What is the expected percentage of targets hit when n arrows are shot to n targets?
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n arrows are shot to n targets and each arrow will hit one of the targets, each target having the same probabilty (1/n) to be hit by the arrow, independent of the previous shots.
We divide the n targets into the ones hit (by 1 or more arrows) and the ones not hit. What is the expected percentage of the targets hit?
It is easy to see that it is more than 50% and less than 75%. Is the golden ratio 61.8% the expected percentage? (in the limit for growing n)
Additional question: If one considers only the hit targets, what is the expected percentage of them to be hit by exactly 1 arrow?
probability
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
n arrows are shot to n targets and each arrow will hit one of the targets, each target having the same probabilty (1/n) to be hit by the arrow, independent of the previous shots.
We divide the n targets into the ones hit (by 1 or more arrows) and the ones not hit. What is the expected percentage of the targets hit?
It is easy to see that it is more than 50% and less than 75%. Is the golden ratio 61.8% the expected percentage? (in the limit for growing n)
Additional question: If one considers only the hit targets, what is the expected percentage of them to be hit by exactly 1 arrow?
probability
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
n arrows are shot to n targets and each arrow will hit one of the targets, each target having the same probabilty (1/n) to be hit by the arrow, independent of the previous shots.
We divide the n targets into the ones hit (by 1 or more arrows) and the ones not hit. What is the expected percentage of the targets hit?
It is easy to see that it is more than 50% and less than 75%. Is the golden ratio 61.8% the expected percentage? (in the limit for growing n)
Additional question: If one considers only the hit targets, what is the expected percentage of them to be hit by exactly 1 arrow?
probability
$endgroup$
n arrows are shot to n targets and each arrow will hit one of the targets, each target having the same probabilty (1/n) to be hit by the arrow, independent of the previous shots.
We divide the n targets into the ones hit (by 1 or more arrows) and the ones not hit. What is the expected percentage of the targets hit?
It is easy to see that it is more than 50% and less than 75%. Is the golden ratio 61.8% the expected percentage? (in the limit for growing n)
Additional question: If one considers only the hit targets, what is the expected percentage of them to be hit by exactly 1 arrow?
probability
probability
asked Dec 6 '18 at 19:39
user623654
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Let us define the probability $p$ that a given target is hit by a given arrow : $p = 1/n$
After $n$ tries, the probability that a target in not hit is $(1-p)^n$.
The probability that a target is hit is therefore
$$P_h = 1 - (1-p)^n = 1 - left(1 - frac{1}{n}right)^n$$
This correspond to the pourcentage of hit targets.
As $n to infty$, this probability converge to $1-e^{-1}$, about 63.2%.
The probabilty that one target is hit by exactly one arrow is equal to
$$np(1-p)^{n-1} = left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^{n-1}$$
If we consider the hit targets only, the ratio is equal to
$$frac{left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^{n-1}}{1 - left(1 - frac{1}{n}right)^n} $$
As $n to infty$, this probability converges to
$$frac{e^{-1}}{1-e^{-1}} = frac{1}{e-1} $$
About 58%
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I hope there is no mistake ! No need to cite me, happy to have helped you
$endgroup$
– Damien
Dec 7 '18 at 10:36
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Let us define the probability $p$ that a given target is hit by a given arrow : $p = 1/n$
After $n$ tries, the probability that a target in not hit is $(1-p)^n$.
The probability that a target is hit is therefore
$$P_h = 1 - (1-p)^n = 1 - left(1 - frac{1}{n}right)^n$$
This correspond to the pourcentage of hit targets.
As $n to infty$, this probability converge to $1-e^{-1}$, about 63.2%.
The probabilty that one target is hit by exactly one arrow is equal to
$$np(1-p)^{n-1} = left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^{n-1}$$
If we consider the hit targets only, the ratio is equal to
$$frac{left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^{n-1}}{1 - left(1 - frac{1}{n}right)^n} $$
As $n to infty$, this probability converges to
$$frac{e^{-1}}{1-e^{-1}} = frac{1}{e-1} $$
About 58%
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I hope there is no mistake ! No need to cite me, happy to have helped you
$endgroup$
– Damien
Dec 7 '18 at 10:36
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let us define the probability $p$ that a given target is hit by a given arrow : $p = 1/n$
After $n$ tries, the probability that a target in not hit is $(1-p)^n$.
The probability that a target is hit is therefore
$$P_h = 1 - (1-p)^n = 1 - left(1 - frac{1}{n}right)^n$$
This correspond to the pourcentage of hit targets.
As $n to infty$, this probability converge to $1-e^{-1}$, about 63.2%.
The probabilty that one target is hit by exactly one arrow is equal to
$$np(1-p)^{n-1} = left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^{n-1}$$
If we consider the hit targets only, the ratio is equal to
$$frac{left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^{n-1}}{1 - left(1 - frac{1}{n}right)^n} $$
As $n to infty$, this probability converges to
$$frac{e^{-1}}{1-e^{-1}} = frac{1}{e-1} $$
About 58%
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I hope there is no mistake ! No need to cite me, happy to have helped you
$endgroup$
– Damien
Dec 7 '18 at 10:36
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let us define the probability $p$ that a given target is hit by a given arrow : $p = 1/n$
After $n$ tries, the probability that a target in not hit is $(1-p)^n$.
The probability that a target is hit is therefore
$$P_h = 1 - (1-p)^n = 1 - left(1 - frac{1}{n}right)^n$$
This correspond to the pourcentage of hit targets.
As $n to infty$, this probability converge to $1-e^{-1}$, about 63.2%.
The probabilty that one target is hit by exactly one arrow is equal to
$$np(1-p)^{n-1} = left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^{n-1}$$
If we consider the hit targets only, the ratio is equal to
$$frac{left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^{n-1}}{1 - left(1 - frac{1}{n}right)^n} $$
As $n to infty$, this probability converges to
$$frac{e^{-1}}{1-e^{-1}} = frac{1}{e-1} $$
About 58%
$endgroup$
Let us define the probability $p$ that a given target is hit by a given arrow : $p = 1/n$
After $n$ tries, the probability that a target in not hit is $(1-p)^n$.
The probability that a target is hit is therefore
$$P_h = 1 - (1-p)^n = 1 - left(1 - frac{1}{n}right)^n$$
This correspond to the pourcentage of hit targets.
As $n to infty$, this probability converge to $1-e^{-1}$, about 63.2%.
The probabilty that one target is hit by exactly one arrow is equal to
$$np(1-p)^{n-1} = left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^{n-1}$$
If we consider the hit targets only, the ratio is equal to
$$frac{left(1-frac{1}{n}right)^{n-1}}{1 - left(1 - frac{1}{n}right)^n} $$
As $n to infty$, this probability converges to
$$frac{e^{-1}}{1-e^{-1}} = frac{1}{e-1} $$
About 58%
edited Dec 6 '18 at 20:49
answered Dec 6 '18 at 20:42
DamienDamien
58214
58214
$begingroup$
I hope there is no mistake ! No need to cite me, happy to have helped you
$endgroup$
– Damien
Dec 7 '18 at 10:36
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I hope there is no mistake ! No need to cite me, happy to have helped you
$endgroup$
– Damien
Dec 7 '18 at 10:36
$begingroup$
I hope there is no mistake ! No need to cite me, happy to have helped you
$endgroup$
– Damien
Dec 7 '18 at 10:36
$begingroup$
I hope there is no mistake ! No need to cite me, happy to have helped you
$endgroup$
– Damien
Dec 7 '18 at 10:36
add a comment |
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