of the pair $(mathbb{C}P^1,mathbb{C}P^4)$, together with the fact that the inclusion map $mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^4$ induces an isomorphism on $H^2$ and $H^0$, but is other wise the zero map.
Further, by the same technique, one easily sees that $H^ast(mathbb{C}^2/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}[t]/t^2$ where $|t| = 4$ (or one can also use the usual cell structure on $mathbb{C}P^2$ to see that $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$ is homeomorphic to $S^4$).
Now, let $i:mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1$ be the inclusion. Assume for a contradiction that $r:mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$ is a retraction.
Then we have the formula $rcirc i = Id_{mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1}$. In particular, $i^ast r^ast:H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)rightarrow H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)$ is an isomorphism, which implies that $r^ast:H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)rightarrow H^ast(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ is an injection. In particular, $r^ast$ is not the zero map on $H^4$.
Now consider $r^ast(t)$. It must be some multiple of $u$, $r^ast(t) = ku$, because $u$ generates $H^4(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}$. Because $r^ast$ is not the zero map, $kneq 0$.
But now we have a contradiction: $t^2 = 0$ so $0 = r^ast(t^2) =r^ast(t)^2 = (ku)^2 = k^2 u^2$ which forces $k = 0$. Thus, there can not be a retraction $r$.
add a comment |
(I'm just answering this to get it off the unanswered list. It's CW because I'm not doing anything but expanding on information in the comments).
As Olivier notes, $H^ast(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}[u,v]/u^3 = v^2 = uv = 0$ where $|u| = 4$ and $|v| = 6$. This follows, as Olivier says, via the long exact sequence of the pair $(mathbb{C}P^1,mathbb{C}P^4)$, together with the fact that the inclusion map $mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^4$ induces an isomorphism on $H^2$ and $H^0$, but is other wise the zero map.
Further, by the same technique, one easily sees that $H^ast(mathbb{C}^2/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}[t]/t^2$ where $|t| = 4$ (or one can also use the usual cell structure on $mathbb{C}P^2$ to see that $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$ is homeomorphic to $S^4$).
Now, let $i:mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1$ be the inclusion. Assume for a contradiction that $r:mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$ is a retraction.
Then we have the formula $rcirc i = Id_{mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1}$. In particular, $i^ast r^ast:H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)rightarrow H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)$ is an isomorphism, which implies that $r^ast:H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)rightarrow H^ast(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ is an injection. In particular, $r^ast$ is not the zero map on $H^4$.
Now consider $r^ast(t)$. It must be some multiple of $u$, $r^ast(t) = ku$, because $u$ generates $H^4(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}$. Because $r^ast$ is not the zero map, $kneq 0$.
But now we have a contradiction: $t^2 = 0$ so $0 = r^ast(t^2) =r^ast(t)^2 = (ku)^2 = k^2 u^2$ which forces $k = 0$. Thus, there can not be a retraction $r$.
add a comment |
(I'm just answering this to get it off the unanswered list. It's CW because I'm not doing anything but expanding on information in the comments).
As Olivier notes, $H^ast(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}[u,v]/u^3 = v^2 = uv = 0$ where $|u| = 4$ and $|v| = 6$. This follows, as Olivier says, via the long exact sequence of the pair $(mathbb{C}P^1,mathbb{C}P^4)$, together with the fact that the inclusion map $mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^4$ induces an isomorphism on $H^2$ and $H^0$, but is other wise the zero map.
Further, by the same technique, one easily sees that $H^ast(mathbb{C}^2/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}[t]/t^2$ where $|t| = 4$ (or one can also use the usual cell structure on $mathbb{C}P^2$ to see that $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$ is homeomorphic to $S^4$).
Now, let $i:mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1$ be the inclusion. Assume for a contradiction that $r:mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$ is a retraction.
Then we have the formula $rcirc i = Id_{mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1}$. In particular, $i^ast r^ast:H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)rightarrow H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)$ is an isomorphism, which implies that $r^ast:H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)rightarrow H^ast(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ is an injection. In particular, $r^ast$ is not the zero map on $H^4$.
Now consider $r^ast(t)$. It must be some multiple of $u$, $r^ast(t) = ku$, because $u$ generates $H^4(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}$. Because $r^ast$ is not the zero map, $kneq 0$.
But now we have a contradiction: $t^2 = 0$ so $0 = r^ast(t^2) =r^ast(t)^2 = (ku)^2 = k^2 u^2$ which forces $k = 0$. Thus, there can not be a retraction $r$.
(I'm just answering this to get it off the unanswered list. It's CW because I'm not doing anything but expanding on information in the comments).
As Olivier notes, $H^ast(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}[u,v]/u^3 = v^2 = uv = 0$ where $|u| = 4$ and $|v| = 6$. This follows, as Olivier says, via the long exact sequence of the pair $(mathbb{C}P^1,mathbb{C}P^4)$, together with the fact that the inclusion map $mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^4$ induces an isomorphism on $H^2$ and $H^0$, but is other wise the zero map.
Further, by the same technique, one easily sees that $H^ast(mathbb{C}^2/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}[t]/t^2$ where $|t| = 4$ (or one can also use the usual cell structure on $mathbb{C}P^2$ to see that $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$ is homeomorphic to $S^4$).
Now, let $i:mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1$ be the inclusion. Assume for a contradiction that $r:mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$ is a retraction.
Then we have the formula $rcirc i = Id_{mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1}$. In particular, $i^ast r^ast:H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)rightarrow H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)$ is an isomorphism, which implies that $r^ast:H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)rightarrow H^ast(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ is an injection. In particular, $r^ast$ is not the zero map on $H^4$.
Now consider $r^ast(t)$. It must be some multiple of $u$, $r^ast(t) = ku$, because $u$ generates $H^4(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}$. Because $r^ast$ is not the zero map, $kneq 0$.
But now we have a contradiction: $t^2 = 0$ so $0 = r^ast(t^2) =r^ast(t)^2 = (ku)^2 = k^2 u^2$ which forces $k = 0$. Thus, there can not be a retraction $r$.
answered Nov 30 at 18:49
community wiki
Jason DeVito
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2
treat $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n/mathbb{CP}^k)$ as a subring of $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n)$ (included via $pi^*$)
– user8268
Jun 23 '14 at 20:47
1
$Bbb CP^2/Bbb CP^1$ is homeomorphic to the $4$ sphere, and thus its cohomology ring is $Bbb Z[t]/(t^2)$ with $t$ of degree $4$. If you use the long exact cohomology sequence $$cdotsto tilde{H}^*(Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1)to H^*(Bbb CP^4)to H^*(Bbb CP^1)to cdots$$ you can see that the cohomology ring of $Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1$ is $Bbb Z[u,v]/(u^3,v^2,uv=vu=0)$ with $u$ in degree $4$ and $v$ in degree $6$. I'm not certain you can solve the problem only using the ring structure of cohomology.
– Olivier Bégassat
Jun 23 '14 at 21:28
@OlivierBégassat As you wrote $mathbb{C}P^{2}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ is homeomorphic to $S^{4}$ which does not satisfies the fixed point property. As a possible alternative proof for the main question can one prove that $mathbb{C}P^{4}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ has the fixed point property?(Note that a retract of a fixed point space is a fixed point space)
– Ali Taghavi
Jun 29 '14 at 5:48
1
For what it's worth, I believe that, care of the first answer here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/308318/…, that $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ does retract onto $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$. Sketch of proof: According to the link, $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ has the homotopy type of $S^4vee S^6$, which clearly does retract on $S^4$. (I don't know how to make all the details work). The point is, this question could be quite subtle!
– Jason DeVito
Jan 30 '15 at 19:51
3
I'm confused- why doesn't Olivier's answer just answer the question. There is no nonzero element in degree 4 that squares to zero, so there's not even a nonzero map $H^*(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1) rightarrow H^*(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ let alone a retract.
– Dylan Wilson
Apr 26 '15 at 12:59