Show that $int_{mathbb{R}} |mathbb{E}(e^{i xi X})|^2 , dxi < infty$ implies $P(X=x)=0, forall...
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This question already has an answer here:
If characteristic function is $L^2$ does it mean that the distribution is absolutely continuos?
1 answer
Let $X$ be a real-valued random variable with $varphi_Xin L^2(mathbb{R})$, where $varphi_X$ denotes the characteristic function of $X$. Prove that $P(X=x)=0, forall xinmathbb{R}$.
Since $varphi_Xin L^2(mathbb{R})$, I believe that implies that $X$ must be continuous, then we use that to conclude that $P(X=x)=0$ for all $xinmathbb{R}$. However, I am having a hard time formalizing this idea. Any help would be appreciated.
probability-theory measure-theory characteristic-functions
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marked as duplicate by Clement C., Lord Shark the Unknown, Cesareo, amWhy, Community♦ Dec 7 '18 at 15:30
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This question already has an answer here:
If characteristic function is $L^2$ does it mean that the distribution is absolutely continuos?
1 answer
Let $X$ be a real-valued random variable with $varphi_Xin L^2(mathbb{R})$, where $varphi_X$ denotes the characteristic function of $X$. Prove that $P(X=x)=0, forall xinmathbb{R}$.
Since $varphi_Xin L^2(mathbb{R})$, I believe that implies that $X$ must be continuous, then we use that to conclude that $P(X=x)=0$ for all $xinmathbb{R}$. However, I am having a hard time formalizing this idea. Any help would be appreciated.
probability-theory measure-theory characteristic-functions
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marked as duplicate by Clement C., Lord Shark the Unknown, Cesareo, amWhy, Community♦ Dec 7 '18 at 15:30
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
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@Digitalis that is not the same question that I am asking.
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– Dragonite
Dec 6 '18 at 19:51
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Which part of the question do you have a hard time formalising ?
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– Digitalis
Dec 6 '18 at 20:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
This question already has an answer here:
If characteristic function is $L^2$ does it mean that the distribution is absolutely continuos?
1 answer
Let $X$ be a real-valued random variable with $varphi_Xin L^2(mathbb{R})$, where $varphi_X$ denotes the characteristic function of $X$. Prove that $P(X=x)=0, forall xinmathbb{R}$.
Since $varphi_Xin L^2(mathbb{R})$, I believe that implies that $X$ must be continuous, then we use that to conclude that $P(X=x)=0$ for all $xinmathbb{R}$. However, I am having a hard time formalizing this idea. Any help would be appreciated.
probability-theory measure-theory characteristic-functions
$endgroup$
This question already has an answer here:
If characteristic function is $L^2$ does it mean that the distribution is absolutely continuos?
1 answer
Let $X$ be a real-valued random variable with $varphi_Xin L^2(mathbb{R})$, where $varphi_X$ denotes the characteristic function of $X$. Prove that $P(X=x)=0, forall xinmathbb{R}$.
Since $varphi_Xin L^2(mathbb{R})$, I believe that implies that $X$ must be continuous, then we use that to conclude that $P(X=x)=0$ for all $xinmathbb{R}$. However, I am having a hard time formalizing this idea. Any help would be appreciated.
This question already has an answer here:
If characteristic function is $L^2$ does it mean that the distribution is absolutely continuos?
1 answer
probability-theory measure-theory characteristic-functions
probability-theory measure-theory characteristic-functions
edited Dec 6 '18 at 20:41
saz
79k858123
79k858123
asked Dec 6 '18 at 19:12
DragoniteDragonite
1,045420
1,045420
marked as duplicate by Clement C., Lord Shark the Unknown, Cesareo, amWhy, Community♦ Dec 7 '18 at 15:30
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
marked as duplicate by Clement C., Lord Shark the Unknown, Cesareo, amWhy, Community♦ Dec 7 '18 at 15:30
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
$begingroup$
@Digitalis that is not the same question that I am asking.
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– Dragonite
Dec 6 '18 at 19:51
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Which part of the question do you have a hard time formalising ?
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– Digitalis
Dec 6 '18 at 20:15
add a comment |
$begingroup$
@Digitalis that is not the same question that I am asking.
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– Dragonite
Dec 6 '18 at 19:51
$begingroup$
Which part of the question do you have a hard time formalising ?
$endgroup$
– Digitalis
Dec 6 '18 at 20:15
$begingroup$
@Digitalis that is not the same question that I am asking.
$endgroup$
– Dragonite
Dec 6 '18 at 19:51
$begingroup$
@Digitalis that is not the same question that I am asking.
$endgroup$
– Dragonite
Dec 6 '18 at 19:51
$begingroup$
Which part of the question do you have a hard time formalising ?
$endgroup$
– Digitalis
Dec 6 '18 at 20:15
$begingroup$
Which part of the question do you have a hard time formalising ?
$endgroup$
– Digitalis
Dec 6 '18 at 20:15
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
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Hints: Show the following auxiliary statements:
- Let $chi$ be the characteristic function of a real-valued random variable $Y$ with distribution $mu$, i.e. $$chi(xi) = mathbb{E}e^{i xi Y} = int_{mathbb{R}} e^{i xi y} mu(dy).$$ Apply Fubini's theorem to show that $$frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T chi(xi) e^{-ix xi} dxi = mu({x}) + int_{mathbb{R} backslash {x}} frac{sin(T(y-x))}{T(y-x)} mu(dy).$$ Use the dominated convergence theorem to let $T to infty$: $$lim_{T to infty} frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T chi(xi) e^{-ix xi} , dxi = mu({x}) = mathbb{P}(Y=x).$$
- Let $phi$ be the characteristic function of a real-valued random variable $X$. Show that $|phi|^2$ is the characteristic function of the random variable $Y:=X-X'$ where $X' sim X$ is an independent copy of $X$.
Now let $X$ be a random variable such that its characteristic function $phi$ is square-integrable. By Step 2, we know that $|phi|^2$ is the characteristic function of $Y=X-X'$ where $X' sim X$ is an independent copy of $X$. Since
$$lim_{T to infty} left| frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T |phi(xi)|^2 e^{-ix xi} dxi right| leq lim_{T to infty} frac{1}{2T} int_{mathbb{R}} |phi(xi)|^2 d xi =0$$
it follows from Step 1 (applied to $chi=|phi|^2$) that
$$mathbb{P}(Y=x) = 0$$
for all $x in mathbb{R}^d$. Since $Y=X-X'$ for $X sim X'$ independent, this implies that $mathbb{P}(X=x)=0$ for all $x in mathbb{R}^d$.
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Would the downvoter care to comment?I'm always interested in improving my answers.
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– saz
Dec 7 '18 at 15:36
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No idea ( I didn't vote, though I am not entirely following the hint).
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– Clement C.
Dec 7 '18 at 15:41
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Hints: Show the following auxiliary statements:
- Let $chi$ be the characteristic function of a real-valued random variable $Y$ with distribution $mu$, i.e. $$chi(xi) = mathbb{E}e^{i xi Y} = int_{mathbb{R}} e^{i xi y} mu(dy).$$ Apply Fubini's theorem to show that $$frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T chi(xi) e^{-ix xi} dxi = mu({x}) + int_{mathbb{R} backslash {x}} frac{sin(T(y-x))}{T(y-x)} mu(dy).$$ Use the dominated convergence theorem to let $T to infty$: $$lim_{T to infty} frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T chi(xi) e^{-ix xi} , dxi = mu({x}) = mathbb{P}(Y=x).$$
- Let $phi$ be the characteristic function of a real-valued random variable $X$. Show that $|phi|^2$ is the characteristic function of the random variable $Y:=X-X'$ where $X' sim X$ is an independent copy of $X$.
Now let $X$ be a random variable such that its characteristic function $phi$ is square-integrable. By Step 2, we know that $|phi|^2$ is the characteristic function of $Y=X-X'$ where $X' sim X$ is an independent copy of $X$. Since
$$lim_{T to infty} left| frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T |phi(xi)|^2 e^{-ix xi} dxi right| leq lim_{T to infty} frac{1}{2T} int_{mathbb{R}} |phi(xi)|^2 d xi =0$$
it follows from Step 1 (applied to $chi=|phi|^2$) that
$$mathbb{P}(Y=x) = 0$$
for all $x in mathbb{R}^d$. Since $Y=X-X'$ for $X sim X'$ independent, this implies that $mathbb{P}(X=x)=0$ for all $x in mathbb{R}^d$.
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Would the downvoter care to comment?I'm always interested in improving my answers.
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– saz
Dec 7 '18 at 15:36
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No idea ( I didn't vote, though I am not entirely following the hint).
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Dec 7 '18 at 15:41
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hints: Show the following auxiliary statements:
- Let $chi$ be the characteristic function of a real-valued random variable $Y$ with distribution $mu$, i.e. $$chi(xi) = mathbb{E}e^{i xi Y} = int_{mathbb{R}} e^{i xi y} mu(dy).$$ Apply Fubini's theorem to show that $$frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T chi(xi) e^{-ix xi} dxi = mu({x}) + int_{mathbb{R} backslash {x}} frac{sin(T(y-x))}{T(y-x)} mu(dy).$$ Use the dominated convergence theorem to let $T to infty$: $$lim_{T to infty} frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T chi(xi) e^{-ix xi} , dxi = mu({x}) = mathbb{P}(Y=x).$$
- Let $phi$ be the characteristic function of a real-valued random variable $X$. Show that $|phi|^2$ is the characteristic function of the random variable $Y:=X-X'$ where $X' sim X$ is an independent copy of $X$.
Now let $X$ be a random variable such that its characteristic function $phi$ is square-integrable. By Step 2, we know that $|phi|^2$ is the characteristic function of $Y=X-X'$ where $X' sim X$ is an independent copy of $X$. Since
$$lim_{T to infty} left| frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T |phi(xi)|^2 e^{-ix xi} dxi right| leq lim_{T to infty} frac{1}{2T} int_{mathbb{R}} |phi(xi)|^2 d xi =0$$
it follows from Step 1 (applied to $chi=|phi|^2$) that
$$mathbb{P}(Y=x) = 0$$
for all $x in mathbb{R}^d$. Since $Y=X-X'$ for $X sim X'$ independent, this implies that $mathbb{P}(X=x)=0$ for all $x in mathbb{R}^d$.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Would the downvoter care to comment?I'm always interested in improving my answers.
$endgroup$
– saz
Dec 7 '18 at 15:36
$begingroup$
No idea ( I didn't vote, though I am not entirely following the hint).
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Dec 7 '18 at 15:41
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hints: Show the following auxiliary statements:
- Let $chi$ be the characteristic function of a real-valued random variable $Y$ with distribution $mu$, i.e. $$chi(xi) = mathbb{E}e^{i xi Y} = int_{mathbb{R}} e^{i xi y} mu(dy).$$ Apply Fubini's theorem to show that $$frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T chi(xi) e^{-ix xi} dxi = mu({x}) + int_{mathbb{R} backslash {x}} frac{sin(T(y-x))}{T(y-x)} mu(dy).$$ Use the dominated convergence theorem to let $T to infty$: $$lim_{T to infty} frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T chi(xi) e^{-ix xi} , dxi = mu({x}) = mathbb{P}(Y=x).$$
- Let $phi$ be the characteristic function of a real-valued random variable $X$. Show that $|phi|^2$ is the characteristic function of the random variable $Y:=X-X'$ where $X' sim X$ is an independent copy of $X$.
Now let $X$ be a random variable such that its characteristic function $phi$ is square-integrable. By Step 2, we know that $|phi|^2$ is the characteristic function of $Y=X-X'$ where $X' sim X$ is an independent copy of $X$. Since
$$lim_{T to infty} left| frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T |phi(xi)|^2 e^{-ix xi} dxi right| leq lim_{T to infty} frac{1}{2T} int_{mathbb{R}} |phi(xi)|^2 d xi =0$$
it follows from Step 1 (applied to $chi=|phi|^2$) that
$$mathbb{P}(Y=x) = 0$$
for all $x in mathbb{R}^d$. Since $Y=X-X'$ for $X sim X'$ independent, this implies that $mathbb{P}(X=x)=0$ for all $x in mathbb{R}^d$.
$endgroup$
Hints: Show the following auxiliary statements:
- Let $chi$ be the characteristic function of a real-valued random variable $Y$ with distribution $mu$, i.e. $$chi(xi) = mathbb{E}e^{i xi Y} = int_{mathbb{R}} e^{i xi y} mu(dy).$$ Apply Fubini's theorem to show that $$frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T chi(xi) e^{-ix xi} dxi = mu({x}) + int_{mathbb{R} backslash {x}} frac{sin(T(y-x))}{T(y-x)} mu(dy).$$ Use the dominated convergence theorem to let $T to infty$: $$lim_{T to infty} frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T chi(xi) e^{-ix xi} , dxi = mu({x}) = mathbb{P}(Y=x).$$
- Let $phi$ be the characteristic function of a real-valued random variable $X$. Show that $|phi|^2$ is the characteristic function of the random variable $Y:=X-X'$ where $X' sim X$ is an independent copy of $X$.
Now let $X$ be a random variable such that its characteristic function $phi$ is square-integrable. By Step 2, we know that $|phi|^2$ is the characteristic function of $Y=X-X'$ where $X' sim X$ is an independent copy of $X$. Since
$$lim_{T to infty} left| frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T |phi(xi)|^2 e^{-ix xi} dxi right| leq lim_{T to infty} frac{1}{2T} int_{mathbb{R}} |phi(xi)|^2 d xi =0$$
it follows from Step 1 (applied to $chi=|phi|^2$) that
$$mathbb{P}(Y=x) = 0$$
for all $x in mathbb{R}^d$. Since $Y=X-X'$ for $X sim X'$ independent, this implies that $mathbb{P}(X=x)=0$ for all $x in mathbb{R}^d$.
edited Dec 7 '18 at 21:29
answered Dec 6 '18 at 20:36
sazsaz
79k858123
79k858123
$begingroup$
Would the downvoter care to comment?I'm always interested in improving my answers.
$endgroup$
– saz
Dec 7 '18 at 15:36
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No idea ( I didn't vote, though I am not entirely following the hint).
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Dec 7 '18 at 15:41
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Would the downvoter care to comment?I'm always interested in improving my answers.
$endgroup$
– saz
Dec 7 '18 at 15:36
$begingroup$
No idea ( I didn't vote, though I am not entirely following the hint).
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Dec 7 '18 at 15:41
$begingroup$
Would the downvoter care to comment?I'm always interested in improving my answers.
$endgroup$
– saz
Dec 7 '18 at 15:36
$begingroup$
Would the downvoter care to comment?I'm always interested in improving my answers.
$endgroup$
– saz
Dec 7 '18 at 15:36
$begingroup$
No idea ( I didn't vote, though I am not entirely following the hint).
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Dec 7 '18 at 15:41
$begingroup$
No idea ( I didn't vote, though I am not entirely following the hint).
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Dec 7 '18 at 15:41
add a comment |
$begingroup$
@Digitalis that is not the same question that I am asking.
$endgroup$
– Dragonite
Dec 6 '18 at 19:51
$begingroup$
Which part of the question do you have a hard time formalising ?
$endgroup$
– Digitalis
Dec 6 '18 at 20:15