Show $mathbb{CP^2/CP^1}$ is not a retract of $mathbb{CP^4/CP^1}$.












19














So, I have shown that the natural projection $picolon mathbb{CP^n}rightarrow mathbb{CP^n/CP^k}$ induces a monomorphism $pi^*colon H^*(mathbb{CP^n/CP^k},mathbb Z)rightarrow H^*(mathbb{CP^n},mathbb Z) $. I would like to use this and the cohomology ring structure to show that we can't have a retract, but I am not exactly sure what the ring structure of $mathbb{CP^2/CP^1}$ and $mathbb{CP^4/CP^1}$ are.



I know that $H^*(mathbb{CP^n},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma]/(gamma^{n+1})$, where $|gamma|=2$, so is $H^*(mathbb{CP^n/CP^k},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma^{k+1},ldots ,gamma^{n}]/(gamma^{n+1})$?



This would give me $H^*(mathbb{CP^2/CP^1},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma^{2}]/(gamma^{4})$ and $pi^*(gamma^2)neq 0 in H^*(mathbb{CP^4/CP^1},mathbb Z)$.



If this is true, then I think I can use that:



$0=pi^*(0)=pi^*(gamma^2 cup gamma^2)=pi^*(gamma^2) cup pi^*(gamma^2)neq0$, which gives a contradiction.










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  • 2




    treat $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n/mathbb{CP}^k)$ as a subring of $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n)$ (included via $pi^*$)
    – user8268
    Jun 23 '14 at 20:47






  • 1




    $Bbb CP^2/Bbb CP^1$ is homeomorphic to the $4$ sphere, and thus its cohomology ring is $Bbb Z[t]/(t^2)$ with $t$ of degree $4$. If you use the long exact cohomology sequence $$cdotsto tilde{H}^*(Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1)to H^*(Bbb CP^4)to H^*(Bbb CP^1)to cdots$$ you can see that the cohomology ring of $Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1$ is $Bbb Z[u,v]/(u^3,v^2,uv=vu=0)$ with $u$ in degree $4$ and $v$ in degree $6$. I'm not certain you can solve the problem only using the ring structure of cohomology.
    – Olivier Bégassat
    Jun 23 '14 at 21:28












  • @OlivierBégassat As you wrote $mathbb{C}P^{2}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ is homeomorphic to $S^{4}$ which does not satisfies the fixed point property. As a possible alternative proof for the main question can one prove that $mathbb{C}P^{4}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ has the fixed point property?(Note that a retract of a fixed point space is a fixed point space)
    – Ali Taghavi
    Jun 29 '14 at 5:48






  • 1




    For what it's worth, I believe that, care of the first answer here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/308318/…, that $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ does retract onto $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$. Sketch of proof: According to the link, $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ has the homotopy type of $S^4vee S^6$, which clearly does retract on $S^4$. (I don't know how to make all the details work). The point is, this question could be quite subtle!
    – Jason DeVito
    Jan 30 '15 at 19:51






  • 3




    I'm confused- why doesn't Olivier's answer just answer the question. There is no nonzero element in degree 4 that squares to zero, so there's not even a nonzero map $H^*(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1) rightarrow H^*(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ let alone a retract.
    – Dylan Wilson
    Apr 26 '15 at 12:59
















19














So, I have shown that the natural projection $picolon mathbb{CP^n}rightarrow mathbb{CP^n/CP^k}$ induces a monomorphism $pi^*colon H^*(mathbb{CP^n/CP^k},mathbb Z)rightarrow H^*(mathbb{CP^n},mathbb Z) $. I would like to use this and the cohomology ring structure to show that we can't have a retract, but I am not exactly sure what the ring structure of $mathbb{CP^2/CP^1}$ and $mathbb{CP^4/CP^1}$ are.



I know that $H^*(mathbb{CP^n},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma]/(gamma^{n+1})$, where $|gamma|=2$, so is $H^*(mathbb{CP^n/CP^k},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma^{k+1},ldots ,gamma^{n}]/(gamma^{n+1})$?



This would give me $H^*(mathbb{CP^2/CP^1},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma^{2}]/(gamma^{4})$ and $pi^*(gamma^2)neq 0 in H^*(mathbb{CP^4/CP^1},mathbb Z)$.



If this is true, then I think I can use that:



$0=pi^*(0)=pi^*(gamma^2 cup gamma^2)=pi^*(gamma^2) cup pi^*(gamma^2)neq0$, which gives a contradiction.










share|cite|improve this question




















  • 2




    treat $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n/mathbb{CP}^k)$ as a subring of $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n)$ (included via $pi^*$)
    – user8268
    Jun 23 '14 at 20:47






  • 1




    $Bbb CP^2/Bbb CP^1$ is homeomorphic to the $4$ sphere, and thus its cohomology ring is $Bbb Z[t]/(t^2)$ with $t$ of degree $4$. If you use the long exact cohomology sequence $$cdotsto tilde{H}^*(Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1)to H^*(Bbb CP^4)to H^*(Bbb CP^1)to cdots$$ you can see that the cohomology ring of $Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1$ is $Bbb Z[u,v]/(u^3,v^2,uv=vu=0)$ with $u$ in degree $4$ and $v$ in degree $6$. I'm not certain you can solve the problem only using the ring structure of cohomology.
    – Olivier Bégassat
    Jun 23 '14 at 21:28












  • @OlivierBégassat As you wrote $mathbb{C}P^{2}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ is homeomorphic to $S^{4}$ which does not satisfies the fixed point property. As a possible alternative proof for the main question can one prove that $mathbb{C}P^{4}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ has the fixed point property?(Note that a retract of a fixed point space is a fixed point space)
    – Ali Taghavi
    Jun 29 '14 at 5:48






  • 1




    For what it's worth, I believe that, care of the first answer here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/308318/…, that $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ does retract onto $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$. Sketch of proof: According to the link, $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ has the homotopy type of $S^4vee S^6$, which clearly does retract on $S^4$. (I don't know how to make all the details work). The point is, this question could be quite subtle!
    – Jason DeVito
    Jan 30 '15 at 19:51






  • 3




    I'm confused- why doesn't Olivier's answer just answer the question. There is no nonzero element in degree 4 that squares to zero, so there's not even a nonzero map $H^*(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1) rightarrow H^*(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ let alone a retract.
    – Dylan Wilson
    Apr 26 '15 at 12:59














19












19








19


6





So, I have shown that the natural projection $picolon mathbb{CP^n}rightarrow mathbb{CP^n/CP^k}$ induces a monomorphism $pi^*colon H^*(mathbb{CP^n/CP^k},mathbb Z)rightarrow H^*(mathbb{CP^n},mathbb Z) $. I would like to use this and the cohomology ring structure to show that we can't have a retract, but I am not exactly sure what the ring structure of $mathbb{CP^2/CP^1}$ and $mathbb{CP^4/CP^1}$ are.



I know that $H^*(mathbb{CP^n},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma]/(gamma^{n+1})$, where $|gamma|=2$, so is $H^*(mathbb{CP^n/CP^k},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma^{k+1},ldots ,gamma^{n}]/(gamma^{n+1})$?



This would give me $H^*(mathbb{CP^2/CP^1},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma^{2}]/(gamma^{4})$ and $pi^*(gamma^2)neq 0 in H^*(mathbb{CP^4/CP^1},mathbb Z)$.



If this is true, then I think I can use that:



$0=pi^*(0)=pi^*(gamma^2 cup gamma^2)=pi^*(gamma^2) cup pi^*(gamma^2)neq0$, which gives a contradiction.










share|cite|improve this question















So, I have shown that the natural projection $picolon mathbb{CP^n}rightarrow mathbb{CP^n/CP^k}$ induces a monomorphism $pi^*colon H^*(mathbb{CP^n/CP^k},mathbb Z)rightarrow H^*(mathbb{CP^n},mathbb Z) $. I would like to use this and the cohomology ring structure to show that we can't have a retract, but I am not exactly sure what the ring structure of $mathbb{CP^2/CP^1}$ and $mathbb{CP^4/CP^1}$ are.



I know that $H^*(mathbb{CP^n},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma]/(gamma^{n+1})$, where $|gamma|=2$, so is $H^*(mathbb{CP^n/CP^k},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma^{k+1},ldots ,gamma^{n}]/(gamma^{n+1})$?



This would give me $H^*(mathbb{CP^2/CP^1},mathbb Z) cong mathbb Z[gamma^{2}]/(gamma^{4})$ and $pi^*(gamma^2)neq 0 in H^*(mathbb{CP^4/CP^1},mathbb Z)$.



If this is true, then I think I can use that:



$0=pi^*(0)=pi^*(gamma^2 cup gamma^2)=pi^*(gamma^2) cup pi^*(gamma^2)neq0$, which gives a contradiction.







algebraic-topology homology-cohomology






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 17 '14 at 16:01









Dan Rust

22.6k114784




22.6k114784










asked Jun 23 '14 at 20:07









Ashley

1,148715




1,148715








  • 2




    treat $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n/mathbb{CP}^k)$ as a subring of $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n)$ (included via $pi^*$)
    – user8268
    Jun 23 '14 at 20:47






  • 1




    $Bbb CP^2/Bbb CP^1$ is homeomorphic to the $4$ sphere, and thus its cohomology ring is $Bbb Z[t]/(t^2)$ with $t$ of degree $4$. If you use the long exact cohomology sequence $$cdotsto tilde{H}^*(Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1)to H^*(Bbb CP^4)to H^*(Bbb CP^1)to cdots$$ you can see that the cohomology ring of $Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1$ is $Bbb Z[u,v]/(u^3,v^2,uv=vu=0)$ with $u$ in degree $4$ and $v$ in degree $6$. I'm not certain you can solve the problem only using the ring structure of cohomology.
    – Olivier Bégassat
    Jun 23 '14 at 21:28












  • @OlivierBégassat As you wrote $mathbb{C}P^{2}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ is homeomorphic to $S^{4}$ which does not satisfies the fixed point property. As a possible alternative proof for the main question can one prove that $mathbb{C}P^{4}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ has the fixed point property?(Note that a retract of a fixed point space is a fixed point space)
    – Ali Taghavi
    Jun 29 '14 at 5:48






  • 1




    For what it's worth, I believe that, care of the first answer here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/308318/…, that $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ does retract onto $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$. Sketch of proof: According to the link, $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ has the homotopy type of $S^4vee S^6$, which clearly does retract on $S^4$. (I don't know how to make all the details work). The point is, this question could be quite subtle!
    – Jason DeVito
    Jan 30 '15 at 19:51






  • 3




    I'm confused- why doesn't Olivier's answer just answer the question. There is no nonzero element in degree 4 that squares to zero, so there's not even a nonzero map $H^*(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1) rightarrow H^*(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ let alone a retract.
    – Dylan Wilson
    Apr 26 '15 at 12:59














  • 2




    treat $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n/mathbb{CP}^k)$ as a subring of $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n)$ (included via $pi^*$)
    – user8268
    Jun 23 '14 at 20:47






  • 1




    $Bbb CP^2/Bbb CP^1$ is homeomorphic to the $4$ sphere, and thus its cohomology ring is $Bbb Z[t]/(t^2)$ with $t$ of degree $4$. If you use the long exact cohomology sequence $$cdotsto tilde{H}^*(Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1)to H^*(Bbb CP^4)to H^*(Bbb CP^1)to cdots$$ you can see that the cohomology ring of $Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1$ is $Bbb Z[u,v]/(u^3,v^2,uv=vu=0)$ with $u$ in degree $4$ and $v$ in degree $6$. I'm not certain you can solve the problem only using the ring structure of cohomology.
    – Olivier Bégassat
    Jun 23 '14 at 21:28












  • @OlivierBégassat As you wrote $mathbb{C}P^{2}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ is homeomorphic to $S^{4}$ which does not satisfies the fixed point property. As a possible alternative proof for the main question can one prove that $mathbb{C}P^{4}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ has the fixed point property?(Note that a retract of a fixed point space is a fixed point space)
    – Ali Taghavi
    Jun 29 '14 at 5:48






  • 1




    For what it's worth, I believe that, care of the first answer here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/308318/…, that $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ does retract onto $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$. Sketch of proof: According to the link, $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ has the homotopy type of $S^4vee S^6$, which clearly does retract on $S^4$. (I don't know how to make all the details work). The point is, this question could be quite subtle!
    – Jason DeVito
    Jan 30 '15 at 19:51






  • 3




    I'm confused- why doesn't Olivier's answer just answer the question. There is no nonzero element in degree 4 that squares to zero, so there's not even a nonzero map $H^*(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1) rightarrow H^*(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ let alone a retract.
    – Dylan Wilson
    Apr 26 '15 at 12:59








2




2




treat $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n/mathbb{CP}^k)$ as a subring of $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n)$ (included via $pi^*$)
– user8268
Jun 23 '14 at 20:47




treat $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n/mathbb{CP}^k)$ as a subring of $H^*(mathbb{CP}^n)$ (included via $pi^*$)
– user8268
Jun 23 '14 at 20:47




1




1




$Bbb CP^2/Bbb CP^1$ is homeomorphic to the $4$ sphere, and thus its cohomology ring is $Bbb Z[t]/(t^2)$ with $t$ of degree $4$. If you use the long exact cohomology sequence $$cdotsto tilde{H}^*(Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1)to H^*(Bbb CP^4)to H^*(Bbb CP^1)to cdots$$ you can see that the cohomology ring of $Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1$ is $Bbb Z[u,v]/(u^3,v^2,uv=vu=0)$ with $u$ in degree $4$ and $v$ in degree $6$. I'm not certain you can solve the problem only using the ring structure of cohomology.
– Olivier Bégassat
Jun 23 '14 at 21:28






$Bbb CP^2/Bbb CP^1$ is homeomorphic to the $4$ sphere, and thus its cohomology ring is $Bbb Z[t]/(t^2)$ with $t$ of degree $4$. If you use the long exact cohomology sequence $$cdotsto tilde{H}^*(Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1)to H^*(Bbb CP^4)to H^*(Bbb CP^1)to cdots$$ you can see that the cohomology ring of $Bbb CP^4/Bbb CP^1$ is $Bbb Z[u,v]/(u^3,v^2,uv=vu=0)$ with $u$ in degree $4$ and $v$ in degree $6$. I'm not certain you can solve the problem only using the ring structure of cohomology.
– Olivier Bégassat
Jun 23 '14 at 21:28














@OlivierBégassat As you wrote $mathbb{C}P^{2}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ is homeomorphic to $S^{4}$ which does not satisfies the fixed point property. As a possible alternative proof for the main question can one prove that $mathbb{C}P^{4}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ has the fixed point property?(Note that a retract of a fixed point space is a fixed point space)
– Ali Taghavi
Jun 29 '14 at 5:48




@OlivierBégassat As you wrote $mathbb{C}P^{2}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ is homeomorphic to $S^{4}$ which does not satisfies the fixed point property. As a possible alternative proof for the main question can one prove that $mathbb{C}P^{4}/mathbb{C}P^{1}$ has the fixed point property?(Note that a retract of a fixed point space is a fixed point space)
– Ali Taghavi
Jun 29 '14 at 5:48




1




1




For what it's worth, I believe that, care of the first answer here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/308318/…, that $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ does retract onto $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$. Sketch of proof: According to the link, $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ has the homotopy type of $S^4vee S^6$, which clearly does retract on $S^4$. (I don't know how to make all the details work). The point is, this question could be quite subtle!
– Jason DeVito
Jan 30 '15 at 19:51




For what it's worth, I believe that, care of the first answer here: math.stackexchange.com/questions/308318/…, that $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ does retract onto $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$. Sketch of proof: According to the link, $mathbb{C}P^3/mathbb{C}P^1$ has the homotopy type of $S^4vee S^6$, which clearly does retract on $S^4$. (I don't know how to make all the details work). The point is, this question could be quite subtle!
– Jason DeVito
Jan 30 '15 at 19:51




3




3




I'm confused- why doesn't Olivier's answer just answer the question. There is no nonzero element in degree 4 that squares to zero, so there's not even a nonzero map $H^*(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1) rightarrow H^*(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ let alone a retract.
– Dylan Wilson
Apr 26 '15 at 12:59




I'm confused- why doesn't Olivier's answer just answer the question. There is no nonzero element in degree 4 that squares to zero, so there's not even a nonzero map $H^*(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1) rightarrow H^*(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ let alone a retract.
– Dylan Wilson
Apr 26 '15 at 12:59










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(I'm just answering this to get it off the unanswered list. It's CW because I'm not doing anything but expanding on information in the comments).



As Olivier notes, $H^ast(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}[u,v]/u^3 = v^2 = uv = 0$ where $|u| = 4$ and $|v| = 6$. This follows, as Olivier says, via the long exact sequence of the pair $(mathbb{C}P^1,mathbb{C}P^4)$, together with the fact that the inclusion map $mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^4$ induces an isomorphism on $H^2$ and $H^0$, but is other wise the zero map.



Further, by the same technique, one easily sees that $H^ast(mathbb{C}^2/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}[t]/t^2$ where $|t| = 4$ (or one can also use the usual cell structure on $mathbb{C}P^2$ to see that $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$ is homeomorphic to $S^4$).



Now, let $i:mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1$ be the inclusion. Assume for a contradiction that $r:mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$ is a retraction.



Then we have the formula $rcirc i = Id_{mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1}$. In particular, $i^ast r^ast:H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)rightarrow H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)$ is an isomorphism, which implies that $r^ast:H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)rightarrow H^ast(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ is an injection. In particular, $r^ast$ is not the zero map on $H^4$.



Now consider $r^ast(t)$. It must be some multiple of $u$, $r^ast(t) = ku$, because $u$ generates $H^4(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}$. Because $r^ast$ is not the zero map, $kneq 0$.



But now we have a contradiction: $t^2 = 0$ so $0 = r^ast(t^2) =r^ast(t)^2 = (ku)^2 = k^2 u^2$ which forces $k = 0$. Thus, there can not be a retraction $r$.






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    (I'm just answering this to get it off the unanswered list. It's CW because I'm not doing anything but expanding on information in the comments).



    As Olivier notes, $H^ast(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}[u,v]/u^3 = v^2 = uv = 0$ where $|u| = 4$ and $|v| = 6$. This follows, as Olivier says, via the long exact sequence of the pair $(mathbb{C}P^1,mathbb{C}P^4)$, together with the fact that the inclusion map $mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^4$ induces an isomorphism on $H^2$ and $H^0$, but is other wise the zero map.



    Further, by the same technique, one easily sees that $H^ast(mathbb{C}^2/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}[t]/t^2$ where $|t| = 4$ (or one can also use the usual cell structure on $mathbb{C}P^2$ to see that $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$ is homeomorphic to $S^4$).



    Now, let $i:mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1$ be the inclusion. Assume for a contradiction that $r:mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$ is a retraction.



    Then we have the formula $rcirc i = Id_{mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1}$. In particular, $i^ast r^ast:H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)rightarrow H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)$ is an isomorphism, which implies that $r^ast:H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)rightarrow H^ast(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ is an injection. In particular, $r^ast$ is not the zero map on $H^4$.



    Now consider $r^ast(t)$. It must be some multiple of $u$, $r^ast(t) = ku$, because $u$ generates $H^4(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}$. Because $r^ast$ is not the zero map, $kneq 0$.



    But now we have a contradiction: $t^2 = 0$ so $0 = r^ast(t^2) =r^ast(t)^2 = (ku)^2 = k^2 u^2$ which forces $k = 0$. Thus, there can not be a retraction $r$.






    share|cite|improve this answer




























      2














      (I'm just answering this to get it off the unanswered list. It's CW because I'm not doing anything but expanding on information in the comments).



      As Olivier notes, $H^ast(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}[u,v]/u^3 = v^2 = uv = 0$ where $|u| = 4$ and $|v| = 6$. This follows, as Olivier says, via the long exact sequence of the pair $(mathbb{C}P^1,mathbb{C}P^4)$, together with the fact that the inclusion map $mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^4$ induces an isomorphism on $H^2$ and $H^0$, but is other wise the zero map.



      Further, by the same technique, one easily sees that $H^ast(mathbb{C}^2/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}[t]/t^2$ where $|t| = 4$ (or one can also use the usual cell structure on $mathbb{C}P^2$ to see that $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$ is homeomorphic to $S^4$).



      Now, let $i:mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1$ be the inclusion. Assume for a contradiction that $r:mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$ is a retraction.



      Then we have the formula $rcirc i = Id_{mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1}$. In particular, $i^ast r^ast:H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)rightarrow H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)$ is an isomorphism, which implies that $r^ast:H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)rightarrow H^ast(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ is an injection. In particular, $r^ast$ is not the zero map on $H^4$.



      Now consider $r^ast(t)$. It must be some multiple of $u$, $r^ast(t) = ku$, because $u$ generates $H^4(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}$. Because $r^ast$ is not the zero map, $kneq 0$.



      But now we have a contradiction: $t^2 = 0$ so $0 = r^ast(t^2) =r^ast(t)^2 = (ku)^2 = k^2 u^2$ which forces $k = 0$. Thus, there can not be a retraction $r$.






      share|cite|improve this answer


























        2












        2








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        (I'm just answering this to get it off the unanswered list. It's CW because I'm not doing anything but expanding on information in the comments).



        As Olivier notes, $H^ast(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}[u,v]/u^3 = v^2 = uv = 0$ where $|u| = 4$ and $|v| = 6$. This follows, as Olivier says, via the long exact sequence of the pair $(mathbb{C}P^1,mathbb{C}P^4)$, together with the fact that the inclusion map $mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^4$ induces an isomorphism on $H^2$ and $H^0$, but is other wise the zero map.



        Further, by the same technique, one easily sees that $H^ast(mathbb{C}^2/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}[t]/t^2$ where $|t| = 4$ (or one can also use the usual cell structure on $mathbb{C}P^2$ to see that $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$ is homeomorphic to $S^4$).



        Now, let $i:mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1$ be the inclusion. Assume for a contradiction that $r:mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$ is a retraction.



        Then we have the formula $rcirc i = Id_{mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1}$. In particular, $i^ast r^ast:H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)rightarrow H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)$ is an isomorphism, which implies that $r^ast:H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)rightarrow H^ast(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ is an injection. In particular, $r^ast$ is not the zero map on $H^4$.



        Now consider $r^ast(t)$. It must be some multiple of $u$, $r^ast(t) = ku$, because $u$ generates $H^4(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}$. Because $r^ast$ is not the zero map, $kneq 0$.



        But now we have a contradiction: $t^2 = 0$ so $0 = r^ast(t^2) =r^ast(t)^2 = (ku)^2 = k^2 u^2$ which forces $k = 0$. Thus, there can not be a retraction $r$.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        (I'm just answering this to get it off the unanswered list. It's CW because I'm not doing anything but expanding on information in the comments).



        As Olivier notes, $H^ast(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}[u,v]/u^3 = v^2 = uv = 0$ where $|u| = 4$ and $|v| = 6$. This follows, as Olivier says, via the long exact sequence of the pair $(mathbb{C}P^1,mathbb{C}P^4)$, together with the fact that the inclusion map $mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^4$ induces an isomorphism on $H^2$ and $H^0$, but is other wise the zero map.



        Further, by the same technique, one easily sees that $H^ast(mathbb{C}^2/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}[t]/t^2$ where $|t| = 4$ (or one can also use the usual cell structure on $mathbb{C}P^2$ to see that $mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$ is homeomorphic to $S^4$).



        Now, let $i:mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1$ be the inclusion. Assume for a contradiction that $r:mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1rightarrow mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1$ is a retraction.



        Then we have the formula $rcirc i = Id_{mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1}$. In particular, $i^ast r^ast:H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)rightarrow H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)$ is an isomorphism, which implies that $r^ast:H^ast(mathbb{C}P^2/mathbb{C}P^1)rightarrow H^ast(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)$ is an injection. In particular, $r^ast$ is not the zero map on $H^4$.



        Now consider $r^ast(t)$. It must be some multiple of $u$, $r^ast(t) = ku$, because $u$ generates $H^4(mathbb{C}P^4/mathbb{C}P^1)cong mathbb{Z}$. Because $r^ast$ is not the zero map, $kneq 0$.



        But now we have a contradiction: $t^2 = 0$ so $0 = r^ast(t^2) =r^ast(t)^2 = (ku)^2 = k^2 u^2$ which forces $k = 0$. Thus, there can not be a retraction $r$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        answered Nov 30 at 18:49


























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        Jason DeVito































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