What is the expected percentage of targets hit when n arrows are shot to n targets?












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n arrows are shot to n targets and each arrow will hit one of the targets, each target having the same probabilty (1/n) to be hit by the arrow, independent of the previous shots.
We divide the n targets into the ones hit (by 1 or more arrows) and the ones not hit. What is the expected percentage of the targets hit?
It is easy to see that it is more than 50% and less than 75%. Is the golden ratio 61.8% the expected percentage? (in the limit for growing n)

Additional question: If one considers only the hit targets, what is the expected percentage of them to be hit by exactly 1 arrow?










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    0












    $begingroup$


    n arrows are shot to n targets and each arrow will hit one of the targets, each target having the same probabilty (1/n) to be hit by the arrow, independent of the previous shots.
    We divide the n targets into the ones hit (by 1 or more arrows) and the ones not hit. What is the expected percentage of the targets hit?
    It is easy to see that it is more than 50% and less than 75%. Is the golden ratio 61.8% the expected percentage? (in the limit for growing n)

    Additional question: If one considers only the hit targets, what is the expected percentage of them to be hit by exactly 1 arrow?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      n arrows are shot to n targets and each arrow will hit one of the targets, each target having the same probabilty (1/n) to be hit by the arrow, independent of the previous shots.
      We divide the n targets into the ones hit (by 1 or more arrows) and the ones not hit. What is the expected percentage of the targets hit?
      It is easy to see that it is more than 50% and less than 75%. Is the golden ratio 61.8% the expected percentage? (in the limit for growing n)

      Additional question: If one considers only the hit targets, what is the expected percentage of them to be hit by exactly 1 arrow?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      n arrows are shot to n targets and each arrow will hit one of the targets, each target having the same probabilty (1/n) to be hit by the arrow, independent of the previous shots.
      We divide the n targets into the ones hit (by 1 or more arrows) and the ones not hit. What is the expected percentage of the targets hit?
      It is easy to see that it is more than 50% and less than 75%. Is the golden ratio 61.8% the expected percentage? (in the limit for growing n)

      Additional question: If one considers only the hit targets, what is the expected percentage of them to be hit by exactly 1 arrow?







      probability






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      asked Dec 6 '18 at 19:39







      user623654





























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          $begingroup$

          Let us define the probability $p$ that a given target is hit by a given arrow : $p = 1/n$



          After $n$ tries, the probability that a target in not hit is $(1-p)^n$.



          The probability that a target is hit is therefore
          $$P_h = 1 - (1-p)^n = 1 - left(1 - frac{1}{n}right)^n$$



          This correspond to the pourcentage of hit targets.



          As $n to infty$, this probability converge to $1-e^{-1}$, about 63.2%.



          The probabilty that one target is hit by exactly one arrow is equal to
          $$np(1-p)^{n-1} = left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^{n-1}$$



          If we consider the hit targets only, the ratio is equal to



          $$frac{left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^{n-1}}{1 - left(1 - frac{1}{n}right)^n} $$



          As $n to infty$, this probability converges to



          $$frac{e^{-1}}{1-e^{-1}} = frac{1}{e-1} $$



          About 58%






          share|cite|improve this answer











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          • $begingroup$
            I hope there is no mistake ! No need to cite me, happy to have helped you
            $endgroup$
            – Damien
            Dec 7 '18 at 10:36











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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          0












          $begingroup$

          Let us define the probability $p$ that a given target is hit by a given arrow : $p = 1/n$



          After $n$ tries, the probability that a target in not hit is $(1-p)^n$.



          The probability that a target is hit is therefore
          $$P_h = 1 - (1-p)^n = 1 - left(1 - frac{1}{n}right)^n$$



          This correspond to the pourcentage of hit targets.



          As $n to infty$, this probability converge to $1-e^{-1}$, about 63.2%.



          The probabilty that one target is hit by exactly one arrow is equal to
          $$np(1-p)^{n-1} = left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^{n-1}$$



          If we consider the hit targets only, the ratio is equal to



          $$frac{left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^{n-1}}{1 - left(1 - frac{1}{n}right)^n} $$



          As $n to infty$, this probability converges to



          $$frac{e^{-1}}{1-e^{-1}} = frac{1}{e-1} $$



          About 58%






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I hope there is no mistake ! No need to cite me, happy to have helped you
            $endgroup$
            – Damien
            Dec 7 '18 at 10:36
















          0












          $begingroup$

          Let us define the probability $p$ that a given target is hit by a given arrow : $p = 1/n$



          After $n$ tries, the probability that a target in not hit is $(1-p)^n$.



          The probability that a target is hit is therefore
          $$P_h = 1 - (1-p)^n = 1 - left(1 - frac{1}{n}right)^n$$



          This correspond to the pourcentage of hit targets.



          As $n to infty$, this probability converge to $1-e^{-1}$, about 63.2%.



          The probabilty that one target is hit by exactly one arrow is equal to
          $$np(1-p)^{n-1} = left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^{n-1}$$



          If we consider the hit targets only, the ratio is equal to



          $$frac{left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^{n-1}}{1 - left(1 - frac{1}{n}right)^n} $$



          As $n to infty$, this probability converges to



          $$frac{e^{-1}}{1-e^{-1}} = frac{1}{e-1} $$



          About 58%






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I hope there is no mistake ! No need to cite me, happy to have helped you
            $endgroup$
            – Damien
            Dec 7 '18 at 10:36














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          Let us define the probability $p$ that a given target is hit by a given arrow : $p = 1/n$



          After $n$ tries, the probability that a target in not hit is $(1-p)^n$.



          The probability that a target is hit is therefore
          $$P_h = 1 - (1-p)^n = 1 - left(1 - frac{1}{n}right)^n$$



          This correspond to the pourcentage of hit targets.



          As $n to infty$, this probability converge to $1-e^{-1}$, about 63.2%.



          The probabilty that one target is hit by exactly one arrow is equal to
          $$np(1-p)^{n-1} = left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^{n-1}$$



          If we consider the hit targets only, the ratio is equal to



          $$frac{left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^{n-1}}{1 - left(1 - frac{1}{n}right)^n} $$



          As $n to infty$, this probability converges to



          $$frac{e^{-1}}{1-e^{-1}} = frac{1}{e-1} $$



          About 58%






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Let us define the probability $p$ that a given target is hit by a given arrow : $p = 1/n$



          After $n$ tries, the probability that a target in not hit is $(1-p)^n$.



          The probability that a target is hit is therefore
          $$P_h = 1 - (1-p)^n = 1 - left(1 - frac{1}{n}right)^n$$



          This correspond to the pourcentage of hit targets.



          As $n to infty$, this probability converge to $1-e^{-1}$, about 63.2%.



          The probabilty that one target is hit by exactly one arrow is equal to
          $$np(1-p)^{n-1} = left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^{n-1}$$



          If we consider the hit targets only, the ratio is equal to



          $$frac{left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^{n-1}}{1 - left(1 - frac{1}{n}right)^n} $$



          As $n to infty$, this probability converges to



          $$frac{e^{-1}}{1-e^{-1}} = frac{1}{e-1} $$



          About 58%







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 6 '18 at 20:49

























          answered Dec 6 '18 at 20:42









          DamienDamien

          58214




          58214












          • $begingroup$
            I hope there is no mistake ! No need to cite me, happy to have helped you
            $endgroup$
            – Damien
            Dec 7 '18 at 10:36


















          • $begingroup$
            I hope there is no mistake ! No need to cite me, happy to have helped you
            $endgroup$
            – Damien
            Dec 7 '18 at 10:36
















          $begingroup$
          I hope there is no mistake ! No need to cite me, happy to have helped you
          $endgroup$
          – Damien
          Dec 7 '18 at 10:36




          $begingroup$
          I hope there is no mistake ! No need to cite me, happy to have helped you
          $endgroup$
          – Damien
          Dec 7 '18 at 10:36


















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