Non convergence of a series of random variables












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Question:



Let $(X_n), ninmathbb{N}$ be a sequence of independent r.v.s such that $P(X_n=n^4)=frac{1}{n^4}$ and $P(X_n=-1)=1-frac{1}{n^4}$. Study the a.s. convergence of $S_n=sum_{i=1}^n X_n$ as $nrightarrow +infty$.




My Attempt:



I have been simulating the stochastic process $S_n$ in R to understand whether convergence was possible at all but in none of the simulations I performed I obtained a finite value (all of the paths go to -9999).



Also, clearly, $sum_{i=1}^n operatorname{Var}(S_n)rightarrow +infty$ as $nrightarrow +infty$. Can I thus conclude that $S_n$ does NOT converge a.s.?



Many thanks in advance for the help!










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    $begingroup$



    Question:



    Let $(X_n), ninmathbb{N}$ be a sequence of independent r.v.s such that $P(X_n=n^4)=frac{1}{n^4}$ and $P(X_n=-1)=1-frac{1}{n^4}$. Study the a.s. convergence of $S_n=sum_{i=1}^n X_n$ as $nrightarrow +infty$.




    My Attempt:



    I have been simulating the stochastic process $S_n$ in R to understand whether convergence was possible at all but in none of the simulations I performed I obtained a finite value (all of the paths go to -9999).



    Also, clearly, $sum_{i=1}^n operatorname{Var}(S_n)rightarrow +infty$ as $nrightarrow +infty$. Can I thus conclude that $S_n$ does NOT converge a.s.?



    Many thanks in advance for the help!










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      4












      4








      4





      $begingroup$



      Question:



      Let $(X_n), ninmathbb{N}$ be a sequence of independent r.v.s such that $P(X_n=n^4)=frac{1}{n^4}$ and $P(X_n=-1)=1-frac{1}{n^4}$. Study the a.s. convergence of $S_n=sum_{i=1}^n X_n$ as $nrightarrow +infty$.




      My Attempt:



      I have been simulating the stochastic process $S_n$ in R to understand whether convergence was possible at all but in none of the simulations I performed I obtained a finite value (all of the paths go to -9999).



      Also, clearly, $sum_{i=1}^n operatorname{Var}(S_n)rightarrow +infty$ as $nrightarrow +infty$. Can I thus conclude that $S_n$ does NOT converge a.s.?



      Many thanks in advance for the help!










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      Question:



      Let $(X_n), ninmathbb{N}$ be a sequence of independent r.v.s such that $P(X_n=n^4)=frac{1}{n^4}$ and $P(X_n=-1)=1-frac{1}{n^4}$. Study the a.s. convergence of $S_n=sum_{i=1}^n X_n$ as $nrightarrow +infty$.




      My Attempt:



      I have been simulating the stochastic process $S_n$ in R to understand whether convergence was possible at all but in none of the simulations I performed I obtained a finite value (all of the paths go to -9999).



      Also, clearly, $sum_{i=1}^n operatorname{Var}(S_n)rightarrow +infty$ as $nrightarrow +infty$. Can I thus conclude that $S_n$ does NOT converge a.s.?



      Many thanks in advance for the help!







      probability probability-theory convergence borel-cantelli-lemmas






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      edited Dec 8 '18 at 19:42









      Davide Giraudo

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      125k16150261










      asked Dec 4 '18 at 16:22









      GiulioGiulio

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          Note that $P(X_n>1quad text{i.o})=0$ by Borel cantelli. Hence $X_n=-1$ for all but finitely many $n$ with probability $1$. In particular, the series diverges.






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            $begingroup$

            Note that $P(X_n>1quad text{i.o})=0$ by Borel cantelli. Hence $X_n=-1$ for all but finitely many $n$ with probability $1$. In particular, the series diverges.






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              $begingroup$

              Note that $P(X_n>1quad text{i.o})=0$ by Borel cantelli. Hence $X_n=-1$ for all but finitely many $n$ with probability $1$. In particular, the series diverges.






              share|cite|improve this answer









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                $begingroup$

                Note that $P(X_n>1quad text{i.o})=0$ by Borel cantelli. Hence $X_n=-1$ for all but finitely many $n$ with probability $1$. In particular, the series diverges.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Note that $P(X_n>1quad text{i.o})=0$ by Borel cantelli. Hence $X_n=-1$ for all but finitely many $n$ with probability $1$. In particular, the series diverges.







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                answered Dec 4 '18 at 16:31









                Foobaz JohnFoobaz John

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