For any integer $n > 0$, when exactly is $x_1 oplus x_2 oplus cdots oplus x_n$, satisfied? Find a pattern,...
$begingroup$
For any integer $n > 0$, when exactly is $x_1 oplus x_2 oplus cdots oplus x_n$, satisfied?
Find a pattern, then use induction to prove
The pattern I found is its true if odd number of $1's$
$P(n): $ for string of n variable $x_1 oplus x_2 oplus cdots oplus x_n$ is true if and only if it has odd $#$ of $1's$
Attempt of proving withing induction
Base Case:
let $n = 1$
$1 oplus 0$ holds and $0 oplus 1$ holds (this is n = 2 nvm)
EDIT: Single variable and has to have odd number of $1's$ so it's 1 only meaning it holds
Inductive step: Let $n > 1$. Suppose $P(n)$ holds whenever $1 leq j < n$
WTP: $P(n)$
Two cases $x_1 = 0$ and $x_1 = 1$
could someone tell if the pattern is correct and how to go about this? Thank you.
case 1: $x_1 = 0 to $ odd $1's$ from $x_2$ to $x_n$
$0 oplus 1$ by IH it'll total to $1$, so holds
case 2: $x_1 = 1 to $ even $1's$ from $x_2$ to $x_n$
$1 oplus 0$ since there are only 0's, this holds
logic
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For any integer $n > 0$, when exactly is $x_1 oplus x_2 oplus cdots oplus x_n$, satisfied?
Find a pattern, then use induction to prove
The pattern I found is its true if odd number of $1's$
$P(n): $ for string of n variable $x_1 oplus x_2 oplus cdots oplus x_n$ is true if and only if it has odd $#$ of $1's$
Attempt of proving withing induction
Base Case:
let $n = 1$
$1 oplus 0$ holds and $0 oplus 1$ holds (this is n = 2 nvm)
EDIT: Single variable and has to have odd number of $1's$ so it's 1 only meaning it holds
Inductive step: Let $n > 1$. Suppose $P(n)$ holds whenever $1 leq j < n$
WTP: $P(n)$
Two cases $x_1 = 0$ and $x_1 = 1$
could someone tell if the pattern is correct and how to go about this? Thank you.
case 1: $x_1 = 0 to $ odd $1's$ from $x_2$ to $x_n$
$0 oplus 1$ by IH it'll total to $1$, so holds
case 2: $x_1 = 1 to $ even $1's$ from $x_2$ to $x_n$
$1 oplus 0$ since there are only 0's, this holds
logic
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Your base case doesn’t match it’s proof (you’re the proving $n=2 case here). The proof so far seems fine, although you may need a slightly stronger $P(n)$ (try turning it into an if-and-only-if).
$endgroup$
– platty
Dec 7 '18 at 5:00
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Took your advice and attempted the inductive step
$endgroup$
– Tree Garen
Dec 7 '18 at 5:10
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I recommend starting base cases at $0$ (strengthening the theorem a bit in this case). This is often simpler and the exercise of figuring out what the theorem means for $n=0$ is often enlightening.
$endgroup$
– Derek Elkins
Dec 7 '18 at 5:11
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The question states $n > 0$
$endgroup$
– Tree Garen
Dec 7 '18 at 5:13
1
$begingroup$
@TreeGaren Yes, hence my parenthetical comment about strengthening the theorem. If you've proven the theorem for $ngeq 0$, you've proven it for $n>0$ too.
$endgroup$
– Derek Elkins
Dec 7 '18 at 5:54
add a comment |
$begingroup$
For any integer $n > 0$, when exactly is $x_1 oplus x_2 oplus cdots oplus x_n$, satisfied?
Find a pattern, then use induction to prove
The pattern I found is its true if odd number of $1's$
$P(n): $ for string of n variable $x_1 oplus x_2 oplus cdots oplus x_n$ is true if and only if it has odd $#$ of $1's$
Attempt of proving withing induction
Base Case:
let $n = 1$
$1 oplus 0$ holds and $0 oplus 1$ holds (this is n = 2 nvm)
EDIT: Single variable and has to have odd number of $1's$ so it's 1 only meaning it holds
Inductive step: Let $n > 1$. Suppose $P(n)$ holds whenever $1 leq j < n$
WTP: $P(n)$
Two cases $x_1 = 0$ and $x_1 = 1$
could someone tell if the pattern is correct and how to go about this? Thank you.
case 1: $x_1 = 0 to $ odd $1's$ from $x_2$ to $x_n$
$0 oplus 1$ by IH it'll total to $1$, so holds
case 2: $x_1 = 1 to $ even $1's$ from $x_2$ to $x_n$
$1 oplus 0$ since there are only 0's, this holds
logic
$endgroup$
For any integer $n > 0$, when exactly is $x_1 oplus x_2 oplus cdots oplus x_n$, satisfied?
Find a pattern, then use induction to prove
The pattern I found is its true if odd number of $1's$
$P(n): $ for string of n variable $x_1 oplus x_2 oplus cdots oplus x_n$ is true if and only if it has odd $#$ of $1's$
Attempt of proving withing induction
Base Case:
let $n = 1$
$1 oplus 0$ holds and $0 oplus 1$ holds (this is n = 2 nvm)
EDIT: Single variable and has to have odd number of $1's$ so it's 1 only meaning it holds
Inductive step: Let $n > 1$. Suppose $P(n)$ holds whenever $1 leq j < n$
WTP: $P(n)$
Two cases $x_1 = 0$ and $x_1 = 1$
could someone tell if the pattern is correct and how to go about this? Thank you.
case 1: $x_1 = 0 to $ odd $1's$ from $x_2$ to $x_n$
$0 oplus 1$ by IH it'll total to $1$, so holds
case 2: $x_1 = 1 to $ even $1's$ from $x_2$ to $x_n$
$1 oplus 0$ since there are only 0's, this holds
logic
logic
edited Dec 7 '18 at 5:09
Tree Garen
asked Dec 7 '18 at 4:55
Tree GarenTree Garen
36219
36219
$begingroup$
Your base case doesn’t match it’s proof (you’re the proving $n=2 case here). The proof so far seems fine, although you may need a slightly stronger $P(n)$ (try turning it into an if-and-only-if).
$endgroup$
– platty
Dec 7 '18 at 5:00
$begingroup$
Took your advice and attempted the inductive step
$endgroup$
– Tree Garen
Dec 7 '18 at 5:10
$begingroup$
I recommend starting base cases at $0$ (strengthening the theorem a bit in this case). This is often simpler and the exercise of figuring out what the theorem means for $n=0$ is often enlightening.
$endgroup$
– Derek Elkins
Dec 7 '18 at 5:11
$begingroup$
The question states $n > 0$
$endgroup$
– Tree Garen
Dec 7 '18 at 5:13
1
$begingroup$
@TreeGaren Yes, hence my parenthetical comment about strengthening the theorem. If you've proven the theorem for $ngeq 0$, you've proven it for $n>0$ too.
$endgroup$
– Derek Elkins
Dec 7 '18 at 5:54
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Your base case doesn’t match it’s proof (you’re the proving $n=2 case here). The proof so far seems fine, although you may need a slightly stronger $P(n)$ (try turning it into an if-and-only-if).
$endgroup$
– platty
Dec 7 '18 at 5:00
$begingroup$
Took your advice and attempted the inductive step
$endgroup$
– Tree Garen
Dec 7 '18 at 5:10
$begingroup$
I recommend starting base cases at $0$ (strengthening the theorem a bit in this case). This is often simpler and the exercise of figuring out what the theorem means for $n=0$ is often enlightening.
$endgroup$
– Derek Elkins
Dec 7 '18 at 5:11
$begingroup$
The question states $n > 0$
$endgroup$
– Tree Garen
Dec 7 '18 at 5:13
1
$begingroup$
@TreeGaren Yes, hence my parenthetical comment about strengthening the theorem. If you've proven the theorem for $ngeq 0$, you've proven it for $n>0$ too.
$endgroup$
– Derek Elkins
Dec 7 '18 at 5:54
$begingroup$
Your base case doesn’t match it’s proof (you’re the proving $n=2 case here). The proof so far seems fine, although you may need a slightly stronger $P(n)$ (try turning it into an if-and-only-if).
$endgroup$
– platty
Dec 7 '18 at 5:00
$begingroup$
Your base case doesn’t match it’s proof (you’re the proving $n=2 case here). The proof so far seems fine, although you may need a slightly stronger $P(n)$ (try turning it into an if-and-only-if).
$endgroup$
– platty
Dec 7 '18 at 5:00
$begingroup$
Took your advice and attempted the inductive step
$endgroup$
– Tree Garen
Dec 7 '18 at 5:10
$begingroup$
Took your advice and attempted the inductive step
$endgroup$
– Tree Garen
Dec 7 '18 at 5:10
$begingroup$
I recommend starting base cases at $0$ (strengthening the theorem a bit in this case). This is often simpler and the exercise of figuring out what the theorem means for $n=0$ is often enlightening.
$endgroup$
– Derek Elkins
Dec 7 '18 at 5:11
$begingroup$
I recommend starting base cases at $0$ (strengthening the theorem a bit in this case). This is often simpler and the exercise of figuring out what the theorem means for $n=0$ is often enlightening.
$endgroup$
– Derek Elkins
Dec 7 '18 at 5:11
$begingroup$
The question states $n > 0$
$endgroup$
– Tree Garen
Dec 7 '18 at 5:13
$begingroup$
The question states $n > 0$
$endgroup$
– Tree Garen
Dec 7 '18 at 5:13
1
1
$begingroup$
@TreeGaren Yes, hence my parenthetical comment about strengthening the theorem. If you've proven the theorem for $ngeq 0$, you've proven it for $n>0$ too.
$endgroup$
– Derek Elkins
Dec 7 '18 at 5:54
$begingroup$
@TreeGaren Yes, hence my parenthetical comment about strengthening the theorem. If you've proven the theorem for $ngeq 0$, you've proven it for $n>0$ too.
$endgroup$
– Derek Elkins
Dec 7 '18 at 5:54
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Your base case doesn’t match it’s proof (you’re the proving $n=2 case here). The proof so far seems fine, although you may need a slightly stronger $P(n)$ (try turning it into an if-and-only-if).
$endgroup$
– platty
Dec 7 '18 at 5:00
$begingroup$
Took your advice and attempted the inductive step
$endgroup$
– Tree Garen
Dec 7 '18 at 5:10
$begingroup$
I recommend starting base cases at $0$ (strengthening the theorem a bit in this case). This is often simpler and the exercise of figuring out what the theorem means for $n=0$ is often enlightening.
$endgroup$
– Derek Elkins
Dec 7 '18 at 5:11
$begingroup$
The question states $n > 0$
$endgroup$
– Tree Garen
Dec 7 '18 at 5:13
1
$begingroup$
@TreeGaren Yes, hence my parenthetical comment about strengthening the theorem. If you've proven the theorem for $ngeq 0$, you've proven it for $n>0$ too.
$endgroup$
– Derek Elkins
Dec 7 '18 at 5:54