application of Fisher-Neyman's factorization theorem
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Hi I am having some trouble understanding what kind of functions the right hand side of the factorization theorem is. My textbook states the theorem as:
$U$ is a sufficient statistic of a parameter $theta$ if
$L(theta) = g(u, theta) cdot h(y_{1}...y_{n})$
I have been looking at the example where $Y_{i}$ possesses the probability density function
$f(y_{i}|theta)= (1/theta)e^{-y_{i}/theta}$, 0 else
I can see how the likelihood function $L(theta)= frac{e^{-n bar{y}/theta}}{theta^{n}}$ is derived
But I cannot see why and how $g(bar{y},theta) = frac{e^{-n bar{y}/theta}}{theta^{n}}$
and how $h(y_{1}...y_{n})=1$
any explanation would be appreciated
statistics
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hi I am having some trouble understanding what kind of functions the right hand side of the factorization theorem is. My textbook states the theorem as:
$U$ is a sufficient statistic of a parameter $theta$ if
$L(theta) = g(u, theta) cdot h(y_{1}...y_{n})$
I have been looking at the example where $Y_{i}$ possesses the probability density function
$f(y_{i}|theta)= (1/theta)e^{-y_{i}/theta}$, 0 else
I can see how the likelihood function $L(theta)= frac{e^{-n bar{y}/theta}}{theta^{n}}$ is derived
But I cannot see why and how $g(bar{y},theta) = frac{e^{-n bar{y}/theta}}{theta^{n}}$
and how $h(y_{1}...y_{n})=1$
any explanation would be appreciated
statistics
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hi I am having some trouble understanding what kind of functions the right hand side of the factorization theorem is. My textbook states the theorem as:
$U$ is a sufficient statistic of a parameter $theta$ if
$L(theta) = g(u, theta) cdot h(y_{1}...y_{n})$
I have been looking at the example where $Y_{i}$ possesses the probability density function
$f(y_{i}|theta)= (1/theta)e^{-y_{i}/theta}$, 0 else
I can see how the likelihood function $L(theta)= frac{e^{-n bar{y}/theta}}{theta^{n}}$ is derived
But I cannot see why and how $g(bar{y},theta) = frac{e^{-n bar{y}/theta}}{theta^{n}}$
and how $h(y_{1}...y_{n})=1$
any explanation would be appreciated
statistics
$endgroup$
Hi I am having some trouble understanding what kind of functions the right hand side of the factorization theorem is. My textbook states the theorem as:
$U$ is a sufficient statistic of a parameter $theta$ if
$L(theta) = g(u, theta) cdot h(y_{1}...y_{n})$
I have been looking at the example where $Y_{i}$ possesses the probability density function
$f(y_{i}|theta)= (1/theta)e^{-y_{i}/theta}$, 0 else
I can see how the likelihood function $L(theta)= frac{e^{-n bar{y}/theta}}{theta^{n}}$ is derived
But I cannot see why and how $g(bar{y},theta) = frac{e^{-n bar{y}/theta}}{theta^{n}}$
and how $h(y_{1}...y_{n})=1$
any explanation would be appreciated
statistics
statistics
asked Dec 8 '18 at 19:41
JensensJensens
245
245
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