model theory - existence of a model












2












$begingroup$



Let $Gamma$ be a consistent set of $L$-sentences with infinite cardinality. If it has an infinite model, then there exists a model for
$$
Gamma' =Gamma cup {lnot c_a = c_b : a neq b },
$$

where $c_i$ is a constant symbol.




How would I go about proving this? I'm imagining that I can extend the model for $Gamma$ to have a larger domain (to include more constant symbols) but I don't know how to show that it is actually a model for $Gamma'$. Maybe with compactness?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes, compactness.
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Dec 8 '18 at 20:43










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, with compactness. But it should be assumed that the constant symbols $c_i$ do not appear in $Gamma$, otherwise the statement is not true.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Dec 8 '18 at 20:44












  • $begingroup$
    @AlexKruckman Why is that assumption necessary?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Dec 8 '18 at 20:45










  • $begingroup$
    For example, in the vocabulary $(c_a,c_b)$, $Gamma$ could be the set ${c_a = c_b}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Dec 8 '18 at 20:48










  • $begingroup$
    @AlexKruckman Thanks, that makes sense. Now, compactness requires that every finite subset of $Gamma'$ has a model but I'm not sure how I would go about proving that for every subset. Any hints?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Dec 8 '18 at 20:53
















2












$begingroup$



Let $Gamma$ be a consistent set of $L$-sentences with infinite cardinality. If it has an infinite model, then there exists a model for
$$
Gamma' =Gamma cup {lnot c_a = c_b : a neq b },
$$

where $c_i$ is a constant symbol.




How would I go about proving this? I'm imagining that I can extend the model for $Gamma$ to have a larger domain (to include more constant symbols) but I don't know how to show that it is actually a model for $Gamma'$. Maybe with compactness?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes, compactness.
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Dec 8 '18 at 20:43










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, with compactness. But it should be assumed that the constant symbols $c_i$ do not appear in $Gamma$, otherwise the statement is not true.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Dec 8 '18 at 20:44












  • $begingroup$
    @AlexKruckman Why is that assumption necessary?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Dec 8 '18 at 20:45










  • $begingroup$
    For example, in the vocabulary $(c_a,c_b)$, $Gamma$ could be the set ${c_a = c_b}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Dec 8 '18 at 20:48










  • $begingroup$
    @AlexKruckman Thanks, that makes sense. Now, compactness requires that every finite subset of $Gamma'$ has a model but I'm not sure how I would go about proving that for every subset. Any hints?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Dec 8 '18 at 20:53














2












2








2





$begingroup$



Let $Gamma$ be a consistent set of $L$-sentences with infinite cardinality. If it has an infinite model, then there exists a model for
$$
Gamma' =Gamma cup {lnot c_a = c_b : a neq b },
$$

where $c_i$ is a constant symbol.




How would I go about proving this? I'm imagining that I can extend the model for $Gamma$ to have a larger domain (to include more constant symbols) but I don't know how to show that it is actually a model for $Gamma'$. Maybe with compactness?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$





Let $Gamma$ be a consistent set of $L$-sentences with infinite cardinality. If it has an infinite model, then there exists a model for
$$
Gamma' =Gamma cup {lnot c_a = c_b : a neq b },
$$

where $c_i$ is a constant symbol.




How would I go about proving this? I'm imagining that I can extend the model for $Gamma$ to have a larger domain (to include more constant symbols) but I don't know how to show that it is actually a model for $Gamma'$. Maybe with compactness?







logic model-theory






share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Dec 8 '18 at 20:40









bofbof

152




152








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes, compactness.
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Dec 8 '18 at 20:43










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, with compactness. But it should be assumed that the constant symbols $c_i$ do not appear in $Gamma$, otherwise the statement is not true.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Dec 8 '18 at 20:44












  • $begingroup$
    @AlexKruckman Why is that assumption necessary?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Dec 8 '18 at 20:45










  • $begingroup$
    For example, in the vocabulary $(c_a,c_b)$, $Gamma$ could be the set ${c_a = c_b}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Dec 8 '18 at 20:48










  • $begingroup$
    @AlexKruckman Thanks, that makes sense. Now, compactness requires that every finite subset of $Gamma'$ has a model but I'm not sure how I would go about proving that for every subset. Any hints?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Dec 8 '18 at 20:53














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes, compactness.
    $endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Dec 8 '18 at 20:43










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, with compactness. But it should be assumed that the constant symbols $c_i$ do not appear in $Gamma$, otherwise the statement is not true.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Dec 8 '18 at 20:44












  • $begingroup$
    @AlexKruckman Why is that assumption necessary?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Dec 8 '18 at 20:45










  • $begingroup$
    For example, in the vocabulary $(c_a,c_b)$, $Gamma$ could be the set ${c_a = c_b}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Dec 8 '18 at 20:48










  • $begingroup$
    @AlexKruckman Thanks, that makes sense. Now, compactness requires that every finite subset of $Gamma'$ has a model but I'm not sure how I would go about proving that for every subset. Any hints?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Dec 8 '18 at 20:53








1




1




$begingroup$
Yes, compactness.
$endgroup$
– Asaf Karagila
Dec 8 '18 at 20:43




$begingroup$
Yes, compactness.
$endgroup$
– Asaf Karagila
Dec 8 '18 at 20:43












$begingroup$
Yes, with compactness. But it should be assumed that the constant symbols $c_i$ do not appear in $Gamma$, otherwise the statement is not true.
$endgroup$
– Alex Kruckman
Dec 8 '18 at 20:44






$begingroup$
Yes, with compactness. But it should be assumed that the constant symbols $c_i$ do not appear in $Gamma$, otherwise the statement is not true.
$endgroup$
– Alex Kruckman
Dec 8 '18 at 20:44














$begingroup$
@AlexKruckman Why is that assumption necessary?
$endgroup$
– bof
Dec 8 '18 at 20:45




$begingroup$
@AlexKruckman Why is that assumption necessary?
$endgroup$
– bof
Dec 8 '18 at 20:45












$begingroup$
For example, in the vocabulary $(c_a,c_b)$, $Gamma$ could be the set ${c_a = c_b}$.
$endgroup$
– Alex Kruckman
Dec 8 '18 at 20:48




$begingroup$
For example, in the vocabulary $(c_a,c_b)$, $Gamma$ could be the set ${c_a = c_b}$.
$endgroup$
– Alex Kruckman
Dec 8 '18 at 20:48












$begingroup$
@AlexKruckman Thanks, that makes sense. Now, compactness requires that every finite subset of $Gamma'$ has a model but I'm not sure how I would go about proving that for every subset. Any hints?
$endgroup$
– bof
Dec 8 '18 at 20:53




$begingroup$
@AlexKruckman Thanks, that makes sense. Now, compactness requires that every finite subset of $Gamma'$ has a model but I'm not sure how I would go about proving that for every subset. Any hints?
$endgroup$
– bof
Dec 8 '18 at 20:53










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

A finite subset of $Gamma'$ is a finite subset of $Gamma$, together with the assertions that finitely many $c_1,dots,c_n$ are pairwise distinct.



Take any infinite model of $Gamma$ (which exists by assumption), interpret $c_1,dots,c_n$ as distinct elements, and interpret the rest of the constant symbols arbitrarily (we are free to do this, since the constant symbols are not mentioned in $Gamma$). This is a model of our finite subset of $Gamma'$. That's all there is to it.



This is the standard proof of the (upwards) Löwenheim-Skolem theorem.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you. This was very helpful.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:05










  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry but I have another question. Why can't we take any infinite model of $Gamma$ and interpret $c_i$ as distinct elements and use it for the model of $Gamma'$? What's special about finite subsets?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:19






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Because there might be more constants then there are elements of the model.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The point of the Löwenheim-Skolem theorem os to take a theory that has some infinite model (say a countably infinite one) and prove that it has models of all larger cardinities.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:41











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1 Answer
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1 Answer
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active

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1












$begingroup$

A finite subset of $Gamma'$ is a finite subset of $Gamma$, together with the assertions that finitely many $c_1,dots,c_n$ are pairwise distinct.



Take any infinite model of $Gamma$ (which exists by assumption), interpret $c_1,dots,c_n$ as distinct elements, and interpret the rest of the constant symbols arbitrarily (we are free to do this, since the constant symbols are not mentioned in $Gamma$). This is a model of our finite subset of $Gamma'$. That's all there is to it.



This is the standard proof of the (upwards) Löwenheim-Skolem theorem.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you. This was very helpful.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:05










  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry but I have another question. Why can't we take any infinite model of $Gamma$ and interpret $c_i$ as distinct elements and use it for the model of $Gamma'$? What's special about finite subsets?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:19






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Because there might be more constants then there are elements of the model.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The point of the Löwenheim-Skolem theorem os to take a theory that has some infinite model (say a countably infinite one) and prove that it has models of all larger cardinities.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:41
















1












$begingroup$

A finite subset of $Gamma'$ is a finite subset of $Gamma$, together with the assertions that finitely many $c_1,dots,c_n$ are pairwise distinct.



Take any infinite model of $Gamma$ (which exists by assumption), interpret $c_1,dots,c_n$ as distinct elements, and interpret the rest of the constant symbols arbitrarily (we are free to do this, since the constant symbols are not mentioned in $Gamma$). This is a model of our finite subset of $Gamma'$. That's all there is to it.



This is the standard proof of the (upwards) Löwenheim-Skolem theorem.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Thank you. This was very helpful.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:05










  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry but I have another question. Why can't we take any infinite model of $Gamma$ and interpret $c_i$ as distinct elements and use it for the model of $Gamma'$? What's special about finite subsets?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:19






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Because there might be more constants then there are elements of the model.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The point of the Löwenheim-Skolem theorem os to take a theory that has some infinite model (say a countably infinite one) and prove that it has models of all larger cardinities.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:41














1












1








1





$begingroup$

A finite subset of $Gamma'$ is a finite subset of $Gamma$, together with the assertions that finitely many $c_1,dots,c_n$ are pairwise distinct.



Take any infinite model of $Gamma$ (which exists by assumption), interpret $c_1,dots,c_n$ as distinct elements, and interpret the rest of the constant symbols arbitrarily (we are free to do this, since the constant symbols are not mentioned in $Gamma$). This is a model of our finite subset of $Gamma'$. That's all there is to it.



This is the standard proof of the (upwards) Löwenheim-Skolem theorem.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



A finite subset of $Gamma'$ is a finite subset of $Gamma$, together with the assertions that finitely many $c_1,dots,c_n$ are pairwise distinct.



Take any infinite model of $Gamma$ (which exists by assumption), interpret $c_1,dots,c_n$ as distinct elements, and interpret the rest of the constant symbols arbitrarily (we are free to do this, since the constant symbols are not mentioned in $Gamma$). This is a model of our finite subset of $Gamma'$. That's all there is to it.



This is the standard proof of the (upwards) Löwenheim-Skolem theorem.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 8 '18 at 20:57









Alex KruckmanAlex Kruckman

27k22556




27k22556












  • $begingroup$
    Thank you. This was very helpful.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:05










  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry but I have another question. Why can't we take any infinite model of $Gamma$ and interpret $c_i$ as distinct elements and use it for the model of $Gamma'$? What's special about finite subsets?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:19






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Because there might be more constants then there are elements of the model.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The point of the Löwenheim-Skolem theorem os to take a theory that has some infinite model (say a countably infinite one) and prove that it has models of all larger cardinities.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:41


















  • $begingroup$
    Thank you. This was very helpful.
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:05










  • $begingroup$
    I'm sorry but I have another question. Why can't we take any infinite model of $Gamma$ and interpret $c_i$ as distinct elements and use it for the model of $Gamma'$? What's special about finite subsets?
    $endgroup$
    – bof
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:19






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Because there might be more constants then there are elements of the model.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:39






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    The point of the Löwenheim-Skolem theorem os to take a theory that has some infinite model (say a countably infinite one) and prove that it has models of all larger cardinities.
    $endgroup$
    – Alex Kruckman
    Dec 8 '18 at 21:41
















$begingroup$
Thank you. This was very helpful.
$endgroup$
– bof
Dec 8 '18 at 21:05




$begingroup$
Thank you. This was very helpful.
$endgroup$
– bof
Dec 8 '18 at 21:05












$begingroup$
I'm sorry but I have another question. Why can't we take any infinite model of $Gamma$ and interpret $c_i$ as distinct elements and use it for the model of $Gamma'$? What's special about finite subsets?
$endgroup$
– bof
Dec 8 '18 at 21:19




$begingroup$
I'm sorry but I have another question. Why can't we take any infinite model of $Gamma$ and interpret $c_i$ as distinct elements and use it for the model of $Gamma'$? What's special about finite subsets?
$endgroup$
– bof
Dec 8 '18 at 21:19




1




1




$begingroup$
Because there might be more constants then there are elements of the model.
$endgroup$
– Alex Kruckman
Dec 8 '18 at 21:39




$begingroup$
Because there might be more constants then there are elements of the model.
$endgroup$
– Alex Kruckman
Dec 8 '18 at 21:39




1




1




$begingroup$
The point of the Löwenheim-Skolem theorem os to take a theory that has some infinite model (say a countably infinite one) and prove that it has models of all larger cardinities.
$endgroup$
– Alex Kruckman
Dec 8 '18 at 21:41




$begingroup$
The point of the Löwenheim-Skolem theorem os to take a theory that has some infinite model (say a countably infinite one) and prove that it has models of all larger cardinities.
$endgroup$
– Alex Kruckman
Dec 8 '18 at 21:41


















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