If $U$ is a subspace of $Bbb R^n$ and let $x,yin Bbb R^n$ with $(x+y)in U$ then is it true that $xin U$ and...












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If $U$ is a subspace of $Bbb R^n$ and let $x,yin Bbb R^n$ with $(x+y)in U$ then is it true that $xin U$ and $yin U$.
It looks like it is true since x+y follows under addition, under multiplication and the trivial solution zero vector but I would like a formal interpretation, thank you for your answers










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    $begingroup$
    Take $U$ to be the zero subspace. Take $x$ to be a non zero vector. Take $y$ to be $-x$.
    $endgroup$
    – user614671
    Dec 6 '18 at 19:50
















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$begingroup$


If $U$ is a subspace of $Bbb R^n$ and let $x,yin Bbb R^n$ with $(x+y)in U$ then is it true that $xin U$ and $yin U$.
It looks like it is true since x+y follows under addition, under multiplication and the trivial solution zero vector but I would like a formal interpretation, thank you for your answers










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Take $U$ to be the zero subspace. Take $x$ to be a non zero vector. Take $y$ to be $-x$.
    $endgroup$
    – user614671
    Dec 6 '18 at 19:50














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0





$begingroup$


If $U$ is a subspace of $Bbb R^n$ and let $x,yin Bbb R^n$ with $(x+y)in U$ then is it true that $xin U$ and $yin U$.
It looks like it is true since x+y follows under addition, under multiplication and the trivial solution zero vector but I would like a formal interpretation, thank you for your answers










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




If $U$ is a subspace of $Bbb R^n$ and let $x,yin Bbb R^n$ with $(x+y)in U$ then is it true that $xin U$ and $yin U$.
It looks like it is true since x+y follows under addition, under multiplication and the trivial solution zero vector but I would like a formal interpretation, thank you for your answers







linear-algebra






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edited Dec 6 '18 at 19:42









UserS

1,5391112




1,5391112










asked Dec 6 '18 at 19:23









Venik N.Venik N.

32




32








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Take $U$ to be the zero subspace. Take $x$ to be a non zero vector. Take $y$ to be $-x$.
    $endgroup$
    – user614671
    Dec 6 '18 at 19:50














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Take $U$ to be the zero subspace. Take $x$ to be a non zero vector. Take $y$ to be $-x$.
    $endgroup$
    – user614671
    Dec 6 '18 at 19:50








1




1




$begingroup$
Take $U$ to be the zero subspace. Take $x$ to be a non zero vector. Take $y$ to be $-x$.
$endgroup$
– user614671
Dec 6 '18 at 19:50




$begingroup$
Take $U$ to be the zero subspace. Take $x$ to be a non zero vector. Take $y$ to be $-x$.
$endgroup$
– user614671
Dec 6 '18 at 19:50










3 Answers
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No. Its not true. Here is a counterexample. Suppose we are in $mathbb{R} ^2$. Take $x=(1, 0),y=(0,1)$ and let $U=span(1,1)$. Then $x+yin U$ but neither $x$ nor $y$ is.






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    Note that every vector subspace contains zero vector. Now let $$U={lambda (1,0,0,....,0)in Bbb R^n :lambdain Bbb R}.$$ Then $(0,-1,0,0,....,0),(0,1,0,0,....,0)$ are not in $U$ but there sum is $(0,0,0,....,0)=0(1,0,0,....,0)in U$.






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      $begingroup$

      Let $U$={$(a,b)|a=b$}, $x=(1,0)$, $y=(0,1)$.






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        3 Answers
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        3 Answers
        3






        active

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        active

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        1












        $begingroup$

        No. Its not true. Here is a counterexample. Suppose we are in $mathbb{R} ^2$. Take $x=(1, 0),y=(0,1)$ and let $U=span(1,1)$. Then $x+yin U$ but neither $x$ nor $y$ is.






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          1












          $begingroup$

          No. Its not true. Here is a counterexample. Suppose we are in $mathbb{R} ^2$. Take $x=(1, 0),y=(0,1)$ and let $U=span(1,1)$. Then $x+yin U$ but neither $x$ nor $y$ is.






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            1












            1








            1





            $begingroup$

            No. Its not true. Here is a counterexample. Suppose we are in $mathbb{R} ^2$. Take $x=(1, 0),y=(0,1)$ and let $U=span(1,1)$. Then $x+yin U$ but neither $x$ nor $y$ is.






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            $endgroup$



            No. Its not true. Here is a counterexample. Suppose we are in $mathbb{R} ^2$. Take $x=(1, 0),y=(0,1)$ and let $U=span(1,1)$. Then $x+yin U$ but neither $x$ nor $y$ is.







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            answered Dec 6 '18 at 19:52









            Arpan DasArpan Das

            837




            837























                0












                $begingroup$

                Note that every vector subspace contains zero vector. Now let $$U={lambda (1,0,0,....,0)in Bbb R^n :lambdain Bbb R}.$$ Then $(0,-1,0,0,....,0),(0,1,0,0,....,0)$ are not in $U$ but there sum is $(0,0,0,....,0)=0(1,0,0,....,0)in U$.






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                  0












                  $begingroup$

                  Note that every vector subspace contains zero vector. Now let $$U={lambda (1,0,0,....,0)in Bbb R^n :lambdain Bbb R}.$$ Then $(0,-1,0,0,....,0),(0,1,0,0,....,0)$ are not in $U$ but there sum is $(0,0,0,....,0)=0(1,0,0,....,0)in U$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$
















                    0












                    0








                    0





                    $begingroup$

                    Note that every vector subspace contains zero vector. Now let $$U={lambda (1,0,0,....,0)in Bbb R^n :lambdain Bbb R}.$$ Then $(0,-1,0,0,....,0),(0,1,0,0,....,0)$ are not in $U$ but there sum is $(0,0,0,....,0)=0(1,0,0,....,0)in U$.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    Note that every vector subspace contains zero vector. Now let $$U={lambda (1,0,0,....,0)in Bbb R^n :lambdain Bbb R}.$$ Then $(0,-1,0,0,....,0),(0,1,0,0,....,0)$ are not in $U$ but there sum is $(0,0,0,....,0)=0(1,0,0,....,0)in U$.







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                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Dec 6 '18 at 19:33









                    UserSUserS

                    1,5391112




                    1,5391112























                        0












                        $begingroup$

                        Let $U$={$(a,b)|a=b$}, $x=(1,0)$, $y=(0,1)$.






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                          $begingroup$

                          Let $U$={$(a,b)|a=b$}, $x=(1,0)$, $y=(0,1)$.






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                            $begingroup$

                            Let $U$={$(a,b)|a=b$}, $x=(1,0)$, $y=(0,1)$.






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                            Let $U$={$(a,b)|a=b$}, $x=(1,0)$, $y=(0,1)$.







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                            answered Dec 6 '18 at 19:50









                            NedNed

                            1,993910




                            1,993910






























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