Show that $int_{mathbb{R}} |mathbb{E}(e^{i xi X})|^2 , dxi < infty$ implies $P(X=x)=0, forall...












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  • If characteristic function is $L^2$ does it mean that the distribution is absolutely continuos?

    1 answer





Let $X$ be a real-valued random variable with $varphi_Xin L^2(mathbb{R})$, where $varphi_X$ denotes the characteristic function of $X$. Prove that $P(X=x)=0, forall xinmathbb{R}$.




Since $varphi_Xin L^2(mathbb{R})$, I believe that implies that $X$ must be continuous, then we use that to conclude that $P(X=x)=0$ for all $xinmathbb{R}$. However, I am having a hard time formalizing this idea. Any help would be appreciated.










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marked as duplicate by Clement C., Lord Shark the Unknown, Cesareo, amWhy, Community Dec 7 '18 at 15:30


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.















  • $begingroup$
    @Digitalis that is not the same question that I am asking.
    $endgroup$
    – Dragonite
    Dec 6 '18 at 19:51










  • $begingroup$
    Which part of the question do you have a hard time formalising ?
    $endgroup$
    – Digitalis
    Dec 6 '18 at 20:15
















1












$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • If characteristic function is $L^2$ does it mean that the distribution is absolutely continuos?

    1 answer





Let $X$ be a real-valued random variable with $varphi_Xin L^2(mathbb{R})$, where $varphi_X$ denotes the characteristic function of $X$. Prove that $P(X=x)=0, forall xinmathbb{R}$.




Since $varphi_Xin L^2(mathbb{R})$, I believe that implies that $X$ must be continuous, then we use that to conclude that $P(X=x)=0$ for all $xinmathbb{R}$. However, I am having a hard time formalizing this idea. Any help would be appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$



marked as duplicate by Clement C., Lord Shark the Unknown, Cesareo, amWhy, Community Dec 7 '18 at 15:30


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.















  • $begingroup$
    @Digitalis that is not the same question that I am asking.
    $endgroup$
    – Dragonite
    Dec 6 '18 at 19:51










  • $begingroup$
    Which part of the question do you have a hard time formalising ?
    $endgroup$
    – Digitalis
    Dec 6 '18 at 20:15














1












1








1


1



$begingroup$



This question already has an answer here:




  • If characteristic function is $L^2$ does it mean that the distribution is absolutely continuos?

    1 answer





Let $X$ be a real-valued random variable with $varphi_Xin L^2(mathbb{R})$, where $varphi_X$ denotes the characteristic function of $X$. Prove that $P(X=x)=0, forall xinmathbb{R}$.




Since $varphi_Xin L^2(mathbb{R})$, I believe that implies that $X$ must be continuous, then we use that to conclude that $P(X=x)=0$ for all $xinmathbb{R}$. However, I am having a hard time formalizing this idea. Any help would be appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





This question already has an answer here:




  • If characteristic function is $L^2$ does it mean that the distribution is absolutely continuos?

    1 answer





Let $X$ be a real-valued random variable with $varphi_Xin L^2(mathbb{R})$, where $varphi_X$ denotes the characteristic function of $X$. Prove that $P(X=x)=0, forall xinmathbb{R}$.




Since $varphi_Xin L^2(mathbb{R})$, I believe that implies that $X$ must be continuous, then we use that to conclude that $P(X=x)=0$ for all $xinmathbb{R}$. However, I am having a hard time formalizing this idea. Any help would be appreciated.





This question already has an answer here:




  • If characteristic function is $L^2$ does it mean that the distribution is absolutely continuos?

    1 answer








probability-theory measure-theory characteristic-functions






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edited Dec 6 '18 at 20:41









saz

79k858123




79k858123










asked Dec 6 '18 at 19:12









DragoniteDragonite

1,045420




1,045420




marked as duplicate by Clement C., Lord Shark the Unknown, Cesareo, amWhy, Community Dec 7 '18 at 15:30


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.






marked as duplicate by Clement C., Lord Shark the Unknown, Cesareo, amWhy, Community Dec 7 '18 at 15:30


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.














  • $begingroup$
    @Digitalis that is not the same question that I am asking.
    $endgroup$
    – Dragonite
    Dec 6 '18 at 19:51










  • $begingroup$
    Which part of the question do you have a hard time formalising ?
    $endgroup$
    – Digitalis
    Dec 6 '18 at 20:15


















  • $begingroup$
    @Digitalis that is not the same question that I am asking.
    $endgroup$
    – Dragonite
    Dec 6 '18 at 19:51










  • $begingroup$
    Which part of the question do you have a hard time formalising ?
    $endgroup$
    – Digitalis
    Dec 6 '18 at 20:15
















$begingroup$
@Digitalis that is not the same question that I am asking.
$endgroup$
– Dragonite
Dec 6 '18 at 19:51




$begingroup$
@Digitalis that is not the same question that I am asking.
$endgroup$
– Dragonite
Dec 6 '18 at 19:51












$begingroup$
Which part of the question do you have a hard time formalising ?
$endgroup$
– Digitalis
Dec 6 '18 at 20:15




$begingroup$
Which part of the question do you have a hard time formalising ?
$endgroup$
– Digitalis
Dec 6 '18 at 20:15










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















1












$begingroup$

Hints: Show the following auxiliary statements:




  1. Let $chi$ be the characteristic function of a real-valued random variable $Y$ with distribution $mu$, i.e. $$chi(xi) = mathbb{E}e^{i xi Y} = int_{mathbb{R}} e^{i xi y} mu(dy).$$ Apply Fubini's theorem to show that $$frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T chi(xi) e^{-ix xi} dxi = mu({x}) + int_{mathbb{R} backslash {x}} frac{sin(T(y-x))}{T(y-x)} mu(dy).$$ Use the dominated convergence theorem to let $T to infty$: $$lim_{T to infty} frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T chi(xi) e^{-ix xi} , dxi = mu({x}) = mathbb{P}(Y=x).$$

  2. Let $phi$ be the characteristic function of a real-valued random variable $X$. Show that $|phi|^2$ is the characteristic function of the random variable $Y:=X-X'$ where $X' sim X$ is an independent copy of $X$.


Now let $X$ be a random variable such that its characteristic function $phi$ is square-integrable. By Step 2, we know that $|phi|^2$ is the characteristic function of $Y=X-X'$ where $X' sim X$ is an independent copy of $X$. Since



$$lim_{T to infty} left| frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T |phi(xi)|^2 e^{-ix xi} dxi right| leq lim_{T to infty} frac{1}{2T} int_{mathbb{R}} |phi(xi)|^2 d xi =0$$



it follows from Step 1 (applied to $chi=|phi|^2$) that



$$mathbb{P}(Y=x) = 0$$



for all $x in mathbb{R}^d$. Since $Y=X-X'$ for $X sim X'$ independent, this implies that $mathbb{P}(X=x)=0$ for all $x in mathbb{R}^d$.






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  • $begingroup$
    Would the downvoter care to comment?I'm always interested in improving my answers.
    $endgroup$
    – saz
    Dec 7 '18 at 15:36












  • $begingroup$
    No idea ( I didn't vote, though I am not entirely following the hint).
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 7 '18 at 15:41




















1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









1












$begingroup$

Hints: Show the following auxiliary statements:




  1. Let $chi$ be the characteristic function of a real-valued random variable $Y$ with distribution $mu$, i.e. $$chi(xi) = mathbb{E}e^{i xi Y} = int_{mathbb{R}} e^{i xi y} mu(dy).$$ Apply Fubini's theorem to show that $$frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T chi(xi) e^{-ix xi} dxi = mu({x}) + int_{mathbb{R} backslash {x}} frac{sin(T(y-x))}{T(y-x)} mu(dy).$$ Use the dominated convergence theorem to let $T to infty$: $$lim_{T to infty} frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T chi(xi) e^{-ix xi} , dxi = mu({x}) = mathbb{P}(Y=x).$$

  2. Let $phi$ be the characteristic function of a real-valued random variable $X$. Show that $|phi|^2$ is the characteristic function of the random variable $Y:=X-X'$ where $X' sim X$ is an independent copy of $X$.


Now let $X$ be a random variable such that its characteristic function $phi$ is square-integrable. By Step 2, we know that $|phi|^2$ is the characteristic function of $Y=X-X'$ where $X' sim X$ is an independent copy of $X$. Since



$$lim_{T to infty} left| frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T |phi(xi)|^2 e^{-ix xi} dxi right| leq lim_{T to infty} frac{1}{2T} int_{mathbb{R}} |phi(xi)|^2 d xi =0$$



it follows from Step 1 (applied to $chi=|phi|^2$) that



$$mathbb{P}(Y=x) = 0$$



for all $x in mathbb{R}^d$. Since $Y=X-X'$ for $X sim X'$ independent, this implies that $mathbb{P}(X=x)=0$ for all $x in mathbb{R}^d$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Would the downvoter care to comment?I'm always interested in improving my answers.
    $endgroup$
    – saz
    Dec 7 '18 at 15:36












  • $begingroup$
    No idea ( I didn't vote, though I am not entirely following the hint).
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 7 '18 at 15:41


















1












$begingroup$

Hints: Show the following auxiliary statements:




  1. Let $chi$ be the characteristic function of a real-valued random variable $Y$ with distribution $mu$, i.e. $$chi(xi) = mathbb{E}e^{i xi Y} = int_{mathbb{R}} e^{i xi y} mu(dy).$$ Apply Fubini's theorem to show that $$frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T chi(xi) e^{-ix xi} dxi = mu({x}) + int_{mathbb{R} backslash {x}} frac{sin(T(y-x))}{T(y-x)} mu(dy).$$ Use the dominated convergence theorem to let $T to infty$: $$lim_{T to infty} frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T chi(xi) e^{-ix xi} , dxi = mu({x}) = mathbb{P}(Y=x).$$

  2. Let $phi$ be the characteristic function of a real-valued random variable $X$. Show that $|phi|^2$ is the characteristic function of the random variable $Y:=X-X'$ where $X' sim X$ is an independent copy of $X$.


Now let $X$ be a random variable such that its characteristic function $phi$ is square-integrable. By Step 2, we know that $|phi|^2$ is the characteristic function of $Y=X-X'$ where $X' sim X$ is an independent copy of $X$. Since



$$lim_{T to infty} left| frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T |phi(xi)|^2 e^{-ix xi} dxi right| leq lim_{T to infty} frac{1}{2T} int_{mathbb{R}} |phi(xi)|^2 d xi =0$$



it follows from Step 1 (applied to $chi=|phi|^2$) that



$$mathbb{P}(Y=x) = 0$$



for all $x in mathbb{R}^d$. Since $Y=X-X'$ for $X sim X'$ independent, this implies that $mathbb{P}(X=x)=0$ for all $x in mathbb{R}^d$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Would the downvoter care to comment?I'm always interested in improving my answers.
    $endgroup$
    – saz
    Dec 7 '18 at 15:36












  • $begingroup$
    No idea ( I didn't vote, though I am not entirely following the hint).
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 7 '18 at 15:41
















1












1








1





$begingroup$

Hints: Show the following auxiliary statements:




  1. Let $chi$ be the characteristic function of a real-valued random variable $Y$ with distribution $mu$, i.e. $$chi(xi) = mathbb{E}e^{i xi Y} = int_{mathbb{R}} e^{i xi y} mu(dy).$$ Apply Fubini's theorem to show that $$frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T chi(xi) e^{-ix xi} dxi = mu({x}) + int_{mathbb{R} backslash {x}} frac{sin(T(y-x))}{T(y-x)} mu(dy).$$ Use the dominated convergence theorem to let $T to infty$: $$lim_{T to infty} frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T chi(xi) e^{-ix xi} , dxi = mu({x}) = mathbb{P}(Y=x).$$

  2. Let $phi$ be the characteristic function of a real-valued random variable $X$. Show that $|phi|^2$ is the characteristic function of the random variable $Y:=X-X'$ where $X' sim X$ is an independent copy of $X$.


Now let $X$ be a random variable such that its characteristic function $phi$ is square-integrable. By Step 2, we know that $|phi|^2$ is the characteristic function of $Y=X-X'$ where $X' sim X$ is an independent copy of $X$. Since



$$lim_{T to infty} left| frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T |phi(xi)|^2 e^{-ix xi} dxi right| leq lim_{T to infty} frac{1}{2T} int_{mathbb{R}} |phi(xi)|^2 d xi =0$$



it follows from Step 1 (applied to $chi=|phi|^2$) that



$$mathbb{P}(Y=x) = 0$$



for all $x in mathbb{R}^d$. Since $Y=X-X'$ for $X sim X'$ independent, this implies that $mathbb{P}(X=x)=0$ for all $x in mathbb{R}^d$.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$



Hints: Show the following auxiliary statements:




  1. Let $chi$ be the characteristic function of a real-valued random variable $Y$ with distribution $mu$, i.e. $$chi(xi) = mathbb{E}e^{i xi Y} = int_{mathbb{R}} e^{i xi y} mu(dy).$$ Apply Fubini's theorem to show that $$frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T chi(xi) e^{-ix xi} dxi = mu({x}) + int_{mathbb{R} backslash {x}} frac{sin(T(y-x))}{T(y-x)} mu(dy).$$ Use the dominated convergence theorem to let $T to infty$: $$lim_{T to infty} frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T chi(xi) e^{-ix xi} , dxi = mu({x}) = mathbb{P}(Y=x).$$

  2. Let $phi$ be the characteristic function of a real-valued random variable $X$. Show that $|phi|^2$ is the characteristic function of the random variable $Y:=X-X'$ where $X' sim X$ is an independent copy of $X$.


Now let $X$ be a random variable such that its characteristic function $phi$ is square-integrable. By Step 2, we know that $|phi|^2$ is the characteristic function of $Y=X-X'$ where $X' sim X$ is an independent copy of $X$. Since



$$lim_{T to infty} left| frac{1}{2T} int_{-T}^T |phi(xi)|^2 e^{-ix xi} dxi right| leq lim_{T to infty} frac{1}{2T} int_{mathbb{R}} |phi(xi)|^2 d xi =0$$



it follows from Step 1 (applied to $chi=|phi|^2$) that



$$mathbb{P}(Y=x) = 0$$



for all $x in mathbb{R}^d$. Since $Y=X-X'$ for $X sim X'$ independent, this implies that $mathbb{P}(X=x)=0$ for all $x in mathbb{R}^d$.







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share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Dec 7 '18 at 21:29

























answered Dec 6 '18 at 20:36









sazsaz

79k858123




79k858123












  • $begingroup$
    Would the downvoter care to comment?I'm always interested in improving my answers.
    $endgroup$
    – saz
    Dec 7 '18 at 15:36












  • $begingroup$
    No idea ( I didn't vote, though I am not entirely following the hint).
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 7 '18 at 15:41




















  • $begingroup$
    Would the downvoter care to comment?I'm always interested in improving my answers.
    $endgroup$
    – saz
    Dec 7 '18 at 15:36












  • $begingroup$
    No idea ( I didn't vote, though I am not entirely following the hint).
    $endgroup$
    – Clement C.
    Dec 7 '18 at 15:41


















$begingroup$
Would the downvoter care to comment?I'm always interested in improving my answers.
$endgroup$
– saz
Dec 7 '18 at 15:36






$begingroup$
Would the downvoter care to comment?I'm always interested in improving my answers.
$endgroup$
– saz
Dec 7 '18 at 15:36














$begingroup$
No idea ( I didn't vote, though I am not entirely following the hint).
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Dec 7 '18 at 15:41






$begingroup$
No idea ( I didn't vote, though I am not entirely following the hint).
$endgroup$
– Clement C.
Dec 7 '18 at 15:41





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